Week 4 Flashcards
You are reading the EKG of a patient who complains of dizziness and poor exercise tolerance. On it, you see lengthening of the PR interval with each successive beat until eventually there is a P wave but no QRS. This pattern repeats itself over the EKG. Which of the following is most consistent with this finding?
- First degree AV block
- Second degree AV block, Mobitz type I (Wenckebach)
- Second degree AV block, Mobitz type II
- Third degree AV block
Answer: B. Second degree AV block, Mobitz type I
The presence of dropped QRS beats excludes A. The lengthening of PR intervals excludes C. And the relationship between the P wave and QRS wave exclude D. If you see a prolonged PR interval (> 5 small boxes) but no dropped beats, then you have A. First Degree AV block. If you saw a consistent PR interval (instead of one that lengthens with successive beats) and intermittently a P wave without a QRS complex following, you’d have C. Second degree AV block, Mobitz type II. If you saw P waves and QRS complexes that seemed completely independent of one another with a widened QRS, then you have D. Third degree AV block.
Lecture: 135a Bradycardia
Learning Objective: 4. Describe ECG diagnosis of bradycardia (MKS 1b,1d)
You have a patient who presents with shortness of breath, heart palpitations, and chest pain. On EKG you see a regular heart beat of 200 bpm with P waves in a saw-toothed pattern. What abnormality explains this patient’s findings?
- Atrial Fibrillation
- Atrial Flutter
- Ventricular Tachycardia
- Ventricular Fibrillation
Answer: B. Atrial Flutter
Atrial Flutter is characterized by regular beats with saw-toothed P wave. A. Atrial Fibrillation is characterized by irregularly irregular beats with no organized P waves. C. Ventricular tachycardia can be monomorphic with a single consistent QRS morphology or polymorphic with a changing QRS morphology (ie Torsades de Pointes). D. Ventricular Fibrillation has no discrete QRS complexes and can cause sudden death.
Lecture: 136a Tachyarrhythmias
Learning Objective: Describe the mechanisms and basic clinical features and management of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia, atrial fibrillation and flutter. (MKS 1b, 1e)
List the top 3 risk factors or peripheral vascular disease.
Answer: 1. Smoking 2. Diabetes 3. Hypertension
Lecture: 137A Peripheral Vascular Disease
Learning Objective: 1. Explain the natural history and pathophysiology of peripheral arterial disease (MKS1b,1c)
You’re in your ECMH clinic and you see a patient for a physical. He has no complaints but has a history of hypertension. Which stage would you classify for this patient for heart failure?
- Stage A
- Stage B
- Stage C
- Stage D
- No staging applicable as he doesn’t have symptoms
Answer: A. Stage A
Stage A is no symptoms but with risk factors (hypertension in this case). Stage B is no symptoms but structural heart disease or functional cardiac abnormalities like LV hypertrophy, myocardial infarction etc. Stage C is symptomatic heart failure with structural disease. Stage D is symptoms at rest that are refractory to medical therapy with advanced structural disease.
Lecture: 138A Heart Failure Pathophysiology
Learning Objective: 1. Define the staging system for heart failure (MKS 1b)
Which of the following is true about Rhythm Control Antiarrhythmics?
- Classes I and III are used for Rhythm Control, which act on the SA node.
- Classes I and III are used for Rhythm Control, which acts at the AV node to get regular ventricular control regardless of atrial rate.
- Classes II and IV are used for Rhythm Control, which act on the SA node.
- Classes II and IV are used for Rhythm Control, which act at the AV node.
Answer: A. Classes I and III are used for Rhythm Control, which act on the SA node.
Classes II and IV are used for Rate Control, which act at the AV node.
HINT: The SketchyPharm videos are very useful for the antiarrhythmic drugs.
Lecture: 139a Pharmacology of Antiarrythmic Drugs
Learning Objective: 3. Recapitulate the Vaughan-Williams Classification Scheme of Antiarrhythmic Drugs
Match the features associated with Mitral Stenosis vs Aortic Stenosis.
- Increased risk of stroke
- Increased afterload
- Left atrial dilation
- Diastolic rumble with opening snap
- Midsystolic outflow murmur
- Rheumatic Fever
Answer: Mitral Stenosis: Increased risk of stroke (due to A Fib due to left atrial dilation), Left atrial dilation, Diastolic Rumble with opening snap, Rheumatic fever (is primary cause)
Aortic Stenosis: Increased afterload, Midsystolic outflow murmur
Lecture: 141a Valvular Disease: Obstructive
Learning Objective: 1. Explain normal hemodynamics and the abnormal hemodynamics that are created by mitral stenosis and aortic stenosis, which translate into the physical findings and abnormalities in chest X-ray and echocardiography. (MKS1b,1d)
Match the features associated with Aortic Regurgitation vs Mitral Regurgitation
- Increased preload and afterload
- Widened pulse pressure
- Increased preload
- Marfan’s
- Mitral valve prolapse
- Holosystolic murmur
- Diastolic blowing decrescendo murmur
Answer: Aortic Regurgitation: Increased preload AND afterload, widened pulse pressure, Marfan’s, Diastolic blowing decrescendo murmur
Mitral Regurgitation: increased preload, Mitral valve prolapse, holosystolic murmur
Lecture: 142a Valvular Heart Disease: Regurgitant
Learning Objective: 1. Explain the abnormal hemodynamics created by regurgitation of the aortic and mitral valves, which translate into the physical findings and abnormalities in chest X-ray and echocardiography. (MKS1b,d)
Fill in the appropriate pressures as a catheter would move through the heart.
Right atrium
Right Ventricle
Pulmonary Artery
Wedge
Left Atrium
Left Ventricle
Aorta
Answer:
Right atrium: 6 mmHg
Right Ventricle: 24/6 mmHg
Pulmonary Artery: 24/12 mmHg
Wedge: 6-12 mmHg
Left Atrium 6-12 mmHg
Left Ventricle: 120/6-12 mmHg
Aorta: 120/60 mmHg
Lecture: 143a Clinical Hemodynamics and Ventricular Function
Learning Objective: 2. List normal systolic and diastolic hemodynamic parameters in the following cardiovascular structures: right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary artery, left atrium, left ventricle, and aorta (MKS 1b, 1d).
What 3 classes of medications are the first you would prescribe a patient who has just been diagnosed with heart failure?
Answer: ACE-inhibitor, diuretic, and beta-blocker
Lecture: 144a Heart Failure Treatment
Learning Objective: List which heart failure therapies improve symptoms and which therapies improve outcomes (MKS 1b, 1c, 1e)