Week 3 Flashcards

Question 1

Q

Week 3: Anesthetic Management for Patients with Cardiovascular Disease

Coronary Artery Disease

Cardiac anesthesia provider needs a..
- Good understanding of normal and altered cardiac physiology
- Working knowledge of the pharmacology of anesthetics, vasoactive, and cardio-active drugs
- To be familiar with the physiologic alterations associated with cardiovascular procedures
Preventing myocardial Ischemia
- Avoid factors known to increase _______(1)
  - Myocardial oxygen consumption (MVO2) is defined by the equation: MVO2 = _______(2) x ______(a)
Principle determinants of MVO2
- _______(3)
- _______(4)

Answer

A

Answers:

MV02
coronary blood flow
a. arteriovenous difference in O2 content.
Wall tension
Contractility

Question 2

Q

Myocardial O2 Balance with CAD

Typically _______(1) at rest
Exercise/stress increases _______(2)
- Ischemic symptoms develop
- O2 requirements greater than existing coronary blood flow
- Coronary vascular _______(3) is exceeded
Ischemic symptoms develop
- _______(4)
- Alterations in electrophysiology, metabolism, function
Obstructions
- Large epicardial conductance vessels → The _______(5) have generally been viewed as conductance vessels that pose ______(a) to CBF.
- Normally, the resistance is _______(6)
As the percent of stenosis increases, the resistance across the stenotic area increases
- Resistance begins to increase when lumen is reduced by > _______(7)
- Further restrictions, resistance increases dramatically
- _______(8), resistance across stenosis triples
- Small changes in vessel diameter can dramatically increase resistance and decrease CBF

Answer

A

Answers:

asymptomatic
MVO2
reserve
Angina
epicardial coronary arteries
a. minimal resistance
almost zero
50%
80-90% stenosis

Question 3

Q

Remember Laplace’s Law

Wall tension is directly proportional to _______(1) and radius
Wall tension in inversely proportional to _______(2)
Can decrease MVO2 by:
- Decreasing _______(3)
- Preventing or promptly treating ventricular _______(4)

Study the illustaration on GoogleDoc

LV Wall Stress = (LV Pressure) x (Radius) / 2(LV Wall Thickness)

HFrEF: Expected increased Radius and Decreased wall thickness

HFpEF: Increased Wall thickness BUT decreased Radius

Answer

A

Answers:
1. intracavitary pressure
2. wall thickness
3. intraventricular pressure
4. distention

Question 4

Q

Preload and Afterload

Preload
- Volume of blood in ventricles at end of diastole (end diastolic pressure)
- Increased in: _______(1), _______(2) of cardiac valves, _______(3)

Afterload
- Resistance left ventricle must overcome to circulate blood
- Increased in: _______(4), _______(5)

Athlete: Increased Thickness of Myocardium but body accommodates accordingly

Stucy the Myocardial Oxygen Supply Graphic Chart

Answer

A

Answers:
1. Hypervolemia
2. Regurgitation
3. Heart Failure
4. Hypertension
5. Vasoconstriction

Question 5

Q

Coronary Blood Flow

Critical factors/modifiers
- Perfusion pressure
- Vascular tone of the coronary circulation
- Heart rate (time available for perfusion)
- Severity of intraluminal obstructions
- Presence of collateral circulation
What area of the heart is most vulnerable to ischemia?
- _______(1) of the LV

Myocardial O2 balance with CAD: Compensatory Mechanisms

Collateral circulation
- Develops and matures over time
- Physiologic bypass of the obstructed vessels
- Heart can generate new blood flow if an important vessel becomes obstructed
Resting CBF maintained by progressive _______(2) at the microcirculation
- As proximal stenosis increases, autoregulation seeks to preserve flow
- Basal flow can increase _______(3) times with maximal vasodilation
Coronary vascular reserve progressively decreases and flow becomes _______(4)

Answer

A

Answers:

Subendocardium
vasodilation
4-5
pressure dependent

Question 6

Q

Hemodynamic Goals for Coronary Artery Disease

Small, Steady, Slow, and Sinus
CPB=Cardiopulmonary Bypass

Preoperative Evaluation

Goals:
- Define risk
- Determine need for further testing
- Form a safe anesthetic plan
- Need for additional medications (_______(1) or anti-hypertensives)
- Interventional therapies
- Surgery
Recognize the S & S of uncontrolled HTN, myocardial ischemia, CHF, valvular heart disease, and cardiac dysrhythmias

What are the risks of a perioperative event? ______(2)

Answer

A

Answers:
1. beta blockers
2. Arrhythmias, MI, heart failure, death

Question 7

Q

Goldman Cardiac Risk Index

Studied over 4,000 patients aged 50 years or older who were having elective, major noncardiac procedures
Found 6 _______(1) of complications
Complications increased with number of risk factors present

Table 1. Revised Cardiac Risk Index

Lee Variables
1. _______(2)
2. Ischemic heart disease (includes any of the following: history of myocardial infarction; history of positive exercise test; current complaint of chest pain that is considered to be secondary to myocardial ischemia; use of nitrate therapy; electrocardiography with pathologic Q waves)
3. _______(3)
4. History of cerebrovascular disease
5. Preoperative treatment with _______(4)
6. Preoperative serum creatinine > 2.0 mg/dL

No. of Variables | Risk of Major Postoperative Cardiac Complication
— | —
0 | 0.4%
1 | 0.9%
2 | 7.0%
≥3 | 11.0% High risk

Adapted from reference 19.

Goldman created RICHES
Risky Surgery
Ischemic Heart Dse
Congestive Heart Failure
History of CVD
Endocrine (insulin use)
Serum Creatinine > 2.0

RCRI = REVISED CARDIAC RISK INDEX
Pathological Q waves usually indicate current or prior myocardial infarction. SEE BELOW

Answer

A

Answers:
1. independent predictors
2. High-risk type of surgery
3. Congestive heart failure
4. insulin

Question 8

Q

Patients with Symptomatic CAD

Preoperative Evaluation may show changes in frequency or pattern of angina symptoms
Some patients may have more atypical or undiagnosed (_______(1)) features
- _______(2)
- _______(3)
- _______(4)
Unstable angina is associated with high perioperative risk of MI
Perioperative period associated with _______(5) an ______(6) in endogenous catecholamines (increasing risk of MI)
Upregulate/Downregulate? Maintain ______(7) of patients normal MAP

Answer

A

Answers:
1. silent
2. Elderly
3. Women
4. Diabetics
5. hypercoagulable state
6. increase
7. 20%

Question 9

Q

Preoperative Evaluation: HISTORY

HTN: severity and duration, medications
Smoking
High cholesterol
Symptoms of any conditions
- Myocardial ischemia
- Ventricular failure
- PVD
- Diabetes (_______(1) of CAD, _______(2) and _______(3))
- Chest pain, exercise tolerance, SOB
- Edema
Valvular Disease
- Angina, dyspnea, syncope, CHF

Answer

A

Answers:
1. higher incidence
2. silent MI
3. ischemia

Question 10

Q

PHYSICAL EXAM

HEART SOUNDS
- MURMURS
- PMI LATERAL TO NORMAL (CARDIOMEGALY)
- _______(1) (LVH)
  - S4 gallop associated with left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH), is a specific heart sound heard during a cardiac examination, indicating a _______(2) or hypertrophic left ventricle. This sound is caused by the atria contracting forcefully to overcome the _______(3) of the stiff ventricle during ______(a).
    - It’s often an indication of underlying heart conditions, such as ______(b), that have led to _______(4) and _______(5).
CAROTID BRUITS (VASCULAR DISEASE AFFECTING CORONARY CIRCULATION)

Answer

A

Answers:
1. S4 GALLOP
2. stiff
3. resistance
a. late diastole
b. hypertension or aortic stenosis
4. thickened heart muscle walls
5. reduced ventricular compliance

Question 11

Q

LUNG SOUNDS

Pulmonary RALES and _______(1) (CHF)
- S3 gallop is a heart sound that typically occurs just after the S2 (second heart sound). It’s often described as a “lub-dub-ta” sound and is associated with heart failure or conditions leading to increased filling pressures. The sound is produced when a large amount of blood enters a _______(2) or failing ventricle, causing vibrations in the ventricular walls — large bc volume overload “CHF!!”
  - While it can be normal in______(a), in older individuals, it often indicates a pathological state like _______(3).
  - Memory Device: Think S4 for as a Strong Fort! S3 as a Dilated Sea!

BLOOD PRESSURE MEASUREMENT (SUPINE AND STANDING)
- ORTHOSTATIC CHANGES (VOLUME DEPLETION, HEMORRHAGE, EXCESSIVE VASODILATION)
- One study showed: Admission ______(b) was the best predictor of response to laryngoscopy (_______(4)?)

Answer

A

Answers:
1. S3 GALLOP
2. dilated
a. children or young adults
3. congestive heart failure
b. BP and HR
4. anxiety

Question 12

Q

Electrocardiogram

Provides info on state of the myocardium and coronary circulation
Rate, Bundle branch blocks, lv
Old injuries/infarcts
Pacer spikes
Conduction abnormalities

ECG Changes during Myocardial Infarction (MI)

Posterior wall only one with _______(1)
Lateral wall is the only one without _______(2), whilst Posterior wall has _______(3) T Waves
The LAD causes loss of _______(4), whilst poster wall inc _______(5)
Posterior wall as a _______(6) MI of Anterior wall MI — _______(7) of LAD infarct

Answer

A

Answers:
1. ST-depression
2. T-wave inversion
3. Upright
4. R-wave progression
5. R waves
6. reciprocal
7. mirror image

Question 13

Q

Abnormal “Q” waves

Highly suggestive of _______(1)
30% of myocardial infarctions occur without symptoms (silent MI) with highest incidence in _______(2) and _______(3)
Presence of _______(4) on preoperative EKG in a high risk patient = high indication of increased perioperative risk and possible active ischemia
THINK Young, African American Athlete- Do Not Ignore this abnormality

Preoperative Evaluation might include:

CXR
ECHO results (LVH, DIASTOLIC AND SYSTOLIC FUNCTION ESPECIALLY IN HEART FAILURE)
Cardiac tests
LABORATORY FINDINGS
RENAL: SERUM CREATININE AND _______(5)
POTASSIUM (DIURETICS, DIGOXIN OR RENAL IMPAIRMENT, EKG CHANGES/ECTOPY)
Magnesium
Hemoglobin/Hematocrit

Answer

A

Answers:
1. past MI
2. diabetics
3. hypertensives
4. Q wave
5. BUN LEVELS

Question 14

Q

Surgical Procedure Risk

Major vascular procedures associated with _______(1)
ACC/AHA risk stratification
Other high risk procedures
- Abdominal
- Thoracic
- Orthopedics

TABLE 21–3 Cardiac risk1 stratification for noncardiac surgical procedures.

Risk Stratification | Procedure Examples
— | —
Vascular (reported cardiac risk often more than 5%) | Aortic and other major vascular surgery Peripheral vascular surgery
Intermediate (reported cardiac risk generally 1% to 5%) | Intraabdominal and intrathoracic surgery Carotid endarterectomy Head and neck surgery Orthopedic surgery Prostate surgery
Low2 (reported cardiac risk generally less than 1%) | Endoscopic procedures Superficial procedure Cataract surgery Breast surgery Ambulatory surgery

Which of the following is the higher stratification surgery? A carotid endarterectomy, intrathoracic surgery, or peripheral vascular surgery?
Ans: _______(2)

PLEASE STUDY
2014 ACC/AHA guidelines

Answer

A

Answers:
1. highest incidence of complications
2. PVS

Question 15

Q

Importance of Exercise Tolerance

_______(1) is one of the most important determinants of perioperative risk and the need for further testing and invasive monitoring
Good exercise tolerance suggests that the myocardium can be stressed without failing (climbing two flights of stairs or walking 4 blocks) — _______(2)
Assessed with a questionnaire that assesses daily activity
- (hip/knee issues?) — _______(3) mean you are cardiac crippled, just restricted movement
Treadmill testing

Answer

A

Answers:
1. Exercise tolerance
2. 4 METS Equivalent
3. does not necessarily

Question 16

Q

TABLE 21-2

TABLE 21–2 Estimated energy requirements for various activities.

Can you …

1 MET
- Take care of yourself?
- Eat, dress, or use the toilet?
- Walk indoors around the house?
- Walk a block or 2 on level ground at 2 to 3 mph (3.2 to 4.8 kph)?

4 METs
- Do light work around the house like dusting or washing dishes?

Can you …

4 METs
- Climb a flight of stairs or walk up a hill?
- Walk on level ground at 4 mph (6.4 kph)?
- Run a short distance?

Do heavy work around the house like scrubbing floors or lifting or moving heavy furniture?
Participate in moderate recreational activities like golf, bowling, dancing, doubles tennis, or throwing a baseball or football?

Greater than 10 METs
- Participate in strenuous sports like swimming, singles tennis, football, basketball, or skiing?

TABLE 21-13

TABLE 21–13 Modified New York Association functional classification of heart disease.

Choice of Anesthetic - Regional

Regional anesthesia
- Dense analgesia
- Blockade of afferent and efferent nerve conduction (_________(1))
Major disadvantages
- Hypotension from sympathetic block
- ______(a) in wall tension with volume loading could precipitate subendocardial ischemia w/ CAD
  - _________(2) may be better
    - _________(3) is your best choice
  - _________(4) may be problematic after return of vascular tone

Answer

A

Answers:
1. catecholamine release is suppressed
a. Increase
2. Alpha-agonist
3. Phenylephrine
4. Large volume loads

Question 17

Q

Choice of Anesthetic: General

General anesthesia with Opioids
- Lack of myocardial depression (desirable in patients with markedly impaired ventricular function)
- Suppression of stress response
- Reduction of HR
- Hemodynamic stability
Can supplement with volatile anesthetics
Muscle relaxants
Emergence: relatively comfortable and hypothermia avoidance

Selection of Anesthetic

There is no ideal anesthetic for _______(1)
Opioids
- Advantages: lack of myocardial depression, stable hemodynamic state and reduction of heart rate
  - High dose valuable only in the patient with _______(2)
Inhalational
- Dose-dependent hemodynamic changes, reversible, titratable myocardial depression, suppression of sympathetic responses to surgical stress
  - _______(3) the myocardium from ischemia and reperfusion injury and reduces infarct size
Adjuncts: propofol, midazolam, dexmedetomidine

Answer

A

Answers:
1. patients with CAD
2. severe myocardial dysfunction
3. Protect

Question 18

Q

Treatment of Intraoperative Problems

Sinus tachycardia
- Increase anesthesia
- Beta blockers
Increase PCWP
- NTG (add inotrope or alpha agonist if decrease in BP)
- _______(1)
- _______(2) with good LV function
HTN
- Anesthesia,
- vasodilators,
- beta blocker if tachycardia

Answer

A

Answers:
1. Restrict fluids
2. Volatile anesthetic

Question 19

Q

Treatment of Intraoperative Problems

Hypotension
- Volume, if hypovolemic
- ______(a) agonist, if transient and not hypovolemic
  - _______(1)
- Inotrope
  - Associated with increased PCWP and decrease CO
    - Increase MVO2 offset by increased CPP and decreased ventricular size
- Neo/NTG
  - Maintains perfusion pressure and keeps heart small
    - _______(2)

Answer

A

Answers:
a. Alpha
1. phenylephrine
2. Good for ischemic changes

Question 20

Q

Valvular Heart Disease

Valve Review Sheet

Please print and review the Valve Review Worksheet, which I posted for you under Module 1.
This is a very _______(1) guide to keep with you during your Clinical rotation.

Pathophysiology of Valvular Heart Disease

Causes chronic volume and _______(2) overload
Ventricular Hypertrophy: increased left ventricular mass
Pressure overload: Concentric (_________(3), normal chamber size)
Volume Overload: Eccentric (_________(4) and dilated cardiac chamber)

2 types of hemodynamic overload → HF

Answer

A

Answers:
1. handy
2. pressure
3. increase in ventricular wall thickness
4. normal wall thickness

Question 21

Q

History and Physical

Should have a high index of suspicion if patient has a history of rheumatic fever, IV drug abuse, genetic disorders (i.e., _______(1)), heart surgery as a child, or heart murmurs
Exercise tolerance usually decreased
Exhibit signs/symptoms of heart failure to include:
- dyspnea, orthopnea, fatigue, pulmonary rales, jugular venous congestion, _______(2) congestion, or edema
Angina can occur in patients with hypertrophied _______(3)
A-Fib often accompanies _______(4) of the atria

Tests to evaluate valvular heart disease:

Echocardiography with doppler
- Measures size and function of the chambers
- Pressure gradients of the valves
- Valve area measurements
- Severity of disease determined
EKG: Evidence of ischemia, arrhythmias, atrial enlargement, ventricular hypertrophy
CXR: enlargement of chambers, pulmonary HTN, pulmonary edema and effusions
Cardiac Cath: used before surgery to diagnosis ______(5), measurement of heart pressures in the chambers and pressure gradients across valves

Answer

A

Answers:
1. Marfans
2. hepatic
3. left ventricle
4. enlargement
5. CAD

Question 22

Q

Transesophageal Echocardiography (TEE)

Can be used in the OR during valve surgery
Evaluate severity of valvular disease, structural and functional changes
Evaluation of the valve repair or function of artificial valves
Systolic and diastolic function of the Left and right ventricles before and after _______(1)
Determines postsurgical management

Pressure-Volume Loops

Please watch and review the videos by the Khan Academy posted under Module 6:
Pressure in the left heart – Part I
Pressure in the left heart – Part II
Pressure in the left heart – Part III
These videos were absolute _______(2)

(Know these, compare these, know what they’re describing, how do they change due to pathology)

Answer

A

Answers:
1. bypass
2. basura

Question 23

Q

Pressure-Volume Loops

Plots LV pressure against volume through one complete cardiac cycle
Each valvular lesion has a unique profile that suggests compensatory physiologic changes by the left ventricle

Match the event/description with the valve action (answer below the next img)

A. Aortic Valve Closes
B. Aortic Valve Opens
C. Mitral Valve Opens
D. Mitral Valve Closes

End Systolic Volume
Beginning of Systole
End Diastolic Volume
Represents Preload
Beginning of Ventricular Filling

Preload is represented by the point just before the mitral valve closes, indicating the ventricle is at its maximum volume in diastole.

Please study the Pressure Volume Loop graph

P-V Loops: Valve disease

Definitely qs on this
- A = normal - LV
- B = mitral stenosis
- C = aortic stenosis
- D = mitral regurgitation (chronic)
- E = aortic regurgitation (chronic)

Aortic Stenosis (AS) “______(a)”

Pathology of Aortic Stenosis

Most common valvular disease in the U.S.
Normally, composed of 3 semilunar cusps
Classified as valvular, subvalvular, or supravalvular obstruction
Concentric hypertrophy develops: thickened ventricular wall with normal chamber size

Answer

A

Answers:
A -> 1. End Systolic Volume
B -> 2. Beginning of Systole
C -> 3. End Diastolic Volume
D -> 5. Beginning of Ventricular Filling

a. FULL, SLOW, AND CONSTRICTED

Question 24

Q

Pathophysiology of Aortic Stenosis

Decreasing LV compliance accompanies ______(a) LV end-diastolic pressure
Contractility and ejection fraction can be maintained until ______(b) disease process
Atrial contraction account for 40% of the ventricular filling (normally 20%)
Clinical factors associated with AS:
- ______(c)
Causes:
- ______(d) (more common in developing countries)
- Calcification of tri-leaflet
- Congenital _______(1) valve

Presentation of Aortic Stenosis

Angina
- Angina can occur in the absence of CAD
- Thickened myocardium is susceptible to ischemia and elevated LV end-diastolic pressures that decrease coronary perfusion pressure
- ADP/LVEDP=CPP
Syncope
CHF
- Tighter AS, LV systolic pressure increases to a level where LV hypertrophy cannot normalize the wall tension so the heart starts to dilate with symptoms of systolic dysfunction and decreasing cardiac output concomitant with symptoms of.
- AS is S.A.D. → syncope, angina, _______(2) (from CHF/pulmonary involvement)
Life expectancy with symptoms of:
- Angina: ______(e) years
- Appearance of syncope: ______(f) years
- Appearance of CHF: ______(g) years

Answer

A

Answers:
a. elevated
b. late
c. Older, male, smoker, HTN, Hyperlipidemia
d. Rheumatic fever
1. bicuspid
2. dyspnea
e. 5
f. 3-4
g. 1-2

Question 25

Q

P-V loop for Aortic Stenosis

Left ventricle is working at higher intraventricular pressure to generate normal SV
Elevated wall tension stimulated ______(1) replications of sarcomeres
Increased contractility to accomplish the pressure work

Answer

A

Answers:
1. parallel

Question 26

Q

Anesthetic/Hemodynamic goals: AS
Apex: Think FULL, SLOW, and CONSTRICTED

Preload:
- You need preload — full to fill the noncompliant ventricle
Afterload:
- Need to maintain coronary perfusion gradient, AND ______(a) in BP with decrease CPP — risk of subendocardial ischemia and sudden death
Contractility:
- Need to ______(b) contractility to overcome the high-pressure gradient through the valve

Anesthetic/Hemodynamic Goals: AS

Rate:
- NORMAL: avoid ______(c) (decreases CO with fixed stroke volume) and ______(d) (ischemia with limited diastolic time for coronary perfusion)
Rhythm:
- Sinus rhythm (important in atrial contraction in LV filling);
- _______(1) if hemodynamic compromise and arrhythmia
MVO2:
- avoid tachycardia and hypotension (ischemia is big risk)

Answer

A

Answers:
a. reduction
b. maintain
c. bradycardia
d. tachycardia
1. cardioversion

Question 27

Q

Anesthetic Management

Monitoring:
- Standard, 5-Lead, A-Line, PA/TEE depends on type of surgery, defibrillator handy
Induction:
- Regional: SAB is relatively contraindicated in severe AS (sympathectomy)
- General: heavy ______(1) technique, volatiles fine — dose dependent cardiac depression
Maintenance:
- Maintain HR, treat tachycardia immediately
- Treat arrhythmias with ______(2)
- Treat ______(3) immediately

Answer

A

Answers:
1. opioid/benzo
2. cardioversion
3. hypotension

Question 28

Q

“The Death Spiral in AS”

In severe or critical AS,
- Any drop in ______(1) for any reason can result in the vicious cycle (emphasis on Systolic BP not DBP!)
- Chest compressions are ineffective (difficult to generate enough mechanical force to create adequate SV across the stenotic valve)
- Resulting in sudden death

Answer

A

Answers
1. SBP

Question 29

Q

AORTIC VALVE

Trileaflet valve
Normal valve area-3-4 cm²

Severity of Aortic Stenosis
- Mild | Moderate | Severe
- Jet velocity (m/sec): <3.0 | 3.0-4.0 | >4.0
- Mean gradient (mm Hg): <25 | 25-40 | >40
- Valve area (cm²): >1.5 | 1.0-1.5 | <1.0

Which principles worsen the effects of aortic stenosis?

Answer

A

Answer:

The principles that worsen the effects of aortic stenosis include the concepts illustrated by the Bernoulli Equation where a drop in pressure equals more velocity through a narrowing. This is depicted by the increase in kinetic energy (KE) and the decrease in potential energy (PE) across the stenotic valve, indicating that the blood flow speeds up significantly as it passes through the narrowed valve area, leading to a pressure drop post-stenosis. The narrowed valve area (marked with “VALVE AREA”) is critical, as a smaller opening increases the velocity and pressure gradient, which can exacerbate the workload on the heart and worsen the condition.

Question 30

Q

Pathophysiology of Aortic Insufficiency (AI)

Rheumatic fever, _______(1), congenital _______(2), and _______(3) are among the most common causes of AI
Acute AI causes: _______(4), _______(5) (Marfan syndrome), ______(a)
Chronic AI: LV _______(6) (Stroke volume regurgitates back across the valve in diastole.)
_______(7) hypertrophy (dilated LV with normal or thickened wall)

Answer

A

Answers:
1. aortic root dilation
2. bicuspid aortic valve
3. infective endocarditis
4. infective endocarditis
5. aortic dissection
a. after balloon valvotomy or failed surgical valve repair
6. diastolic volume overload
7. Eccentric

Question 31

Q

P-V Loop in “acute” AI

Acute AI:
- _______(1) increase
- SV may be _______(2), _______(3) or _______(4)
- LV volume increasing during isovolumetric _______(5) (D-A segment)
- EDP (A-B segment, B point) is _______(6)
- Contractility is _______(7) (myocardium overstretched → eccentric)

P-V Loop in “chronic” AI

EDV, ESV and SV _______(8)
Cardiac output is _______(9)
Contractility is _______(10)
LV volume increasing during isovolumetric _______(11) (D-A segment)
EDV (A-B segment, B point) is _______(12) — is this right? According to _______(13), LV dilation compensates for the increase in volume - this normalizes things up to a certain point, then causes _______(14)
Diastolic reserve _______(15)

Answer

A

Answers:
1. EDV and ESV
2. increased
3. decreased
4. normal
5. relaxation
6. high
7. decreased
8. enlarged
9. normal
10. decreased
11. relaxation
12. normal
13. apex
14. LV failure
15. intact

Question 32

Q

Anesthetic/Hemodynamic goals in AI
Apex: Think _______(1), _______(2), Forward

Preload:
- _______(3) slightly, necessary for forward flow
Afterload:
- _______(4)
______(a) augments forward flow; increase anesthetic depth or vasodilators (to decrease regurgitant fraction)
Contractility:
- Usually adequate; maintain with _______(5); _______(6) is ideal (does not increase afterload)
Rate:
- _______(7) — improves forward flow by decreasing diastolic duration and decreasing regurgitant flow and increasing EF
  - Different from _______(8) sheet!!
- Also improves coronary perfusion
Rhythm:
- Usually _______(9)
MV O2:
- Usually not a problem

Answer

A

Answers:
1. Full
2. Fast
3. Increase
4. Decrease
a. Reduction
5. beta-agonists
6. dobutamine
7. Increase
8. valve review
9. sinus
10. Δ (Increase)
11. Δ (Increase)
12. Avoid

Question 33

Q

Anesthetic Management in AI

Monitoring and _______(1) management same as aortic stenosis
Induction:
- Regional: may have an advantage of decreasing _______(2) and therefore afterload
- General: _______(3) may be useful to increase HR
Maintenance:
- Phenylephrine or _______(4) to treat hypotension?
  - _______(5)! INCREASES HR DESPITE INCREASE IN SVR

Pathophysiology of Mitral Stenosis

______(a) disease (80-90%), infective endocarditis (3.3%), mitral annular calcification (2.7%)
Symptoms: fatigue, dyspnea on exertion, ______(b), _______(6) murmur
Worsened in conditions that need increased CO (______(c))
Blood stasis in left atrium (dilated LA) risk of _______(7) and _______(8)
20+ years before critical stenosis manifests (normal = ______(d) cm²; stenosis = 1.5 cm²)
Develop _______(9) of voice? WTF?

Answer

A

Answers:
1. preload
2. SVR
3. Ketamine/Pancuronium
4. Ephedrine
5. EPINEPHRINE
a. Rheumatic
b. hemoptysis
6. diastolic
c. pregnancy, anemia, exercise
7. thrombus formation
8. SVT/A.Fib
d. 4-6
9. hoarseness

Question 34

Q

Rheumatic fever/heart disease

Rheumatic fever:
- Childhood issue, usually in underdeveloped/developing countries where _______(1) are not routine
Rheumatic heart disease:
- Cardiac inflammation and scarring triggered by an autoimmune reaction to infection with _______(2)
- Acute stage: consist of pancarditis (inflammation of the epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium)
- Chronic stage: ______(b) (stenosis and/or insufficiency)
- Stenosis usually starts in _______(3) and up to 2 years after rheumatic heart disease diagnosis (progressive calcification and fusion of leaflets)

Pathophysiology

Decreased LV filling
- Increased left atrial pressure and volume
  - Pulmonary vein pressure
    - Transudation of fluid into pulmonary interstitial space
    - Pulmonary compliance
      - Work of breathing
        Progressive _______(4)
Adaptation → Atrial Kick → Palpitations
Adaptation → Lymphatic drainage and thickening of basement membrane → Pulmonary hypertension → _______(5)

Three clinical presentations: palpitations (d/t atrial kick), breathlessness, and Haemoptysis (rising _______(6)).

Answer

A

Answers:
1. antibiotics
2. Group A Streptococci (GAS)
b. valvular fibrosis
3. females
4. Dyspnea
5. Breathlessness
6. PHTN

Question 35

Q

Anesthetic/Hemodynamic goals: MS

DO NOT use _______(1) (CO2 buildup) to extubate- you will cause Right Sided Heart Failure
APEX: THINK _______(2), Normal, Normal
Preload:
- good intravascular volume to maintain flow across stenotic valve, avoid _______(3)
Afterload:
- prevent _______(4); increase RV afterload due to pulmonary vasoconstriction (_______(5)); vasopressors for systemic hypotension
Contractility:
- sinus rhythm for adequate filling of LV
  - _______(6): atrial contraction contributes ______(a) % of SV
  - AS: ______(b)% of SV
  - Normal: 20% of SV
Rate: Maintain at low end of normal; avoid and treat _______(7)
Rhythm:
- Control ventricular response in ______(c) (apex: stretch of conduction system _______(8) this)
MV O2:
- Not a problem usually
Objective
- Maintain NSR, avoid tachycardia and large increases in CO (both hypovolemia and fluid overload)
Monitoring
- TEE to help guide perioperative management (fluids)
- Invasive monitoring dependent on type of surgery
- Do not raise ETCO2 in preparing for extubation — raises _______(9) and decreases SVR
Choice of agents
- Sensitive to vasodilating effects of SAB or epidural (pregnancy?)
- Vasopressors to maintain vascular tone (neo? Ephedrine?)
  - Avoid increased _______(10) — most likely Neo is the choice
  - Avoid intraoperative tachycardia (beta blockers, opioids)
  - Adequate level of anesthesia to avoid sympathetic stimulation — SVR, PVR increases

Answer

A

Answers:
1. hypercarbia
2. Normal
3. overhydration
4. increase
5. hypoxia and hypercarbia
6. MS (Mitral Stenosis)
a. 30
b. 40
7. tachycardia
c. atrial fib
8. crosses
9. PVR
10. HR (Heart Rate)
11. Avoid

Question 36

Q

P-V Loop in Mitral Stenosis

EDV and SV _______(1) (d/t limited flow into the left ventricle)
LV generates low _______(2)
Contractility is _______(3) (chronic under-filling of the LV)

Etiology of Mitral Regurgitation (MR)

Results from any process that distorts the mitral leaflets, _______(4), papillary muscles, valve annulus or left ventricular geometry
Organic MR
- _______(5) (most common), rheumatic heart disease, mitral annular calcification, endocarditis
Functional MR
- May have normal mitral leaflets and chordal structures
- Often occurs from ischemic heart disease (IHD) or dilated cardiomyopathy
Secondary to abnormalities of _______(6)
- Rupture with acute myocardial ischemia or infarction
- Bacterial endocarditis
Papillary muscle dysfunction
- Ischemia of the _______(7) (blood supply from RCA)
Chronic MR
- Progressive
Acute MR
- Typically presents in ______(a)
- Ventilator: increased Peak Pressure; Pink Frothy Sputum, cardiogenic shock
- Significant increase in _______(8) and LAP with normal compliance
- Precipitous ______(9) in LAP and PCWP — increased congestion
- Changes may develop rapidly

Answer

A

Answers:
1. small
2. BP (Blood Pressure)
3. decreased
4. chordae tendineae
5. Mitral valve prolapse
6. chordae tendineae
7. posterior papillary muscle
a. pulmonary edema
8. LVAD (Left Ventricular Afterload)
9. increase

Question 37

Q

Anesthetic/hemodynamic Goals: MR “_______(1), _______(2), _______(3)”

Preload:
- Maintain adequate preload for good forward flow
- Do not overload (dilate both LV and worsen MR/pulmonary congestion)
Afterload:
- decrease SVR, arterial vasodilators (________(4) — can increase HR, and decrease SVR (beta 2 agonist));
- afterload reduction augments forward flow and decreases regurgitation
Contractility:
- May be depressed; titrate myocardial depressants carefully
Rate:
- Increase slightly; avoid _______(5) which can increase regurgitant flow decreasing the ejected flow in the aorta
Rhythm:
- If atrial fib, control the ventricular response
MvO2:
- Compromised if MR coexists with ischemic heart disease

Heart Rate | Aortic Stenosis | Mitral Stenosis | Aortic Insufficiency | Mitral Insufficiency
Preload | Slow / normal | Slow / normal | O / Δ | O / Δ
Contractility | O | O | O | O
SVR | O / Δ | O | ↓ | O
PVR | O | Avoid | O | Avoid

Answer

A

Answers:
1. FULL
2. FAST
3. FORWARD
4. dobutamine
5. bradycardia

Question 38

Q

Anesthetic Considerations

Preop
- _______(1) for anxiety to prevent increase in SVR or PVR
Monitoring
- Standard, 5-lead, A Line, CVP/PA, TEE
Induction
- Regional (careful with abrupt _______(2) in preload)
- General (avoid _______(3))
Maintenance
- Preload, normal EtCO2
  - high levels of CO2 can lead to an _______(4) in PVR due to the constriction of pulmonary vessels, while low EtCO2 can _______(5) PVR.
- Severe dysfunction may need _______(6)

P-V loop in Mitral Regurgitation

Acute
- EDV increases with high EDP
- ESV normal or decreased, SV _______(7)
- Ejected volume into the aorta is small depending on the regurgitant volume
Chronic
- EDV increased with normal EDP due to myocardial remodeling
- ESV normal or _______(8)
- _______(9) SV

Myocardial Remodeling

Myocardial remodeling: Ventricular remodeling (or cardiac remodeling) refers to the changes in size, shape, structure, and function of the heart.
- This can happen as a result of exercise (physiological remodeling) or after injury to the heart muscle (pathological remodeling).

Answer

A

Answers:
1. Versed
2. decrease
3. bradycardia
4. increase
5. decrease
6. dobutamine
7. increased
8. increased
9. Markedly increased

Question 39

Q

Tricuspid Disease

Which one would lead to prominent A waves? Answer: _______(1)

Prominent is different from Cannon A-waves, cannon a waves cause include 3rd heart blocks, when there is a complete _______(2) on the tricuspid valve.

Answer

A

Answers:
1. Tricuspid stenosis
2. obstruction

Question 40

Q

Pathophysiology of Tricuspid Stenosis (TS)

Etiology
- Congenital, rheumatic heart disease, or mechanical due to thrombus
TS leads to ______(a) enlargement
Preload dependence — the whole heart is dependent on blood flow from _______(1), which is having a hard time passing blood into the _______(2).
- “Preload dependence” in tricuspid stenosis means that the right ventricle’s ability to pump blood effectively is heavily reliant on the volume of blood returning to it (preload). In tricuspid stenosis, the narrowed valve impedes blood flow from the right atrium to the right ventricle, making the ventricle highly sensitive to changes in preload. Adequate preload is crucial to maintain sufficient cardiac output, but the stenosis limits this, making management of fluid balance particularly important.
Conduction system disease (A-Fib/flutter, _______(3))
Physiology resembles the restriction to _______(4) into the heart as seen in ______(b)

Anesthetic/hemodynamic Goals of TS

Think Normal. Normal. Normal - what other valvular d/o has this chant? Ans: Mitral Stenosis
- Monitors: A-line, _______(5) and TEE
- Preload:
- Maintain normal
- Rate:
- Normal range
- Rhythm
- _______(6)

Answer

A

Answers:
a. right atrial
1. R.A. (Right Atrium)
2. R.V. (Right Ventricle)
3. SVT
4. venous return
b. cardiac tamponade
5. CVP (Central Venous Pressure)
6. normal sinus

Question 41

Q

Pathophysiology of Tricuspid Regurgitation (TR)

A valve lesion can be primary (due to a problem with the valve itself) or secondary (due to supporting structures, such as ventricular dilation or papillary muscle infarction). Sometimes a valve will have elements of both stenosis and regurgitation. Management targets the lesion of greater hemodynamic _______(1).

Primary (TR with abnormal valve itself)
- Rheumatic heart disease, infective endocarditis, ______(a) syndrome, trauma

Secondary (more common)
- RV enlargement and annular dilation
- Associated with longstanding pulmonary HTN – Which valvular d/o may most likely cause this?
- Ans: Mitral insufficiency and _______(2)
- Most common in patients with _______(3) disease

Isolated TR: asymptomatic for many years
- Pulsatile neck veins (JVD due to congestion), _______(4) (through S1 and S2)
- ______(b) murmurs are also known as Pansystolic and include the murmurs of mitral regurgitation (MR), tricuspid regurgitation (TR)
- s/s include generalized weakness, early fatigue, fullness in _______(5)

Answer

A

Answers:
1. significance
a. carcinoid
2. stenosis
3. MV (Mitral Valve)
4. pansystolic murmur
b. Holosystolic
5. RUQ (Right Upper Quadrant)

Question 42

Q

Anesthetic Management

Maintain intravascular volume and CVP in the high-normal range
Avoid Increased Pulmonary Vascular Resistance
- Avoid hypoxia, hypercarbia, acidosis
- What other surgical position should be avoided which may increase pvr? Ans: _______(1) position
Avoid PEEP and high airway pressures, which can reduce venous return and increase RV afterload — all _______(2) in PVR

Please study Valvular Disease and Murmurs image

Answer

A

Answers:
1. trendelenburg
2. increases

Question 43

Q

APEX:

Aortic Stenosis
- ASSS
- Aortic Stenosis is Systolic murmur at r-Sternal Border
Aortic Insufficiency
- ARDS
- Aortic Regurgitation is Diastolic murmur at r-Sternal Border (contradicts what the image says but based on apex)
Mitral Stenosis
- MSDA
- Mitral Stenosis is Diastolic at the Apex and l-Axilla
Mitral Insufficiency
- MRSA
- Mitral Regurgitation is Systolic murmur at Apex and l-Axilla (can also have holosystolic murmur - like tricuspid regurgitation)

Mitral valve prolapse _______(1).
PVCs most common ekg _______(2).

Keep SVR- slightly above normal
Maintain Preload
No _______(3)

TABLE 25.10 Hemodynamic Goals for Management of Mitral Valve Prolapse

Answer

A

Answers:
1. id.
2. signs
3. ketamine

Question 44

Q

Important Note:

There are many diagrams/illustrations starting on page 113 of the document which cannot be analyzed by ChatGPT to create the notes like this except the table information. Here is the list of the diagrams that you need to review:

Review Cardiac Phases
Review Pathologic Volume Loops
Review 2 Types of HF
Layers of the heart muscle
Review EKG MI
CVP Waveform

Answer

A

Review Cardiac Phases
Review Pathologic Volume Loops
Review 2 Types of HF
Layers of the heart muscle
Review EKG MI
CVP Waveform

Question 45

Q

Name the 5 Components of CVP and what are their cardiac functions?

A wave: corresponds to _______(1).
C wave: occurs with the _______(2) of the tricuspid valve and the bulging of the valve into the right atrium during right ventricular contraction.
X descent: reflects atrial _______(3) and downward displacement of the tricuspid valve during right ventricular _______(4).
V wave: represents _______(5) when the tricuspid valve is closed.
Y descent: is the rapid _______(6) from the right atrium to the right ventricle after the opening of the tricuspid valve.

Answer

A

Answers:
1. atrial contraction
2. closure
3. relaxation
4. systole
5. venous filling
6. inflow

Question 46

Q

TABLE 25.12 Hemodynamic Goals for Management of Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

Answer

A

Answers:
1. Increase
2. Increase
3. Decrease
4. Maintain
5. Normal sinus rhythm

Question 47

Q

Cardiac Tamponade

TABLE 25.7 Hemodynamic Goals for Management of Cardiac Tamponade

Answer

A

Answers:
1. Maintain or increase
2. Maintain
3. Maintain or increase
4. Maintain
5. Normal sinus rhythm
6. Pericardiocentesis, pericardial window

Question 48

Q

Mid-cavity Ballooning Syndrome Following Ondansetron PDF

Ondansetron induced - transient left ventricular apical ballooning syndrome, also known as tako-tsubo cardiomyopathy
- Presents in postmenopausal women (________(1) and ________(2)) — temporary akinesis of left ventricle
- Precipitated by emotional stress
- Associated with chest pain, ekg change, and elevation of cardiac enzymes

Increasing SOB
Hx CP but normal activity
Syncope x2
Systolic Murmur LEft sternal border
150/90

EKG: Sinus, PVC, LV Hypert
TEE: Severe AS
PG: 64 mmHG
Mild AI
Moderate MR

Question: Representative P-V Loop of the Lesion Not Diagnosed

AI would not benefit from having a PA Cath

Answer

A

Answers:
1. asians
2. caucasians