Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EndoRepro > Week 3 > Flashcards

Week 3 Flashcards

0
Q

What do fetal testes secrete that cause regression of female related ducts?

A

Mullerian inhibiting factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What part of the prostate is susceptible to BPH?
Infections?
Cancer?
Involved with continence?

A

Transitional
Central
Peripheral
Anterior Fibromuscular stroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What secretion from the male testes induces male phenotype?

A

Androgens (primarily testosterone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What stimulates the burst of m-inhibiting factor and testosterone from the fetal testes?

A

LH and FSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When does the sexual dimorphic change in the brain occur?

A

Six months-burst of gonadotropins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How does puberty start in males?

A

GnRH neurons–>LH & FSH bursts
Increase gonadotropins–>sperm production and steroidogenesis
Androgen secretion–>secondary sex characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where is most 5-alpha reductase activity?

A

Target tissue (there is some in testes though)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What inhibits gonadotropin secretion?

A

Prolactin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Testosterone and growth? How are they related?

A

1) stimulate increase in GH that stimulates linear growth (IGF1)
2) growth plate closure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Major stimulator of spermatogenesis

A

FSH stimulation and local testosterone stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What cell does LH stimulate?

FSH?

A 
Leydig cell (testosterone and stimulates Sertoli cell)
Sertoli cell (inhibin-inhibits FSH release)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the purpose of ABP?

A

Increases local testosterone concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What happens if the SRY does not express in a fetus?

A

Absence of Y chromosome leads to formation of ovaries.
Formation leads to absence of androgens and MIF.
Wolffian ducts regress and Müllerian ducts form.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

After ovulation, what do the cells that remain in the follicle form?

A

corpus luteum (rich in steroidogenic cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When do the number oogonia peak in the fetal ovary?
How many are there?
How many are present at birth?

A

6 months of fetal development
7 million
600,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What stimulates oogonia production in ovaries?

A

hCG from placenta

fetal FSH and LH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is secreted by the pituitary before the first menstrual cycle?

A

FSH, LH (induce ovarian function)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the primary secretory products of the ovary?

Which estrogen is usually only found in significant amounts in pregnant women?

A

Estradiol and estrone

Estriol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which gonadal steroids bind mostly albumin?
Which gonadal steroids bind mostly to SHBG?
Which gonadal steroid binds CBG a bit?

A

Estrogen and androstenedione
Testosterone and DHT
Progesterone (still more to albumin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What “wakes up” hypothalamus in girls to produce GnRH (pulsatile)?

A

Theory: signals from adipose tissue (leptin etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What do GnRH pulses increase?

A

FSH and LH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What happens if hCG is not released by trophoblast into blood?

A

corpos luteum dies

progesterone and estrogen decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What provides the negative feedback to FSH (and LH)?

A

estrogen being secreted from dominant follicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When does the switch from estrogen inhibiting LH and FSH to stimulating LH occur?

A 
estrogen peak (switch in hypothalamus-pituitary)
Inhibin preferentially inhibits FSH (from ovaries) so smaller surge
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What cells do LH act upon?

FSH?

A 
Theca cells (produce androgens)
Granulosa cells (stimulate aromatase activity)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What stimulates follicular phase of myometrial cycle?

Secretory phase?

A

Estrogens

Progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When does hCG peak?

A

first trimester of pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

3 main functions of male reproductive system

A

1) produce and store male gamete
2) produce male sex hormones (androgens)
3) deliver male gametes to female reproductive tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Two type of cells in seminiferous tubules

A

germinal/spermatogenic

sertoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Three phases of spermatogenesis

A

spermatocytogenesis
spermatocyte (meiosis)
spermiogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What drives spermiation?

A

actin mediated contraction of Sertoli cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How many cycles of the seminiferous epithelium cycle are needed to form a mature sperm?

A

four

32
Q 
How are the following hormones involved with the testes?
FSH
LH
Testosterone
Inhibin B
A
  • Maturation of Sertoli and Leydig cells, maintain spermatogenesis
  • Synthesis and release of testosterone by interstitial cells
  • Maintains spermatogenesis, male duct morphology/function, accessory sex gland structure/function, secondary sex characteristics
  • Modulate FSH release
33
Q

Factors affecting spermatogenesis

A 
premature thickening of tunica propria
steroid hormones and related meds
infections
radiation
diet deficiency
toxic agents
elevated testicular temp
34
Q

What mediates smooth muscle relaxation in an erection?

What mediates flaccidity(detumesence)?

A

NO and PDE2

PDE5

35
Q

Aromatase deficiency in men causes what?

A

Osteoporosis (epiphyses do not close)

Treat with estradiol

36
Q

Why can’t testosterone be given orally?

A

High first pass effect, catabolized by liver

37
Q

Side effects of testosterone

A

acne, gynecomastia, more aggressive sexual behavior, growth plate closure

38
Q

What drug is good for treating angioedema?

A

Stanozol

17-alkylated androgens stimulate synthesis of C1-esterase inhibitor

39
Q

Side effects of steroid abuse

A

diminished fertility, diminish testicular size, gynecomastia

17-alkylated androgens–>hepatotoxicity

40
Q

What are androgen receptor antagonists used in conjunction with?

A

GnRH analog

41
Q

What drugs should not be combined with PDE5 inhibitors?

A

Organic nitrate vasodilators

can cause extreme hypotension

42
Q

Which of the drugs don’t have trouble with avoiding the first padd effect/hepatic metabolism?

A

17-alpha alkylated testosterones

stanozolol

43
Q

Most common neoplasm in males in reproductive age

A

testicular neoplasms

44
Q

What are the nonseminomatous testicular tumors?

A

embryonal
yolk sac
choriocarcinoma
teratoma

45
Q

Second most common germ cell tumor?
Most common germ cell tumor in infants?
Which is worse: mature or immature teratoma?
Which metastasize to brain and lungs?

A

embryonal
yolk sac
immature
choriocarcinoma

46
Q

Most common malformation of penis?

A

hypospadias

ventral surface

47
Q

Which squamous cell carcinoma in situ does not invade?

A

bowenoid papulosis

48
Q

What is the first test you should do with a male with premature puberty?
What is the diagnosis if the levels are elevated?

A

LH

If elevated, GDPP (gonadotropin dependent)

49
Q

What should you administer if LH levels are not elevated in premature puberty?

A

GnRH agonist

50
Q

What nerves provide the sympathetic innervation to the bladder?

A

hypogastric nerves

51
Q

What parts of the brain control the micturition reflex?

A

Pons-facilitative and inhibitory

Cerebral cortex-mainly inhibitory

52
Q

What can a lesion between the sacral spinal cord and brainstem/pons cause?
What can a lesion in the brain above the pons cause?
What can a lesion below the sacral spinal cord cause?

A
  • hyperactive bladder or detrusor-sphincter dyssynergia
  • hyperactive bladder
  • damages micturition reflex
53
Q

Host defenses against UTIs?

A

flow of urine
AMPS
Tamm-Horsfall protein
exfoliating bladder epithelia

54
Q

Bacteria seen most often in hematogenously spread UTIs?

A

staph aureus
candida
mycobacterium tuberculosis

55
Q

What increases for UTI?

A

reduced urine flow
promote colonization
facilitate ascent

56
Q

What do e.coli pili adhere to in a UTI?

A

(type 1 pili) mannose in urinary epithelial mucupolysaccharide lining and to PMNs

57
Q

Mechanical issues the predispose to UTI?

A

urethral length, completeness of bladder emptying, integrity of natural uretervesical junction valve

58
Q

Biochemical properties that make bacterial survival difficult in urine?

A

acid pH, high urea content, high osmolality

59
Q

Nitrite in urine indicates what type of bacteria in UTI?

A

gram negative

60
Q

What (mentioned) drug has the highest concentration in urine? What (mentioned) drug has the lowest?

A

Cabrenicillin

Nitrofurantoin

61
Q

In what phase of spermatogenesis does genetic recombination occur?

A

Pachytene phase

62
Q

How long does it take for maturation of the sperm?

A

90 days

63
Q

What are responsible for the only source of fructose in semen?

A

seminal vesicles

64
Q

How many semen analyses should a patient have?

A

At least two

65
Q

What should all men with azoospermia or severe oligospermia be offered (test)?

A

karyotypic and genetic testing, including evaluation of Y chromosome microdeletions

66
Q

Two more common genetic alterations associated with male infertility

A

Klinefelter’s syndrome, Y chromosome deletions

67
Q

What is CBAVD typically associated with?

A

Mutation of CFTR gene

68
Q

What is usually the cause for CBAVD without genetic deletions?

A

Insult to the mesonephric (wolffian) duct

69
Q

What side does a variocecle typically occur on?

A

left

70
Q

Exfoliated cells are collected from what area during a PAP smear?

A

Transformation zone (between simple columnar and stratified squamous epithelium)

71
Q

Which of the SERMs treats osteoporosis?

A

Raloxifene

72
Q

What should be monitored in women taking Drospirenone?

A

risk for hyperkalemia

73
Q

Two phases of the menstrual cycle

A

Follicular: 10-17 days
Luteal: 14 days

74
Q

Contraindications to estrogen containing contraceptives?

A

history of venous thromboembolic event

75
Q

How to evaluate ovarian reserve?

A
  • FSH and Estradiol (elevated = diminished)
  • Antimullerian hormone
  • Antral follicle counts by ultrasound
76
Q

Mech of action of aromatase inhibitors in treating infertility

A

inhibition of E2 production, negative feedback causing increase in FSH levels

77
Q

How does anovulation occur in AUB?

A

Chronic exposure of endometrium of estrogen without exposure to postovulatory progesterone

78
Q

Most common locations of endometriosis

A

in pelvis and near tubal fimbria:
ovaries–cul-de-sac–broad ligament–uterosacral ligaments
bowel is most common extragenital location

EndoRepro (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions