week 3 part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Pancytopenia

A

A DEFICIENCY OF BLOOD CELLS OF all LINEAGES (but generally excludes lymphocytes!)

Pancytopenia is NOT a diagnosis (it reflects a diagnosis)

Pancytopenia does NOT always mean bone marrow failure or malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the two mechanisms that cause pancytopenia?

A

Reduced production
OR
Increased destruction of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Clinical Manifestations of Pancytopenia

A

Pancytopenia usually presents with signs and symptoms that relate to a reduction in a particular cell line:

1) Anemia
2) Thrombocytopenia
3) Neutropenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Thrombocytopenia

A
  1. Defined as a platelet count of <150,000 cells/μ‎L.
  2. Patients with platelet counts >100,000 cells/μ‎L often have normal bleeding times (unless platelet function is abnormal) and usually do not have symptoms.
  3. Easy bruising may be noted as the platelet count approaches 50,000 cells/μ‎L.
  4. Counts below 10,000–20,000 cells/μ‎L can be associated with petechiae, mucosal bleeding, hemarthrosis, and spontaneous internal bleeds.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Neutropenia

A
  1. Defined as an absolute neutrophil count of <1500 cells/μ‎L.
  2. Predisposes patients to bacterial infections (however, patients usually present with symptoms related to anemia or thrombocytopenia first).
  3. The risk for infection increases substantially after the neutrophil count falls below 500 cells/μ‎L.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Common Causes of Pancytopenia (“PANCYTO”)

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)

Aplastic anemia

Neoplasms and Near neoplasms

Consumption

Vitamin deficiencies (the “V” looks like a “Y”)

Toxins, drugs, and radiation therapy

Overwhelming infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

PNH

A

A disorder of stem cells that results in an increased sensitivity to complement-mediated cell lysis. The etiology relates to a somatically acquired loss of the PIGA (phosphatidylinositol N-acetylglucosaminyltransferase subunit A) gene in hematopoietic progenitor cells. PNH can clinically manifest as an isolated Coombs test–negative intravascular hemolysis, a hypercoagulable state, and/or bone marrow aplasia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Aplastic anemia

A

Aplastic anemia is one of the misnomers in medicine because it involves a disorder of stem cells and therefore affects all cell lines. The etiology of idiopathic aplastic anemia is unknown, but an immune-mediated reduction in hematopoietic progenitors has been proposed.

Aplastic anemia is a condition that occurs when your body stops producing enough new blood cells. The condition leaves you fatigued and more prone to infections and uncontrolled bleeding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

There are many causes of Aplastic anemia, what are the infectious causes?

A

Parvovirus B19 is the most frequently documented viral cause of aplastic anemia. Hepatitis, HIV, cytomegalovirus (CMV), and, Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infections have also been seen; however, the specific type of hepatitis virus associated with aplastic anemia has not been identified.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Fanconi’s anemia

A

Fanconi’s anemia is an autosomal recessive or X-linked disease that usually appears in childhood and is often associated with other congenital abnormalities (e.g., cardiac and renal malformations, hypoplastic thumbs, hyperpigmented skin). Fanconi’s anemia is associated with an increased risk for solid tumors and leukemias as well as aplastic anemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Drug causes of aplastic anemia

A

Drugs and toxins. Chemotherapeutic agents, chloramphenicol, sulfa drugs, gold, nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs, certain antiepileptic drugs, ionizing radiation, benzene, and various other drugs have been associated with aplastic anemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Idiopathic aplastic anemia

A

Despite an extensive workup, the cause remains unclear in a large number of patients. In these cases, the leading hypothesis is that a host immune response against hematopoietic progenitor cells leads to the aplastic anemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What neoplasms cause pancytopenia?

A

Neoplasms (e.g., leukemia, metastatic malignancies) and near neoplasms (i.e., myelodysplastic syndrome) can cause pancytopenia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Consumption cause of pancytopenia

A

i. Hypersplenism

ii. Immune-mediated destruction usually results in decreases of one or two cell lines but can also cause pancytopenia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What vitamin deficiencies cause panctopenia?

A

Vitamin deficiencies (e.g., vitamin B12 and folate deficiencies) should always be considered in patients with pancytopenia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Overwhelming infections that may cause pancytopenia

A

Sepsis, tuberculosis, or fungal infection can cause pancytopenia. HIV infection can also result in pancytopenia from the infection itself, superimposed infections, or medications used to treat the infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Physical examination for pancytopenia

A

Carefully examine the spleen and lymph nodes. The presence of splenomegaly increases the likelihood of malignancy and essentially rules out aplastic anemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Megaloblastosis in pancytopenia

A

increases the likelihood of vitamin B12 or folate deficiency, but can also be seen in other primary bone marrow disorders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Blasts in pancytopenia

A

implicate a possible myelodysplastic syndrome or acute leukemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Leukoerythroblastic smear in pancytopenia

A

A leukoerythroblastic smear, which reveals early red blood cells and early white blood cells (WBCs) (i.e., bands, metamyelocytes, myelocytes), implies marrow invasion by malignancy, fibrosis, or infection. Teardrop cells (i.e., RBCs shaped like a teardrop from being “squeezed” out of the bone marrow) are frequently seen with leukoerythroblastosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Pseudo–Pelger-Huet anomaly and pancytopenia

A

(i.e., neutrophils with bilobed nuclei) is seen in patients with myelodysplasia

Pelger-Huet anomaly (PHA) is an inherited blood condition in which the nuclei of several types of white blood cells (neutrophils and eosinophils) have unusual shape (bilobed, peanut or dumbbell-shaped instead of the normal trilobed shape) and unusual structure (coarse and lumpy).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Investigations to find the cause of pancytopenia (always assume caused by primary bone marrow failure util proven otherwise)

A

a. Patient history.
b. Physical examination.
c. Laboratory studies.
d. Peripheral blood smear (megaloblasts, blasts, leukoerythroblastic smear, Pseudo–Pelger-Huet anomaly)
e. Vitamin B12 and folate levels
f. HIV test.
g. Viral serologies.
h. PNH workup.
d. Bone marrow biopsy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Increased cellularity of bone marrow biopsy when investigating pancytopenia

A

suggests peripheral destruction (hypersplenism or an immune-mediated disorder) or inadequate differentiation (acute leukemia and myelodysplasia). PNH, acute leukemia, and some forms of myelodysplasia can demonstrate either a hypercellular or hypocellular marrow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Decreased cellularity of bone marrow biopsy when investigating pancytopenia

A

is the common finding in aplastic anemia, but can also be seen in PNH, myelodysplasia, and, occasionally, hypoplastic acute leukemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Features of aplastic anemia

A

normochromic, normocytic anaemia
leukopenia, with lymphocytes relatively spared
thrombocytopenia
may be the presenting feature acute lymphoblastic or myeloid leukaemia
a minority of patients later develop paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria or myelodysplasia

26
Q

Treatment for pancytopenia

A

Packed RBC transfusions are usually given to maintain the hemoglobin above 7 gm/dl

Platelet transfusions may be necessary to control bleeding or when the platelet count falls below 10,000 cells/μ‎L to reduce the risk for spontaneous bleeding

Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) is sometimes used to increase neutrophil counts.

Broad-spectrum antibiotics

27
Q

Specific treatment for PNH and panctopenia

A

Eculizumab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to the C5 component of complement and inhibits complement activation. It has been demonstrated to reduce the rate of hemolysis, transfusion requirements, and rate of thrombotic complications in patients with PNH.

28
Q

Bone marrow transplantation in pancytopenia

A

Bone marrow transplantation may be curative but carries significant morbidity and mortality. Therefore, it is often only used for late-stage complications of PNH, including aplastic anemia, or acute leukemia, or in cases of eculizumab resistant PNH.

29
Q

Specific treatment for PNH in pancytopenia

A
  1. The constant hemolysis and hemosiderinuria/hematuria can actually result in iron deficiency that may require iron replacement. Likewise, folate replacement is recommended in all patients with chronic hemolysis regardless of the cause.
  2. Chronic anticoagulation therapy is indicated for all patients who have a history of thrombosis.
  3. Eculizumab
  4. Bone marrow transplantation
30
Q

Antithymocyte globulin

A

Antithymocyte globulin is usually the first-line pharmacologic treatment for patients with severe aplastic anemia. Two forms of the antibody exist (ATGAM, derived from horses, and thymoglobulin, derived from rabbits).

31
Q

Immunosuppressive agents in aplastic anemia

A

Immunosuppressive agents (e.g., cyclosporine) are used in conjunction with antithymocyte globulin and increase the likelihood of remission.

32
Q

Specific treatments for aplastic anemia

A
Transfusion support and antibiotics
Pharmacologic therapy
Antithymocyte globulin
Immunosuppressive agents 
Bone marrow transplantation
33
Q

Rituximab

A

Rituximab is a targeted cancer drug and is also known by its brand names MabThera, Rixathon and Truxima. It is a treatment for: chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) some types of non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) some non cancer related illnesses.

34
Q

Rituximab mechanism of action

A

The direct effects of rituximab include complement-mediated cytotoxicity and antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity, and the indirect effects include structural changes, apoptosis, and sensitization of cancer cells to chemotherapy.

35
Q

Ofatumunab (Azerra).

A

Ofatumumab, sold under the brand name Arzerra among others, is a fully human monoclonal antibody to CD20, which appears to inhibit early-stage B lymphocyte activation.

Ofatumumab injection is used in chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) in patients who have not received any treatments in the past.

36
Q

Obinutuzumab

A

Obinutuzumab is also known as Gazyvaro®. It is used to treat chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) and non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL). Monoclonal antibody against CD20

37
Q

Bortezomib

A

Bortezomib, sold under the brand name Velcade among others, is an anti-cancer medication used to treat multiple myeloma and mantle cell lymphoma. This includes multiple myeloma in those who have and have not previously received treatment. It is generally used together with other medications. It is given by injection.

38
Q

Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors (TKI) in CML

A

Imatinib, nilotinib, dasatinib, bosutinib and ponatinib.
Generally well tolerated
Achieve haematological, cytogenetic and molecular remissions in the majority of patients
Some patients can stop treatment without relapsing (treatment free remission leading to cure)

39
Q

Immune therapy in cancer

A

Allogenic bone marrow transplant (from a matched donor) is immune therapy.
T cells from the donor cause immune attack on cancer.
Graft versus Leukaemia or lymphoma Effect (GvL).
But also have immune attack of normal cells. Very toxic. Graft versus Host Disease (GVHD).

40
Q

Adoptive immunotherapy

A

Make the patients own immune cells recognise the cancer as foreign and attack it.
Avoids toxicity of graft versus host disease.
Most promising is CAR-T cell therapy.

41
Q

Chemo and radiotherapy

A

Damages DNA of cancer cells as it divides (mitosis).
Cell recognises it is damaged beyond repair and dies by process of apoptosis
Often involves a protein in the cell nucleus - P53
Mutations of P53 make it more difficult to treat with chemotherapy and radiotherapy.

42
Q

Cytotoxic drug classification

A

Cell cycle specific

Non-cell cycle specific

43
Q

Cell cycle specific agents:

A
  1. Antimetabolites
    (impair nucleotide synthesis / incorporation)
  2. Mitotic spindle inhibitors
44
Q

Antimetabolites examples

A

Methotrexate
inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

6-Mercaptopurine / Cytosine arabinoside / Fludarabine
incorporated into DNA

Hydroxyurea
impaired deoxynucleotide synthesis (ribonucleotide reductase)

45
Q

Mitotic spindle inhibitors examples

A

Vinca alkaloids such as vincristine / vinblastine

Taxotere (Taxol)

46
Q

Alkylating agents

A

chlorambucil / melphalan
bind covalently to bases of DNA (adducts)
produces DNA strand breaks (mutation) by free radical production
(cytotoxic cancer drug)

47
Q

Cytotoxic antibiotics

A

anthracyclines: daunorubicin / doxorubicin / idarubicin
DNA intercalation: reversible
impairs RNA transcription
strand breaks in DNA (free radicals)

48
Q

Cytotoxic drugs: general side effects (immediate)

A

Affects rapidly dividing organs

Bone marrow suppression
Gut mucosal damage
Hair loss (alopecia)

49
Q

Cytotoxic drugs: examples of drug specific side effects

A

Vinca alkaloids: neuropathy
Anthracyclines: cardiotoxicity
Cis-platinum: nephrotoxicity

50
Q

Cytotoxic drugs: long term side effects

A

Alkylating agents - Infertility, Secondary malignancy

Anthracyclines - cardiomyopathy

51
Q

Neutropenic sepsis definition

A

Neutropenic sepsis is defined by NICE as a neutrophil count of 0.5 × 109 per litre or lower, plus one of the following:

Temperature ≥ 38°C or
Other signs or symptoms consistent with significant sepsis
Neutropenic sepsis is the most common medical emergency amongst oncology and haematology patients, who can present with, or rapidly progress to haemodynamic instability. Therefore, rapid assessment and administration of empirical antibiotic therapy can be lifesaving.

52
Q

Signs of neutropenic sepsis

A

Temperature ≥ 38°C or
Other signs or symptoms consistent with significant sepsis
Neutropenic sepsis is the most common medical emergency amongst oncology and haematology patients, who can present with, or rapidly progress to haemodynamic instability. Therefore, rapid assessment and administration of empirical antibiotic therapy can be lifesaving.

53
Q

Antimetabolites mechanism of action

A

Antimetabolites act by replacing the natural building materials needed for DNA and RNA synthesis. This prevents DNA replication, halting cell reproduction.4,5,6

Antimetabolites act on the S phase of the cell cycle.

54
Q

Pyrimidine antagonists mechanism of action (cytotoxic drugs)

A

Pyrimidine antagonists inhibit thymidine synthase. This prevents the synthesis of the thymidine nucleotide, halting DNA replication.

Gemcitabine: used in pancreatic and ovarian cancer
5-FU: used in colorectal, gastric and pancreatic cancers
Cytarabine: used in lymphoma and leukaemia

55
Q

Palmar plantar erythrodysesthesia (PPE) - cytotoxic drug side effect

A

PPE is a painful erythematous rash occurring over the palms, fingers and soles of the feet. Lesions are typically clearly demarcated and painful. Skin breakdown and blistering typically develop as the condition progresses.

This is typically a dose-related side effect.

56
Q

Purine antagonists (cytotoxic drugs)

A

Purine antagonists inhibit enzymes used in the production of purines, preventing the synthesis of adenosine and guanine.

Examples of agents in this class include:

6-mercaptopurine and prodrug azathioprine: used in acute lymphocytic leukaemia
Fludarabine: commonly used in low-grade lymphomas

57
Q

Alkylating agents mechanism of action

A

Alkylating agents act directly on DNA strands and cause cross-linking of DNA and RNA strands. This results in permanent modification of the DNA structure leading to programmed cell death.

These agents act on multiple phases of the cell cycle. All of these agents are known to cause significant myelosuppression.

58
Q

Platinum agents as cyotoxic drugs

A

Examples of platinum agents include cisplatin, carboplatin and oxaliplatin. Each agent contains a platinum ion, surrounded by organic ligands, that carries out its action on DNA strands. These agents are commonly used in the management of ovarian, colorectal, lung and bladder cancers.

59
Q

Vinca alkaloids mechanism of action and uses

A

Examples of agents in this class include vincristine, vinblastine and vinorelbine. These agents are commonly used in solid tumours (including Wilms tumour and neuroblastomas) and lymphomas (Hodgkin’s and non-Hodgkin’s).

Vinca alkaloids act by binding on the b-tubulin units and prevents microtubule polymerization. This prevents spindle formation and the cell cycle arrests during metaphase.

60
Q

BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase inhibitors

A
BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase inhibitors
Examples in this class include imatinib and which is commonly used in the management of chronic myeloid leukaemia.
61
Q

Brunton kinase inhibitors

A

Ibrutinib is in this class and is used in the management of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia. It is associated with cardiotoxicity, hepatotoxicity and myelosuppression.