WEEK 3 - chronic breathlessness Flashcards

1
Q

sympathetic innervation of bronchiolar smooth muscle is mediated by ______ acting on ________ to cause ________.

parasympathetic innervation of bronchiolar smooth muscle is mediated by _______ acting on ______ to cause ________.

A
  • noradrenaline
  • beta receptors
  • bronchodilation
  • acetylcholine
  • muscarinic receptors
  • bronchoconstriction
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2
Q

type I vs type II alveolar cells

A

type I
- gas exchange between the alveoli and capillaries
- larger squamous (flattened) cells
- no secretory organelles present
- less numerous than type II

type II
- secrete surfactant to lower surface tension
- smaller cuboid-shaped cells
- secretory organelles present
- more numerous than type I

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3
Q

the lungs have dual arterial supply and venous drainage, comprised of the ________ arteries and veins, and the __________ arteries and veins.

the pulmonary arteries supply _________ from the ______ to the _____ capillary network. the pulmonary veins drain _______ blood to the _________.

the bronchial artiereis supply ________ blood from the ________ to the lung tissues. the bronchial veins drain ________ blood to the pulmonary and systemic venom systems

A
  • pulmonary
  • bronchial
  • deoxygenated
  • right ventricle
  • alveolar
  • oxygenated
  • left atrium
  • oxygenated
  • thoracic aorta
  • deoxygenated
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4
Q

what is the MRC (medical research council) dyspnoea scale?

A

a scale to make an objective assessment of the symptom of breathlessness when taking a history

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5
Q

breathlessness when lying flat is a key symptom of what?

A

congestive cardiac failure (CCF) (orthopnoea)

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6
Q

bilateral vs unilateral ankle swelling

A

bilateral — sign of cardiac pathology, esp CCF

unilateral — may indicate DVT/PE

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7
Q

what classically can cause breathlessness with lightheaded mess?

A

aortic stenosis

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8
Q

why ask about exposure to birds?

A

hypersensitivity pneumonitis

a type of hypersensitivity pneumpnitis due secondary to repeated inhalation of avian antigens is seen in bird keeps

sometimes known as ‘Pigeon Fancier’s Lung’

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9
Q
A
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10
Q

what are the hallmark symptoms of COPD?

A
  • SOB
  • chronic cough
  • sputum production

other features:
- winter exacerbations
- wheeze

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11
Q

what are the physical signs of COPD?

A
  • accessory muscle use
  • auscultation
  • chest hyperexpansion
  • chest wall movement
  • tar-staining
  • peripheral oedema
  • palpable liver
  • pursed lip breathing
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12
Q

explain pursed lip breathing

A

this enables a patient to reduce their resp rate by increasing their period of expiration; it creates resistance to expiratory airflow and development of a positive expiratory pressure in the airways, reducing airway collapse and aiding ventilation

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13
Q

in COPD, what impede the effective chest expansion by the diaphragm and intercostal muscles? what does the patient do instead?

A

air trapping and hyperinflation

instead the patient used accessory muscles (inc SCM, scalene, trapezius and abdominal muscles) to aid ventilation

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14
Q

what does peripheral oedema in COPD indicate?

A

right-sided heart failure due to cor pulmonale

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15
Q

what is cor pulmonale?

A

abnormal enlargement of the right side of the heart as a result of disease of the lungs or the pulmonary blood vessels

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16
Q

why might you get a palpable liver in COPD?

A

may be due to hyperinflation of the lungs or congestive heart failure

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17
Q

what would you hear in auscultation of COPD?

A
  • reduced breath sounds
  • reduced heart sounds
  • tachypnoea
  • wheeze

during an exacerbation there may also be crepitations

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18
Q

describe chest wall movement in COPD

A
  • reduced lateral (bucket handle) chest expansion
  • increased vertical (pump handle) chest expansion
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19
Q

what rare genetic condition can cause COPD at a young age, esp in smokers?

A

alpha-1 anti trypsin deficiency

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20
Q

what is the gold standard investigation for diagnosing COPD and grading COPD severity?

A

spirometry

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21
Q

what are 3 histological features of COPD? what symptoms do they cause?

A
  • goblet cell hyperplasia — cough and sputum
  • airway narrowing — breathlessness and wheeze
  • alveolar destruction — breathlessness

inflammation mediated by the toxic substances of tobacco smoke cause these things

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22
Q
A
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23
Q

how does NICE define airflow obstruction?

A

post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio such that FEV1/FVC is less than 0.7

(above 70% is normal)

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24
Q

FEV1/FVC obstructive vs restrictive disease

A

O = <75%

R = > 75% (FEV1 and FVX are reduced in roughly the same proportion so the ratio remains within the normal range)

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25
Q

premature airway ______ is a key feature of COPD

A

collapse

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26
Q
A
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27
Q

list some restrictive vs obstructive disorders

A

restrictive — pulmonary fibrosis, sarcoidosis., chest wall deformity, and neuromuscular disorders

obstructive — COPD, asthma, bronchiectasis, cystic fibrosis

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28
Q

describe COPD natural history

A
  1. progressive decline in lung function
  2. progressive dyspnoea and disability
  3. right ventricular failure (cor pulmonale)
  4. exacerbations become more frequent and contribute to morbidity and disability
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29
Q

describe hypoxia to RV failure

A

hypoxia —> pulmonary artery vasoconstriction —> increased pulmonary artery pressure —> right ventricular hypertrophy —> right ventricular failure

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30
Q

what are the fundamentals of COPD care?

A
  • treatment and support to stop smoking
  • vaccinations — influenza and pneumococcal
  • physiotherapy/pulmonary rehabilitation if indicated
  • co-develop a personalised self-management plan
  • optimise treatment for co-morbidities
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31
Q

what is the best combination to achieve smoking cessation?

A

champix combined with NRT and behavioural support

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32
Q

what is champix?

A

varenicline

nicotine receptor partial agonist

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33
Q

for COPD, inhaled therapies should only be offered if what?

A
  • needed to relieve SOB and exercise limitation
  • patient has been trained to use inhalers and has satisfactory technique
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34
Q

what is the most common short-acting muscarinic antagonist?

A

ipratropium

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35
Q

what is step 1 of COPD treatment?

A

offer SABA or SAMA

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36
Q

what is step 2 of COPD treatment if no asthmatic features (previous secure diagnosis of asthma or autopsy, raised blood eosinophil counts substantial variation in FEV1 over time pr diurnal variation in PEF) ?

A

offer DUAL therapy : LABA + LAMA

LABA eg. formoterol, salmeterol
LAMA eg. tiotropium, glucopyrronium

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37
Q

what is step 2 of COPD treatment if asthmatic features present?

A

DUAL therapy with LABA + inhaled corticosteroids (ICS)

ICS eg. beclomethasone — brown inhaler

salmeterol with fluticasone — purple inhaler

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38
Q

what is step 3 of COPD treatment? (continue to have day-to-day symptoms that adversely impact QoL, OR have 1 severe or 2 moderate exacerbations within a year, even on dual therapy)

A

triple therapy : LABA + LAMA + ICS

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39
Q

who is home oxygen therapy for in COPD?

A

patients with a paO2 < 7.3 on air

or paO2 7.3-8.0 on air and either:
- secondary polycythaemia
- peripheral oedema
- pulmonary hypertension

only available to NON-SMOKING HOUSEHOLDS

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40
Q
A
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41
Q

magnesium in asthma/COPD?

A

bronchodilator typically used for treating acute exacerbations of asthma, and rarely used in acute COPD exacerbations

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42
Q

long-acting muscarinic antagonists are used in management of ____ but not ____

A

COPD but not asthma

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43
Q

brand names for inhalers?!

A

surely not

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44
Q

what are the side effects of inhaled corticosteroid therapy?

A

inhaled corticosteroids generally have less systemic absorption and therefore less systemic side effects than oral corticosteroids, and the main side effects are candidiasis and hoarseness.

however, with prolonged use at higher doses you may see side effects of adrenal suppression, osteoporosis and growth restriction in children

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45
Q

COPD exacerbation treatment

A
  • oxygen
  • high dose SABAs, usually nebulised
  • high dose corticosteroids (usually prednisone 40mg/day — 7 days)
  • antibiotic only if purulent sputum or very severe illness
  • reassess after 1 hr

if after 1 hour still respiratory acidosis, consider all of:
- iv bronchodilator (salbutamol or theophylline)
- urgent intensive care opinion
- non-invasive ventilation
- intubation and assisted ventilation

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46
Q

What is the pathological process that leads to Type II respiratory failure in COPD? What physiological compensatory mechanisms occur in the body to reduce the level of acidaemia?

A

In COPD the elastic recoil of the lungs is lost. This causes gas trapping and reduced excretion of carbon dioxide. Sputum retention also means there is less surface area for gas exchange. In the blood, the carbon dioxide combines with water to form carbonic acid.

In an acute setting, the increased acid levels in the blood would lower the pH levels and the patient would become unwell very quickly. However, when carbon dioxide retention is slowly progressive, as is often the case in chronic COPD, the body can compensate for this by utilising the bicarbonate buffer system of the blood. The kidneys are stimulated to reabsorb more bicarbonate, which acts as a base and neutralises the carbonic acid, thus restoring the pH back to the normal range.

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47
Q

hypercapnia causes what type of pulse?

A

bounding pulse and tachycardia

48
Q

eyes in hypercapnia?

A

dilated pupils and papilloedema

49
Q
A
50
Q

what can been seen in this x ray that might suggest COPD?

A
  • flattened diaphragms
  • nipple shadows
  • smaller heart size
  • hyper inflated lung
  • horizontal ribs
51
Q

what respiratory conditions are associated with nail clubbing?

A

lung cancer, suppurative lung diseases (bronchiectasis, CF), and interstitial lung diseases

52
Q

FEV1, FVC + FEV1/FVC in interstitial lung disease

A

In ILD a restrictive pattern of lung function is seen. FVC and FEV1 are low but proportionally so, so that the FVC/FEV1 ratio remains normal. Lung volumes are also reduced, as is the transfer factor, which measures the lungs’ ability to ‘soak up’ oxygen.

53
Q

ILD is an umbrella term for over a hundred different conditions affecting the lung _________

A

parenchyma

54
Q

Different forms ILD can be categorised as primarily _______________ or primarily _________

A
  • inflammatory
  • fibrotic

the inflammatory conditions my eventually lead to fibrosis if left unchecked. distinguishing between the two is important with respect to the treatments available

55
Q

what forms of ILD is smoking associated with?

A

Desquamative Interstitial Pneumonia (DIP) and Respiratory Bronchiolitis-Interstitial Lung Disease (RB-ILD)

56
Q

what kind of crepitations are heard in fibrotic lung disease?

A

bi-basal, fine, end-inspiration crepitations are a pathognomonic feature of fibrotic lung disease

somestimes described as ‘velcro-like’

57
Q

what are some unknown causes of ILD?

A
  • idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
  • sarcoidosis
  • cryptogenic organising pneumonia
58
Q

what are some known causes of ILD?

A
  • occupational : asbestosis/silicosis
  • environmental : hypersensitivity pneumonities (pigeons/birds)
  • immune : Connective Tissue Disease (RA; systemic sclerosis)
  • smoking : DIP and RB-ILD
  • drugs : any!
59
Q

fibrotic vs inflammatory causes of ILD?

A

inflammatory eventually turn into fibrotic if left unchecked

60
Q

what are symptoms and signs of connective tissue disease?

A

Raynaud’s, swollen/stiff joints, dry eyes, dry mouth, mouth ulcers, photosensitive rash, skin changes, sclerodactyly, telangiectasia, periungual erythema, dysphagia

61
Q

methotrexate is an anti-inflammatory known to cause ILD in what form?

A

hypersensitivity pneumonitits

62
Q

amiodarone is an _______ medication known to cause ILD leading to ________

A
  • anti-arrhythmic
  • lung fibrosis
63
Q

many chemotherapy agents can cause ILD leading to lung fibrosis, but ________ is one of the agents most commonly associated with it

A

bleomycin

64
Q

what is an antibiotic known to cause ILD leading to lung fibrosis with long-term use )eg. when sued for UTI prophylaxis)?

A

nitrofurantoin

65
Q

name 2 anti fibrotics used to slow down the progression of ILD

A

Pirfenidone and Nintedanib

66
Q

what are the common SEs of anti fibrotics?

A

gastrointestinal — loss of appetite, nausea, reflux

pirfenidone — also lethargy and can get a skin rash (so must wear factor 50 sun cream all the time)

nintedanib — loose stool and diarrhoea

67
Q

IPF prognosis?

A

very poor prognosis despite optimal intervention with ant-fibrotic medication

  • mean survival time after diagnosis is 2.5 to 5 years without treatment
  • 2-3 years longer with antifibrotic therapy

although the natural history of the disease varies greatly between patients, the general trend is progressive worsening of symptoms, although the speed at which this happens is highly variable

68
Q

history of weight loss, fever and night sweats, with a CXR showing bifilar lymphadenopathy are indicative of what 3 possible diagnosis?

A
  • sarcoidosis
  • tuberculosis
  • lymphoma
69
Q

what is acid-fast bacillus?

A

a type of bacteria that causes TB

70
Q

what are the 3 key presenting features of ILD?

A
  • SOB on exertion
  • dry cough
  • fatigue
71
Q

what are 2 typical findings on examination for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A
  • bibasal fine end-inspiratory crackles
  • finger clubbing
72
Q

what is asbestosis?

A

lung fibrosis related to asbestos exposure

73
Q

what is sarcoidosis?

A

a chronic granulomatous disorder

granulomas are inflammatory nodules full of macrophages. the cause of these granulomas is unknown. it is usually associated with respiratory symptoms but has many extra-pulmonary manifestations, such as erythema nodosum and lymphadenopathy. symptoms can vary dramatically from asymptomatic to severe or life-threatening

74
Q

Sarcoidosis can affect anyone but seems to be slightly more common in who?

A
  • aged 20-39 or around 60
  • women
  • black ethnic origin
75
Q

what are some skin features of sarcoidosis?

A

less than half of patients have skin involvement

  • erythema nodosum — characterised by nodules of inflamed subcutaneous fat on the shins. presents as raised, red, tender, painful, subcutaneous nodules across both shins. over time the nodules settle and appear as bruises. there are many causes of erythema nodosum.
  • lupus pernio is specific to sarcoidosis and presents with raised purple skin lesions, often on the cheeks and nose.
76
Q

how does sarcoidosis present in the lungs?

A
  • mediastinal lymphadenopathy
  • pulmonary fibrosis
  • pulmonary nodules
77
Q

how does sarcoidosis present in the liver?

A
  • liver nodules
  • cirrhosis
  • cholestasis
78
Q

how can sarcoidosis present in the eyes?

A
  • uveitis
  • conjunctivitis
  • optic neuritis
79
Q

how can sarcoidosis present in the heart?

A
  • bundle branch block
  • heart block
  • myocardial muscle involvement
80
Q

how can sarcoidosis present in the kidneys?

A
  • kidney stones (due to hypercalcaemia)
  • nephrocalcinosis
  • interstitial nephritis
81
Q

how can sarcoidosis present in the central and peripheral nervous system?

A

central:
- nodules
- pituitary involvement (diabetes insipidus)
- encephalopathy

peripheral:
- facial nerve palsy
- mononueritis multiplex

82
Q

how can sarcoidosis present in bones?

A
  • arthralgia
  • arthritis
  • myopathy
83
Q

Lofgren’s syndrome (acute form of sarcoid) refers to a specific presentation of sarcoidosis with a classic triad of what symptoms?

A
  • erythema nodosum
  • bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
  • polyarthralgia (joint pain in multiple joints)

and fever

84
Q

treatment of Lofgren syndrome

A

will settle with NSAIDS — see back in 3 months with repeat CXR

85
Q

describe the staging of pulmonary sarcoidosis

A

stage 0 = normal chest radiograph
stage 1 = hilar adenopathy alone
stage 2 = hilar adenopathy with parenchymal involvement
stage 3 = parenchymal involvement alone
stage 4 = pulmonary fibrosis

1 + 2 may resolve on their own without treatment

86
Q

sarcoidosis laboratory tests

A
  • leukopenia
  • elevated ESR
  • hypercalcaemia in 5%
  • hypercalciruia in 20%
  • ACE levels — commonly elevated in active disease. neither sensitive nor specific enough to be of diagnostic value
87
Q

what does a transbronchial biopsy show in sarcoidosis?

A
  • noncaseating granuloma
  • has a yield of 75-90%
  • biopsy may be unnecessary in stage 1 disease with a presentation highly suggestive of sarcoidosis
88
Q

sarcoidosis: pulmonary function tests may show _______ or ________, with diminished ______ capacity

A
  • obstruction
  • restriction
  • diffusion
89
Q

sarcoidosis:

bronchoalveolar lavage: increase in lymphocytes with a high ________ ratio; used to follow disease activity, but not for diagnosis

A

CD4:CD8

90
Q

Why is it important to wean steroid treatment slowly rather than finish a course abruptly?

A

Administering exogenous steroids causes suppression of endogenous cortisol production by the adrenal glands. Abrupt withdrawal of exogenous steroids can therefore precipitate an adrenal crisis. A gradual reduction in exogenous steroid dose enables the adrenal glands to resume their normal function.

91
Q

what is given for moderate to severe sarcoidosis?

A

0.5mg per kg prednisone 2-4 weeks

taper quickly according to respsone

maintenance: slow taper 1mg/month

if relapse during wean — consider adding methotrexate

92
Q

what are tram track opacities?

A

dilated airways seen in the longitudinal plane

93
Q

what are ring opacities?

A

dilated airways seen end on

94
Q

what does mucus plugging of airways result in?

A

airway dilatation

95
Q
A
96
Q

an X ray alone is insufficient to definitively diagnose bronchiectasis. ______________ is the diagnostic imaging of choice and will also help to exclude alternative differentials such as lung cance

A

high resolution CT scan

97
Q

bronchiectasis is a chronic condition in which the bronchial tree becomes abnormally and irreversibly ________. The bronchial walls become _________ and _________, leading to a build-up of excess mucus which can make the lungs vulnerable to ________.

A
  • dilated
  • thickened
  • inflamed
  • infection

patients typically present with recurrent chest infections, persistent cough with sputum production, and shortness of breath.

98
Q

what is an inherited form of bronchiectasis? it is caused by defects in what gene?

A

cystic fibrosis (CF) in CFTR gene

99
Q

what are the causes of bronchiectasis?

A
  • Idiopathic (most common)
  • Post-infective – e.g., bacterial pneumonia, mycobacterial infection
    = Allergic – e.g., to mould or fungus, especially in allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)
  • Autoimmune – associations with connective tissue diseases and inflammatory bowel disease
  • Immunodeficiency – e.g., primary ciliary dyskinesia, primary immunodeficiency disorders, HIV/AIDs
  • Obstruction – secondary to severe asthma or COPD, or distal to a neoplasm or inhaled foreign body
100
Q

what is the screening test of choice for suspected CF? what is the definitive diagnostic test for CF performed if the first test is done and indicative of CF?

A
  • sweat test
  • then CFTR genetic testing
101
Q

what is usually required if bronchiectasis secondary to obstruction by a neoplasm is suspected?

A

bronchoscopy

102
Q

what is ABPA?

A

allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

a fungal infection of the lung due to a hypersensitivity reaction to antigens of Aspergillus fumigatus after colonization into the airways. Predominantly it affects patients with bronchial asthma and those having cystic fibrosis.

103
Q

how is ABPA diagnosed?

A

certain clinical characteristics and the presence of elevated total IgE

104
Q

bronchiectasis treatment

A
  • Physiotherapy and airway clearance techniques
  • Cough assist devices
  • Smoking cessation
  • Pneumococcal and annual influenza vaccinations
  • Treatment with short courses of antibiotics for exacerbations or chest infections
  • In rare cases surgery, for example a lobectomy if bronchiectasis is localised and symptoms are debilitating
105
Q

what is an exacerbation of bronchiectasis?

A

deterioration in three or more of the following key respiratory symptoms for at least 48 hours:

  • Cough
  • Sputum volume and/or consistency
  • Sputum purulence
  • Breathlessness and/or exercise tolerance
  • Fatigue and/or malaise
  • Haemoptysis

They are not always the result of acute infection, and antibiotics are not always indicated.

106
Q

what are some uncommon complications and a rare but serious complication of bronchiectasis?

A

Uncommon complications are the development of pulmonary hypertension and cor pulmonale. A rare but serious complication of bronchiectasis is massive haemoptysis.

107
Q
A

salmeterol inhaler and tiotropium inhaler

108
Q
A

uncompensated type II respiratory failure

109
Q

A 58 y/o man presents with an acute exacerbation of COPD. Treatment is nebulized salbutamol, ipratropium and IV hydrocortisone. There is minimal improvement and IV aminophylline is commenced. What is the mechanism of action of Aminophylline?

A

phosphodiesterase inhibitor

110
Q
A

hyper-resonant percussion note, polyphonic wheeze

111
Q
A

PaO2 7.2kPa

112
Q
A

bronchoscopy with biopsy EBUS

113
Q
A

bronchiectasis

114
Q
A

honeycombing

115
Q
A

nitrofurantoin