Week 22 - Head Injury Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 anatomical components of consciousness? What are they responsible for?

A

Brainstem (reticular formation)
- level of consciousness, processes afferent sensory info, modifies neuronal processing in CNS via neurotransmitters
Thalamus
- determines how responsive you are to your environment
Cortex
- Establishes significance and meaning to experience of consciousness

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2
Q

Describe the neurotransmitter systems and what they do.

A

Norepinephrine (pons) - allows you to focus on salient inputs
Dopamine (ventral tegmental area) - responsible for behavioural arousal and waking
Serotonin (Raphe nuclei) - calming influence in wakeful state
Histamine (midbrain) - stimulates wakefulness
Acetylcholine (pons) - Increases thalamocortical activation and arousal

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3
Q

What is the thalamic reticular nucleus (TRN) and what does it do?

A

It is the gatekeeper of consciousness. It’s a thin mesh of neurons just outside of thalamus that has dense reciprocal connections with other thalamic nuclei, the ARAS, and the cortex.
It is an interconnected network of GABAergic neurons that coordinates the synchronous 40 Hz firing between cortex and thalamus necessary for consciousness.

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4
Q

Describe the two broad forms of selective attention.

A

Top-down (volitional)
- we decide what to focus on
Bottom-up
- rapid and automatic

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5
Q

What is the role of the prefrontal cortex in attention?

A

Has executive function over consciousness. It’s an important association area that allows us to associate self with societal expectations.

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6
Q

Define mild, moderate, and severe traumatic brain injury (TBI) using the Glasgow Coma Scale.

A

Mild = 12-15
Moderate = 9-11
Severe =

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7
Q

Define the Monro-Kellie doctrine.

A

A change in volume of one intracranial compartment can only occur as a result of a compensatory decrease in another compartment.

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8
Q

What are the intracranial compartments? Which ones will change?

A

Brain matter, CSF, arteries, veins.

Venous and CSF compartments will decrease upon increased pressure as they are low pressure systems.

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9
Q

Walk through the pathophysiology of traumatic brain injury.

A

Direct tissue damage -> neuronal dysfunction & endothelial injury…

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10
Q

When is ICP monitoring recommended? What are the methods of ICP monitoring?

A

Severe TBI + abnormal CT head
Severe TBI with normal CT head with:
- age >40, SBP

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11
Q

What is the equation for cerebral oxygen delivery?

A

= Cerebral blood flow x O2 blood content

Cerebral blood flow = cerebral perfusion pressure = MAP - ICP

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12
Q

What are some methods to decrease ICP?

A
Sedation - reducing metabolic demands
Osmotic therapy - draws intracellular water out of cells
CSF catheter - reduce CSF
Temperature control
Decompression
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13
Q

Describe the factors that regulate cerebral blood flow.

A

Blood gases
- hypocapnia will cause cerebral vasoconstriction, whereas hypercapnia will cause vasodilation
Temperature & sedation
- hypothermia leads to a suppression of cerebral metabolic activity, thus decreasing CBF. 1 deg change leads to 5-7% change in CBF.
Medications
- inhalation anaesthetics cause decreased metabolism, but increased cerebral vasodilation (impaired flow metabolic coupling.
- IV agents like propofol, barbiturates, and benzos maintain flow metabolic coupling
- Opiates have no effect

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14
Q

What are the general components of general anaesthesia?

A

Hypnotic (knock out), analgesic (kill pain), amnesia (kill memory), immobility and inhibition of reflexes (kill movement), muscle relaxation (kill muscles)

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15
Q

What does the partition coefficient of a general anaesthetic tell you?

A

It’s solubility in the blood (low partition coefficient means very poor solubility). Lower coefficients are used currently.

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16
Q

How does the solubility of a general anaesthetic in the blood influence the rate of induction?

A

The more soluble it is in blood, the longer it takes to saturate the blood and thus takes longer to hit the brain. If the drug is more insoluble in blood, the brain and the alveoli can equilibrate more quickly.

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17
Q

Describe the MOA of inhaled anaesthetics.

A

Lipid theory is not true. They suppress excitable tissues by facilitating inhibition (increase GABA transmission) and inhibiting excitation (decrease glutamate and Ach transmission).

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18
Q

Why does the metabolism of a general anaesthetic matter?

A

Metabolites may be toxic (especially to liver and kidneys) and the degree of metabolism may affect the decrease in alveolar pressure at the end of procedure.
Rate of metabolism generally follows solubility in the blood.
(Desflurane is breathed out in full form).

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19
Q

What is the minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) with respect to a general anaesthetic?

A

It is the minimal concentration of an anaesthetic in the alveoli at 1 atm that prevents movement in response to a painful stimulus in 50% of the patients.
Basically the ED50.
Usually 1.2 MAC will prevent movement in 95% of patients.

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20
Q

What are some factors that will decreases an agent’s MAC with particular patients? And why does it matter?

A

Volatile anaesthetics are the most dangerous drugs used clinically. They have a very steep dose-response curve and have a very low therapeutic index (twice the therapeutic dose can kill you).

Increased age, decreased temperature, pregnancy, opioids, other anaesthetics.

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21
Q

What is the Meyer-Overton rule?

A

An agent’s MAC inversely correlates with it’s lipid solubility.

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22
Q

Describe the effects of inhaled anaesthetics on the CNS, cardio system, respiratory system, kidneys, skeletal muscle, and uterus.

A
CNS
- dec in cerebral metabolic rate
- cerebral vasodilation
Cardio
- dec in MAP due to dec in CO and TPR
Respiratory
- inc rate and dec depth of breathing (tidal volume)
- dec response to PaCO2 elevation
Kidneys
- reduction of RBF (less CO) leads to dec GFR and output
Skeletal muscle
- relaxation.
Uterus
- relaxation. May lead to prolonged uterine atony and severe blood loss in parturients (thus, spinal tap..)
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23
Q

What is thiopental? Describe it.

A

It’s an IV anaesthetic (barbiturate) that was used for rapid induction of hypnosis (no analgesia). Facilitates neurotransmission of GABA. Was used for executions.
Rapid induction time, but brain concentration rapidly drops due to redistribution (wake up after 5 mins).
Saturated tissues via infusion result in elimination determining the time of emergence (11 hrs).

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24
Q

What is propofol? Describe it.

A

IV anaesthetic. This was the 1990’s answer to thiopental. Facilitates neurotransmission of GABA. Rapid induction with even more rapid awakening than thiopental (3 mins). No significant redistribution.

25
Q

What is ketamine? Describe it.

A

IV anaesthetic. ANGEL DUST! A psychomimetic drug. Antagonist at NMDA receptor. Produces a state of dissociative anaesthesia (appear conscious but can’t process or respond. Produces little cardiorespiratory depression. Used for trauma and shock, for burn patients and battlefield surgery.
Little less rapid than thiopental and propofol.

26
Q

What is etomidate? Describe it.

A

IV anaesthetic. Rich man’s version of ketamine. Similar to propofol. Minimal effects on hemodynamics.

27
Q

What is the definition of epilepsy?

A

At least two unprovoked seizures occurring

28
Q

Describe how seizures are classified.

A

By mode of onset (generalized, focal, unknown) and underlying cause (genetic, structural or metabolic, unknown)

29
Q

Name the different kinds of generalized seizures.

A

Absence, tonic-clonic, tonic, clonic, myoclonic, atonic.

30
Q

Name the different kinds of focal (partial) seizures.

A

Simple, complex (dyscognitive), and secondary generalized.

31
Q

What is a simple focal (partial) seizure?

A

Basically just one simple sign. Ex. motor signs, sensory symptoms, autonomic symptoms.

32
Q

What is a complex focal (partial) seizure?

A

Brief impairment of consciousness with some other simply symptoms.

33
Q

What is a secondary generalized seizure?

A

Begins focally, with or without focal neurological symptoms. Spreads to rest of brain and looks like a primary generalized seizure.
Quite variable, but preceded by warning.

34
Q

Name two types of epilepsy syndromes.

A

Lennox-Gastaut syndrome (intellectual impairment and very debilitating)
Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy of Janz (muscles twitch in the morning, then get tonic clonic, but very livable)

35
Q

Describe the etiology of seizures from infancy to old age.

A

Infancy/childhood
- prenatal or birth injury, congenital malformation or metabolic issue
Adolescence
- idiopathic genetic syndrome, CNS infection, trauma
Young adult
- head trauma, drugs
Older adult
- stroke, tumour, neurodegeneration, metabolic disturbances

36
Q

What are some seizure precipitants?

A

Metabolic/electrolyte imbalance, stimulants (cocaine), sedative or ethanol withdrawal, no sleep, hormonal variations, systemic infection

37
Q

What is the cellular mechanism of seizure generation?

A

Upregulation of glutamate receptors (AMPA, NMDA, kainite) and down regulation of GABA receptors.

38
Q

What is paroxysmal depolarization shift?

A

It is the sustained neuronal depolarization that leads to excessive AP firing in the brain, then followed by a period of hyper polarization.

39
Q

What area of the brain is important in the pathogenesis of seizures?

A

The medial temporal lobe (hippocampus). Defective feedback and feedforward control.

40
Q

What are the causes of syncope?

A

Vasovagal syncope, orthostatic hypotension, cardiac causes.

41
Q

Describe the treatment approach to seizures.

A

ADBCE (airway, breathing, circulation, disability due to neurological deterioration, exposure & examination)

42
Q

What are the two drugs used for seizures?

A

IV lorazepam and dilantin (can be taken as once a day dosing!)

43
Q

Describe the numbers in the Glasgow Coma Scale.

A

Eyes Open
1 = none, 2 = to pain, 3 = to voice, 4 = spontaneous
Best Verbal Response
1 = none, 2 = incomprehensible sounds, 3 = inappropriate words, 4 = disoriented, converses, 5 = oriented, converses
Best Motor Response
1 = none, 2 = extension, 3 = flexion, 4 = withdraws, 5 = localizes to pain, 6 = obeys

44
Q

What are Big 5 findings for a physical exam of an unconscious patient?

A

LLEPR

Level of consciousness, lateralization (motor), eye movements, pupils, respiratory rate

45
Q

What is the triad of a supratentorial herniation?

A

Decreased level of consciousness (GCS 8/9), pupil asymmetry, motor lateralization

46
Q

What can be a diffuse cause of TBI?

A

Diffuse trauma, metabolic causes (hypoglycemia), drugs/poisons

47
Q

What is the definition of TBI according to the DSM 5?

A

Rapid movement of the brain within the skull with one or more of the following:
- LOC, post traumatic amnesia, disorientation/confusion, neurological signs

48
Q

How does the DSM 5 classify TBI severity?

A

Mild

- LOC 24 hrs, PTA > 1 wk, GCS 3-8

49
Q

Outline the Canadian CT head rules

A
  • GCS score 1 time
  • Age > 65 years
  • Amnesia before impact > 30 mins
  • Dangerous mechanism
50
Q

What are some symptoms you need to have for at least 4 weeks to be “post concussion syndrome”?

A

Doesn’t exist in DSM 5 anymore.

  • headache, dizziness, general malaise
  • irritability, depression
  • difficulty concentrating
  • insomnia
  • reduce alcohol tolerance
51
Q

What replaced “post concussion syndrome” in the DSM 5? How often does on get this syndrome?

A

Neurocognitive decline

  • a decline from a previous level of performance in one or more cognitive domains:
  • complex attention, executive function, learning and memory, language, perceptual-motor, social cognition
  • 15% of people will have persistent symptoms for longer than 3 months (if this happens, they tend to remain indefinitely)
52
Q

Are there any predictors of persistent post concussion syndrome?

A

Pre-injury health (mental, physical, other injuries), female, post-injury anxiety, post-injury neuropsychological functioning, alcohol, maladaptive illness beliefs

53
Q

Is head injury a risk factor for psychiatric disorders?

A

Yes. Especially depression.

54
Q

What are some areas of the brain that are involved in PTSD and TBI?

A

Medial prefrontal cortex, dorsolateral prefrontal cortex, orbitofrontal cortex, amygdala (key for fear), hippocampus

55
Q

What is the orbitofrontal area responsible for?

A

Centre of response inhibition!

- Disinhibition, impulsivity, memory disorders, no empathy, emotional lability if lesioned

56
Q

What is the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex responsible for?

A

Executive function, working memory, planning.

57
Q

What is the dorsomedial cortex (anterior part of the cingulate gyrus) responsible for?

A

All about initiating activity. Other roles in reward anticipation, decision making, empathy, impulse control, emotion

58
Q

Is TBI a risk factor for dementia? What forms?

A

Yes. It’s the best established environmental risk factor for dementia.
Increased risk for Alzheimer’s, Parkinson’s, and chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE)

59
Q

What pathology is present in chronic traumatic encephalopathy? What sort of symptoms do you get?

A

Perivascular accumulation of tau in an irregular, social pattern at the depths of the cortical sulci.
Behavioural (depression, apathy, suicidality), Cognitive (memory, executive functioning, visuospatial, language), and Physical (headache, dysarthria, gait abnormalities)