Week 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Modifiable risk factors of osteoporosis

A

○ Nutrition: calcium/ vit D deficiency, malabsorptive diseases, anorexia nervosa
○ Lack of physical activity
○ Smoking
○ Excess alcohol
○ Medication use: Anticonvulsants, aromatase inhibitors, Glucocorticoids, GnRH agonists/antagonists, Heparin
○ Effects of other disease: cancer, Hyperparathyroidism, Hyperthyroidism, Hypogonadism, inflammatory disease, liver disease, chronic kidney disease

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2
Q

Non-modifiable risk factors of osteoporosis

A
○ Race: White/Asian
○ Gender
○ Age
○ Postmenopausal
○ Small body/bone size
○ Hereditary disposition
○ Inherited bone disorders: Osteogenesis imperfecta, Osteoporosis psuedoglioma syndrome,  Hypophosphatasia
○ Inherited non-skeletal disorders with predisposition to low bone density: Cystic fibrosis, Galactosemia, Muscular dystrophy, Neurofibromatosis, Storage disease, Ehlers danlos syndrome, Marfan syndrome
○ Idiopathic- Spontaneous occurrence
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3
Q

Metabolic changes that occur in bone with osteoporosis

A

bone remodeling with balanced formation and resorption becomes uncoupled, leading to bone loss and increased risk of fracture.

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4
Q

DEXA scan

  • how it works
  • how to interpret results
  • t vs z
A
  • machine produces two X-ray beams: One high energy and the other is low energy. The machine measures the amount of X-rays that pass through the bone from each beam. Based on the difference between the two beams, your doctor can measure your bone density.
  • T-score of -1.0 or above = normal bone density; between -1.0 and -2.5 = low bone density, or osteopenia; -2.5 or lower = osteoporosis
  • Z score: compares your bone density to a normal score for a person of your same age and body size.
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5
Q

Osteoporosis vs low bone mass (osteopenia)

  • how are they different
  • how are they connected
A
  • Osteoporosis: bone-thinning disease that causes your bones to become thin and weak and increases the risk of breaking a bone. A broken bone may occur from a minor event such as a fall from a standing height.
  • Osteopenia: is a condition not considered a disease.
    A person may have low bone mass for a lifetime and never develop osteoporosis.
    -If patient has low bone mass and continues to lose bone density over time, they have increased risk of developing osteoporosis.
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6
Q

Frax score

  • what is it?
  • why is it used?
  • factors looked at
A
  • fracture risk or an estimate of the chance of breaking a bone in the next ten years.
  • help to identify people who have a greater chance of breaking a bone as well as people who might benefit from taking an osteoporosis medicine.
  • age; smoking: family history of hip fracture; glucocorticoid use (eg, Prednisone); arthritis; femoral neck bone mineral density
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7
Q

Risedronate

  • how does it work
  • important facts
A
  • bisphosphonate: inhibits bone resorption by binding to hydroxyapatite (part of the mineral matrix of bone) leading to an indirect increase in bone mineral density.
  • must be taken on empty stomach due to poor absorption
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8
Q

Secondary causes of osteoporosis

  • Disease
  • how its caused
  • how to check for it
A
  • bone loss due to another disease.
  • Hyperparathyroidism: increased activity of the parathyroid glands; causes increase in osteoclast activity, elevated serum PTH
  • Hyperthyroidism: an excessive secretion of the thyroid glands, increase metabolic activity and overstimulates parathyroid
  • Vit D deficiency: not enough Vit D- body cannot absorb calcium; draw serum vit D 25 OH
  • Chronic kidney problem (hypercacliuria)- kidneys spilling out calcium in urine
  • Estrogen deficiency: ?
  • Diabetes: ?
  • Hypercortisolism: ?
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9
Q

PTH and bone remodeling

A
  • will increase osteoclast activity to cause increase in serum levels of calcium
  • increase RANK-L; also stimulates growth hormone (increases IGF-helps proliferation of osteoblast unless there is excess then promotes osteoclast differentiation)
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10
Q

Teriparatide

A
  • recombinant formulation of PTH
  • stimulates osteoblast function and differentiation
  • increase GI and renal tubule Ca absorption,
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11
Q

Kinds of hip fractures

-name and where located

A
  • Intracapsular Fractures: break occurs below the ball or in the neck of the femur
  • Intertrochanteric Fractures: break occurs between the greater trochanter and lesser trochanter
  • Subtrochanteric Fractures: break occurs below the lesser trochanter or further down the femur
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12
Q

Indication for ORIF of hip

A

for serious fractures where the bone is significantly displaced or articular joint surfaces are disrupted. It is also indicated where the bone would not heal correctly without surgery, or where closed reduction has failed.

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13
Q

Relationship between calcium and vitamin D

A

-dihydroxyvitamin D: active hormonal form of vitamin D that optimizes calcium and phosphorus absorption, inhibits PTH synthesis

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14
Q

Clinical presentation of patient with SMA type 1

A
  • between 3 and 6 months of age
  • severe, progressive muscle weakness and flaccid or reduced muscle tone
  • poor suck ability, reduced swallowing, and respiratory failure
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15
Q

Mechanism of areflexia in lower motor neuron diseases

A

Alpha motor neuron cell bodies in anterior gray horn of spinal cord die, leading to the inability to contract muscle during reflex testing

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16
Q

Difference between pathophysiology of congenital muscular dystrophies and congenital neurodegenerative diseases

A
  • Congenital neurogenerative diseases: problem with neurons dying, creating problem at neuromuscular junction
  • Congenital muscular dystrophy: problem with protein that contributes to the muscle weakness
  • Clinical presentation of muscular weakness similar in both
17
Q

Fibrillations

A

rapid, irregular, and unsynchronized contraction of muscle fibers. An important occurrence is with regard to the heart.

18
Q

Fasciculations

A

brief, spontaneous contraction affecting a small number of muscle fibers, often causing a flicker of movement under the skin. It can be a symptom of disease of the motor neurons

19
Q

Types of SMA

A

1: Acute infantile or Werdnig-Hoffman disease
2: Chronic infantile form
3: Chronic juvenile or Kugelberg-Welander syndrome
4: Adult-onset form

20
Q

Type 1 SMA

A
  • clinically noticable between 3-6 months of age
  • progressive muscle weakness
  • reduced muscle tone
  • respiratory failure
  • most die by 18 months
21
Q

Type 2 SMA

A
  • most common form
  • present between the ages of 6 and 18 months.
  • most common manifestation is developmental motor delay; difficulties with sitting independently or failure to stand by 1 year of age.
  • Pseudohypertrophy of the gastrocnemius muscle, musculoskeletal deformities, and respiratory failure can occur.
  • lifespan varies from 2 years to the third decade of life.
22
Q

Type 3 SMA

A
  • mild form that appears after age 18 months.
  • slowly progressive proximal weakness.
  • can stand and walk but have trouble with motor skills, such as going up and down stairs.
  • Bulbar dysfunction occurs late in the disease.
  • evidence of pseudohypertrophy, as in patients with SMA type II
  • progresses slowly, and is mild.
  • normal life expectancies.
23
Q

Type 4 SMA

A
  • Onset is typically in the mid 30s.
  • disease mimics the symptoms of type III.
  • course of the disease is benign,
  • patients have a normal life expectancy.
24
Q

Histo features of SMA type 1

A

-atrophy of muscle fibers with compensatory hypertrophy making groups of large and small fibers

25
Q

Difference between patho of UMN and LMN lesion

A

UMN: Interrupt pathway at level above anterior horn
LMN: interrupt spinal reflex arc, pathway interrupted at anterior horn, motor root, or peripheral nerve

26
Q

Signs of UMN lesion

A

-weakness, increased reflex, increased tone, positive babinski

27
Q

Signs of LMN lesion

A

-weakness, atrophy, decreased reflex and tone, fasiculations, negative babinski

28
Q

Exon

  • what is it
  • significance of deletion
A
  • segment of a DNA or RNA molecule containing information coding for a protein or peptide sequence
  • protein will not be made
29
Q

Function of SMN 1 gene

A

produces functional SMN proteins which have significant role in function of alpha motor neuron

30
Q

Autosomal recessive inheritance

A

Parents are unaffected but are carriers of gene that causes dysfunction of protein, the child must receive the gene from both parents in order for it to be expressed

31
Q

Antisense oligonucleotide

A

monomers are chemically-modified deoxynucleotides like those in DNA or ribonucleotides like those in RNA.

32
Q

Mechanism of nusinersen-mediated changes in gene expression

A
  • designed to treat SMA caused by mutations in chromosome 5q that lead to SMN protein deficiency
  • binds to exon 7 on the SMN 2 gene on pre-mRNA, preventing its removal by the spliceosome and allowing the SMN 2 gene to produce more functional SMN proteins
33
Q

Therapeutic effect of ASO changes

A

More functional SMN proteins produced by the prevention of exon 7 being spliced out aims to improve motor function and halt the progression of SMA