Week 3 (PCR and RNA Review) Flashcards

1
Q

PCR

A

Polymerase Chain Reaction

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2
Q

what steps are involved to prepare DNA for replication?

A
  1. DNA unwinded from histones
  2. separation of the DNA strands (unzipped)
  3. primase/RNA primer added
  4. DNA polymerase must be able to come in and make the new DNA strand
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3
Q

why is an RNA primer so important?

A

it makes a FREE 3’ hydroxyl available for DNA polymerase to bind

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4
Q

what adds a free 3’ hydroxyl group so that DNA polymerase can bind?

A

primer

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5
Q

In which direction is DNA synthesized?

A

5’ to 3’

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6
Q

on a forward facing DNA strand (5’—- 3’), where would the primer need to be placed?

A

toward the 3’ end because DNA is read 3’ to 5’ so that it can be synthesized 5’ to 3’

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7
Q

on a reverse facing DNA strand (3’—- 5’), where would the primer need to be placed?

A

toward the 3’ end because DNA is read 3’ to 5’ so that it can be synthesized 5’ to 3’

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8
Q

when will DNA polymerase stop reading the DNA strand?

A

when there is no longer a template to read from

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9
Q

requirements for replicating DNA

A
  • DNA template
  • DNA polymerase
  • nucleotides (dNTP)
  • primers
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10
Q

what is the equation for number of copies of target?

A
  • N*2^C
  • N = number of starting copies
  • C = number of cycles
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11
Q

N*2^C

A

number of copies of target strand

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12
Q

N*2^C - what does N mean?

A

number of starting copies

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13
Q

N*2^C - what does C mean?

A

number of cycles

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14
Q

ex: N*2^C, you have 1 starting copy and 2 cycles

A

4

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15
Q

ex: N*2^C, you have 1 starting copy and 25 cycles

A

33.5M

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16
Q

Why do you lose some DNA every time you replicate?

A

the primer attaches to the DNA template and will start copying at your target DNA, it is only trying to amplify your target DNA

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17
Q

What are the 3 steps in PCR?

A
  1. denaturation
  2. annealing
  3. extension
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18
Q

what occurs during the first step of PCR?

A
  • denaturation
  • 94 degrees Celsius
  • melt the two strands apart
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19
Q

what temperature does it need to be for denaturation?

A

94 degrees C

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20
Q

why do we heat up the DNA to separate the 2 strands?

A

weak hydrogen bonds hold them together and so they can be separated by heat

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21
Q

what can be used to separate the DNA from the histones?

A

phenol

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22
Q

what occurs during the second step of PCR?

A
  • annealing of primers
  • 54 degrees Celsius
  • warm enough to keep DNA from coming back together but cool enough to have primers bind to each single strand of DNA
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23
Q

what temperature does it need to be for annealing?

A

54 degrees Celsius

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24
Q

why does it need to be 55 degrees Celsius during the annealing process?

A

warm enough to keep DNA from coming back together but cool enough to have primers bind to each single strand of DNA

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25
Q

why does the temperature need to cool down rapidly between denaturation and annealing?

A

if it is done slowly, you will have nonspecific priming

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26
Q

what occurs during the third step of PCR?

A
  • extension
  • 72 degrees Celsius
  • optimal temperature for DNA polymerase
  • extend in the 5’ to 3’ direction
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27
Q

what temperature does it need to be for extension?

A

72 degrees celsius

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28
Q

why does it need to be 72 degrees celsius during extension?

A

optimal temperature for DNA polymerase

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29
Q

what is an example of a DNA polymerase used in PCR? Where does it originate from?

A
  • TAQ
  • it comes from a bacteria that lives in a extremely hot water so it has a DNA polymerase that can replicate in hot temperatures
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30
Q

what are the 3 things that are key to PCR success?

A
  1. primer specificity
  2. annealing temp
  3. Mg2+ concentration
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31
Q

what affects the primer specificity?

A
  • determined by the length of the primer
  • estimated as 4^k (k is the number of bases in the primer)
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32
Q

what is the k in 4^k?

A

the number of bases in the primer

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33
Q

for primer specificity, what does it mean if k=4?

A

there are 4 bases in the primer, so there is 1 in 256 bases

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34
Q

how does annealing temperature affect specificity (low vs high temp)?

A
  • low temp = less specific
  • high temp = more specific
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35
Q

how does Mg2++ concentration affect specificity (low vs high concentration)?

A
  • low Mg = higher specificity
  • high MG = lower specificity
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36
Q

what is the minimum primer length to assume that it only binds to one location in the genome?

A

between 15 and 17

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37
Q

when you do a PCR and get several lines light up what is this called? Why is it bad?

A

nonspecificity, you did not appropriately set up the “recipe” right, and it amplified more than the gene that you wanted

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38
Q

What would a really good PCR look like?

A

distinct bands

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39
Q

What do you do if you run PCR for the first time and you get non-specificity? What options do you have?

A
  • increase the annealing temperature (so the primers will anneal to the place that it is targeting)
  • decrease magnesium
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40
Q

when would you increase temperature in the PCR to be more specific?

A

during annealing so the primers will anneal to the place that it is targeting

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41
Q

how do you solve what the optimal PCR is? You have 2 variables.

A

Hold one variable constant and change the other

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42
Q

when finding the optimal PCR, how can you speed up the process?

A

using multiple thermal cyclers

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43
Q

do you have to optimize for every primer?

A

yes

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44
Q

what is a Poly A tail?

A

a chain of adenine nucleotides added to the end of a messenger RNA (mRNA) molecule. The poly(A) tail helps stabilize the mRNA and allows it to be exported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm

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45
Q

what primer can you add, knowing you have an RNA with a Poly A tail?

A

an oligo dT primer

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46
Q

What is needed for a polymerase to bind to the molecule?

A

free 3’ hydroxyl

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47
Q

what molecule do we need to read RNA and make a new strand of DNA?

A

reverse transcriptase

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48
Q

RT-PCR

A

Reverse Transcriptase Polymerase Chain Reaction

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49
Q

what is the purpose of RT-PRC?

A

synthesizing a new strand of DNA from mRNA

50
Q

some limitations of PCR

A
  • size
  • base complexity
  • secondary structure
51
Q

why are you limited to the size of the DNA segment you can copy in PCR?

A

polymerases have a process severity rate (they add nucleotides at a certain rate), if you have to heat up and cool down the PCR over and over again polymerases will lose their activity

52
Q

in general using specialized polymerases one can get about _____ kb

53
Q

why does base complexity limit PCR?

A

repetitive sequences are a problem for primer specificity

54
Q

how can a high content of Gs and Cs affect PCR?

A

they have 3 hydrogen bonds between them so you will need more heat to break apart the DNA

55
Q

how can a high content of As and Ts affect PCR?

A

you need less heat to separate the strands because there is only 2 hydrogen bonds between them, however at lower temperatures primers are going to anneal to non specific locations

56
Q

examples of a secondary structure and its shape

a secondary structure of RNA

A

tRNAs, clover leaf

57
Q

is it easier or harder for a DNA polymerase to get through secondary structures?

A

it will be more difficult (think about a polymerase trying to go through a hairpin/cloverleaf)

58
Q

what is the difference between dTTP and ddTTP?

A

dTTP (deoxythymidine triphosphate) has a free 3’ hydroxyl and ddTTP (dideoxythymidine triphosphate) does not have a hydroxyl, only a hydrogen. This makes ddTTP a terminator because a polymerase cannot add another nucleotide after it is added, it has to stop.

59
Q

sanger sequencing vs PCR?

A

in PCR there are all 4 nucleotides in every reaction, in sanger sequencing there are 4 tubes (one for each nucleotide), run 4 PCR

60
Q

in sanger sequencing, what does each of the 4 tubes contain?

A
  1. DNA fragment to be sequenced
  2. primer
  3. dNTP (bases A, G, T, C)
  4. polymerase
  5. ddNTP
61
Q

ddNTP

A

dideoxynucleotide triphosphate

62
Q

what is a terminator?

A
  • ddNTP
  • when DNA polymerases use the ddNTP the process stops
63
Q

there is a _____ ratio of ddNTP to dNTP so you don’t stop at only the first point they appear

64
Q

how did they make reading sanger sequences more efficient?

A

add fluorescent dye to each one of the dideoxynucleotides so that each nucleotide fluorescents at different wavelengths, this allows a machine to read it (normal nucleotides are unlabeled)

65
Q

what did the Human Genome Project use to sequence the human genome?

A

dideoxy-sequencing method

66
Q

dideoxy-sequencing method can be _____________, meaning humans spend less time analyzing the results

67
Q

central dogma

A

DNA–>RNA–>Protein

68
Q

where does transcription occur in the cell?

A

the nucleus

69
Q

where does translation occur in the cell?

A

the cytoplasm

70
Q

key components needed for transcription

A
  1. a DNA template
  2. the raw materials (ribonucleotide triphosphates - A,C,G,U) needed to build a new RNA molecule
  3. the transcription apparatus, consisting of the proteins necessary for catalyzing the synthesis of RNA
71
Q

what has to happen first to DNA in order for a gene to be transcribed?

A

nucleosome repositioning –> the DNA must be made accessible, meaning it must be separated from histones

72
Q

why is the nontemplate strand of DNA not usually transcribed?

A

it would make a different protein, the strand is complementary

73
Q

RNA is synthesized in the ____’ to ___’ direction

A

3’ to 5’

74
Q

during transcription, DNA is read in the ___’ to ___’ direction

A

3’ to 5’

75
Q

what are two differences between DNA replication and transcription?

A
  1. incoming nucleotides have and OH at 2’
  2. RNA uses Uracil
76
Q

Which is the 5’ and 3’ end of DNA?

A

this is because the polymerase started on the 3’ end, so as it synthesized towards the 5’ end there is added length (added nucleotides)

77
Q

Why is it that simple organisms have approximately the same number of protein coding genes as complex organisms?

A

it has to do with regulation of those genes. you can produce many proteins from the same template.

78
Q

the number of genes ________ strongly correlated with organismal complexity

79
Q

T2T

A

telomere to telomere

80
Q

when was the first genome read telomere to telomere, when was the human genome project really finished?

81
Q

a lot of what is transcribed and not translated can have a lot of ____________ roles

A

regulatory

82
Q

genes can be turned on and off depending on:

A
  • time in development
  • nutrients
  • stress
83
Q

what do regulatory regions of a gene determine?

A

if transcription occurs: the what, when, where, how much

84
Q

the what, when, where, how much of translation

A
  • what: gene needs to be turned on
  • when: what point in does it need to be turned on
  • where: which tissue, which cell type
  • how much: amount (a little vs a lot)
85
Q

what are control structures in transcription?

A
  • regulatory promoters
  • core promoters
  • transcription factors
  • enhancers
86
Q

regulatory promoters

A
  • upstream of the core promoter
  • transcription factors can bind here
  • affect the RATE of transcription
87
Q

regulatory promoter affect the _____ of transcription

88
Q

enhancers

A

distal locations can also enhance transcription

89
Q

core promoter

A

where polymerase binds

90
Q

what is upstream on the gene?

A

before the promoter

91
Q

what is downstream on the gene?

A

after the promoter

92
Q

_____ is the fundamental unit of heredity

93
Q

if the promoter/enhancers/regulatory proteins “say so”, a protein-coding gene is ____________, and the result is a “___________”

A

transcribed, “pre-mRNA”

94
Q

mRNAs have ___’ cap and a ___’ poly (A) tail

A

5’ cap and a 3’ poly (A) tail

95
Q

what do the red arrows mean?

A

different locations where you can have DNA variation

96
Q

from left to right, label the red arrows

A
  • promoter (5’ untranslated region)
  • exon
  • splice site
  • intron
  • 3’ untranslated region
97
Q

_____ are spliced out, ______ remain after splicing

A

introns, exons

98
Q

5’ cap of ____ and ____ for translation initiation

A

‘G’ and CH3

99
Q

is the process of splicing 100% accurate 100% of the time?

A

NO, errors can occur, a retained intron is possible

100
Q

intron

A

a non-coding region of DNA that doesn’t code for a protein in between two regions that do

101
Q

exon

A

region of DNA that codes for a protein

102
Q

only ~___% of mammalian genome is protein coding

103
Q

in eukaryotes, intron size and number is related to organism ________

A

complexity

104
Q

in order to have collinearity, introns are spliced out by _________________ in a splicesome

A

snRNPs (small nuclear ribonucleoproteins)

105
Q

5’ splice donor cite ___ (___ in DNA)

A

GU (GT in DNA)

106
Q

3’ splice acceptor site ____

107
Q

what is the purpose of alternative splicing/cleavage?

A

exons are always placed in order, however, some may be spliced out (or kept in) which affects the type of protein that is made

108
Q

translation

A

mRNA is used to make a protein

109
Q

how many bases are needed to distinguish 20 AA?

A

3 (a codon)

110
Q

kmer

A

short stretch of DNA

111
Q

what equation do we use to determine how many possible combinations of nucleotides there will be?

A

4^x (x=the number of positions), ex: 4^3 (reading 3 at a time, a codon) = 64 possible combinations

112
Q

mutation introduces _______, which can change the sequence of the codon causing a possible change of the amino acid

113
Q

in general, ____ position mutations have less potential consequences due to redundancy

114
Q

degenerate

A

more than one codon for each AA

115
Q

wobble

A

typically the 3rd base of the codon can vary

116
Q

synonymous

A

change in DNA sequence does not change AA

117
Q

non-synonymous

A

change in DNA sequence changes AA

118
Q

nonsense

A

change in DNA introduces a stop codon

119
Q

start codon, methionine

120
Q

3 stop codons

A

UAG, UAA, UGA

121
Q

since the code is read in three’s, there is a _________ ______

A

reading frame

122
Q

each codon specifies same AA in almost all organisms

A

nearly universal