Week 2: Tympanoplasty & Otorrhea Flashcards

1
Q

Blunting is a phenomenon characterized by ____.

A

scarring in the anterior sulcus region that bridges the anterior graft and the anterior canal wall.

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2
Q

Which otological procedures account for the highest number of iatrogenic facial nerve injuries?

A

Tympanoplasty and mastoidectomy

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3
Q

The lateral grafting tympanoplasty technique is favored over the medial grafting technique for ____ perforations and ___.

A

The lateral grafting tympanoplasty technique is favored over the medial grafting technique for very large perforations and complicated revision cases.

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4
Q

Disadvantages of the lateral grafting technique for tympanoplasty include:

1.
2. Increased risk of cholesteatoma
3. Greater technical demands
4. Longer healing times
5. lateralization

A

Disadvantages of the lateral grafting technique for tympanoplasty include:

  1. Post-op blunting
  2. Increased risk of cholesteatoma
  3. Greater technical demands
  4. Longer healing times
  5. lateralization
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5
Q

Disadvantages of the lateral grafting technique for tympanoplasty include:

  1. Post-op blunting
    2.
  2. Greater technical demands
  3. Longer healing times
  4. lateralization
A

Disadvantages of the lateral grafting technique for tympanoplasty include:

  1. Post-op blunting
  2. Increased risk of cholesteatoma - (due to incomplete squamous epithelial removal)
  3. Greater technical demands
  4. Longer healing times
  5. lateralization
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6
Q

Disadvantages of the lateral grafting technique for tympanoplasty include:

  1. Post-op blunting
  2. Increased risk of cholesteatoma
    3.
  3. Longer healing times
  4. lateralization
A

Disadvantages of the lateral grafting technique for tympanoplasty include:

  1. Post-op blunting
  2. Increased risk of cholesteatoma
  3. Greater technical demands
  4. Longer healing times
  5. lateralization
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7
Q

Disadvantages of the lateral grafting technique for tympanoplasty include:

  1. Post-op blunting
  2. Increased risk of cholesteatoma
  3. Greater technical demands
    4.
  4. lateralization
A

Disadvantages of the lateral grafting technique for tympanoplasty include:

  1. Post-op blunting
  2. Increased risk of cholesteatoma
  3. Greater technical demands
  4. Longer healing times
  5. lateralization
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8
Q

Disadvantages of the lateral grafting technique for tympanoplasty include:

  1. Post-op blunting
  2. Increased risk of cholesteatoma
  3. Greater technical demands
  4. Longer healing times
    5.
A

Disadvantages of the lateral grafting technique for tympanoplasty include:

  1. Post-op blunting
  2. Increased risk of cholesteatoma
  3. Greater technical demands
  4. Longer healing times
  5. lateralization
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9
Q

While performing a tympanoplasty to address a 40% posterior perforation on a 21M w/chronic Eustachian tube dysfxn it is discovered that the ossicles are fixated due to diffuse tympanosclerosis. The incus is not in continuity w/the stapes and the lenticular process is eroded. After removal of tympanosclerosis, the stapes remains immobile. What is the most appropriate decision in the management of this situation.

A

Remove the incus, place a graft for repair of the TM, and return for 2nd stage stapedectomy and ossiculoplasty.

(A stable middle ear space should be established before proceeding with stapedectomy and ossiculoplasty).

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10
Q

What technique helps to decrease the incidence of post-op blunting with a lateral grafting tympanoplasty technique?

A

Removal of the anterior canal wall bulge & Avoiding direct placement of the graft over the anterior canal bone

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11
Q

Blunting of the angle at the anterior sulcus following lateral graft tympanoplasty technique typically occurs due to ___.

A

Failure to preserve the tympanomeatal angle, thus creating a “dead space” for scar tissue to form in and create a more obtuse angle than the physiologic norm.

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12
Q

Type I Wullstein Tympanoplasty Classification:

A

TM is grafted to an intact ossicular chain

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13
Q

Type II Wullstein Tympanoplasty Classification:

A

Malleus is partially eroded, so TM is grafted to the incus

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14
Q

Type III Wullstein Tympanoplasty Classification:

A

Malleus and incus are eroded.
TM is grafted to the stapes suprastructure

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15
Q

Type IV Wullstein Tympanoplasty Classification:

A

Stapes suprastructure is eroded but footplate is mobile.
TM is grafted to a mobile footplate.

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16
Q

Type V Wullstein Tympanoplasty Classification:

A

TM is grafted to a fenestration in the horizontal SCC.

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17
Q

45M develops R-conductive HL following temporal bone trauma attributed to malleoincudal separation. He undergoes tympanoplasty w/placement of a partial ossicular replacement prosthesis (PORP) without complication. His hearing returns to baseline w/no further conductive hearing loss. 6mos later he develops severe R otalgia, ear popping and subsequent HL that does not improve. CT shows a displaced PORP w/o contact to the stapes. No inner ear or otoscopic abnormalities are present. What would his expected HL be in dB?

A

Dislocation of the ossicular prosthesis (resulting in complete ossicular discontinuity) + intact TM

MAXIMAL conductive hearing loss (which is typically 60dB)

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18
Q

25M w/recurrent foul smelling L otorrhea. He has no h/o recurrent ear infxn. but did have one severe episode of acute otitis media that resulted in a perforated TM as a child. On PE you see a white mass behind the TM and no appreciable retraction of the TM. A CT of the temporal bone is performed and is below. What is the likely dx?

A

Secondary acquired cholesteatoma

(the patient has the introduction of epithelial cells into the middle ear, in this case, from TM rupture, but more commonly through pressure equalization tube placement or other penetrating trauma.

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19
Q

A 43M presents w/ear pain and drainage and retrobulbar pain. On physical exam, you note purulent fluid in the middle ear and abducens nerve palsy.

These symptoms indicate an what dx?

A

Gradenigo’s syndrome (petrous apicitis)

(This is a complication of a middle ear infxn., patients have symptoms of pain and drainage from the ear).

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20
Q

A 43M presents w/ear pain and drainage and retrobulbar pain. On physical exam, you note purulent fluid in the middle ear and abducens nerve palsy.

These symptoms indicate an infxn in which location?

A

Petrous apex of the temporal bone:

  1. Irritation of the trigeminal n. In Meckel’s cave explains the retro-orbital pain.
  2. VI (abducens n.) travels through Dorello’s canal, which also abuts the petrous apex, explaining the palsy of this n.)
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21
Q

The signs and symptoms of Gradenigo’s syndrome (Petrous Apicitis) can be easily remembered with the mnemonic “EAR:”

A

E - ear drainage
A - abducens nerve palsy
R - retrobulbar pain

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22
Q

53M presents for eval of chronic unilateral otorrhea, HL, and occasional vertigo x2yr. The patient denies prior ear surgery. On exam an attic retraction pocket cholesteatoma is noted. CT reveals scutum erosion and thinning of the lateral semicircular canal wall. During surgery, cholesteatoma matrix is identified over the lateral SCC w/ and underlying bluish coloration. Which procedure would be most appropriate for patient who is adamant about not undergoing >1 surgery?

A

Canal-wall down mastoidectomy

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23
Q

A finding of mounds of granulation tissue at the isthmus of the EAC is pathognomonic for ___.

A

Malignant otitis externa (MOE)

24
Q

39F w/HL. She has a brother who had hearing loss in his early 40s. She has a h/o recurrent b/l ear infxns as a child and underwent placement of a single pair of pressure equalization tubes b/l. On PE her b/l TMs are sclerotic and cannot visualize beyond the TM. The Audiogram is shown below, and stapedial reflex is absent. What form of HL is shown on the audiogram?

A

Mixed HL in the R ear, w/gap btwn air and bone conduction, indicating conductive HL, which closes at 2,000 Hz.

25
Q

39F w/HL. She has a brother who had hearing loss in his early 40s. She has a h/o recurrent b/l ear infxns as a child and underwent placement of a single pair of pressure equalization tubes b/l. On PE her b/l TMs are sclerotic and cannot visualize beyond the TM. The Audiogram is shown below, and stapedial reflex is absent. What is the most likely dx?

A

Otosclerosis

The “Carhart notch,” an artificial drop in the bone conduction line due to disruption of ossicular resonance, is consistent w/otosclerosis, and other disorders such as ossicular chain discontinuity.

26
Q

25M presents w/otorrhea for the last few months as demonstrated in the picture. What is the most common microorganism source of otitis externa.

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa = most common bacterial cause of otitis externa

27
Q

What is the most common complication of myringotomy tube insertion?

A

Otorrhea (also written as “transient” otorrhea)

28
Q

A patient with a large acoustic neuroma develops numbness of the conchal bowl. What is this sign called?

A

Hitselberger sign - hypesthesia of the posterior canal wall and concha, due to compression on the facial n.

29
Q

A positive fistula test where positive pressure is administered w/positive pressure in the ear canal, which elicits nystagmus. A positive test is indicative of ___?

A

A perilymphatic leak or Hennebert’s sign

30
Q

Malignant otitis externa (aka necrotizing otitis externa) presents with which findings?

A
  1. Long standing otalgia (>4wks)
  2. Otorrhea
  3. Granulation tissue at the bony cartilaginous junction
31
Q

Most cases of malignant otitis externa are caused by which bacterial pathogen?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

32
Q

Most cases of malignant otitis externa are caused by which fungal pathogen?

A

Aspergillus sp.

33
Q

Based on the CT below, if the indicated structure were damaged in surgery, what would be the likely outcome?

A

Facial paralysis.

The indicated structure is the tympanic segment of the facial nerve.

34
Q

The most commonly damaged portion of the vestibular system is the ___, and leads to ___.

A

Lateral SCC; vertigo

35
Q

What is the latest time point following the onset of acute facial paralysis that ENoG is considered helpful?

A

Between 3 days - 2 weeks.

(should not be performed before 72hrs post-injury as Wallerian degeneration has not occurred yet; difficult to predict after 2 weeks as regeneration begins at the proximal end)

36
Q

A child presents to the ED w/fever and a L posterior periauricular painful mass x1d. Her mother reports that she has been complaining of hearing loss, and feeling dizzy. Other than well-child checks, she has never been to the doctor. The ear is shown below. What of the following is true regarding the treatment of the suspected diagnosis?

A

Tx of mastoiditis requires IV Abx. The choice of initial agent is dependent upon whether there is a preceding h/o recurrent acute otitis media or recent antibiotic therapy.

For children w/o a h/o recurrent episodes of acute otitis media or recent Abx, the recommended 1st line agents are Vanc or Linezolid.

37
Q

Describe the Pittsburgh Staging system for SCCa of the Temporal Bone:

T1

A

TI - limited to the EAC w/o bony erosion or soft tissue involvement

38
Q

Describe the Pittsburgh Staging system for SCCa of the Temporal Bone:

T2

A

T2 - limited bony erosion of the EAC (not full thickness), limited soft tissue involvement

39
Q

Describe the Pittsburgh Staging system for SCCa of the Temporal Bone:

T3

A

T3 - full thickness bony EAC erosion, involvement of the middle ear or mastoid

40
Q

Describe the Pittsburgh Staging system for SCCa of the Temporal Bone:

T4

A

T4 - involvement of the carotid canal, jugular bulb, medial middle ear, petrous apex, or FN

41
Q

The mean age of presentation of a congenital cholesteatoma is ___ years.

A

4.5 years

42
Q

PE will most commonly show the congenital cholesteatoma in the ___ quadrant.

A

Anterior-superior

43
Q

Congenital cholesteatomas behave differently than acquired cholesteatomas, with __ growth and overall __ destructive capacity. Patients also commonly dont have hearing loss until the cholesteatoma ___.

A

Congenital cholesteatomas behave differently than acquired cholesteatomas, with slow growth and overall less destructive capacity. Patients also commonly dont have hearing loss until the cholesteatoma becomes fairly large and begins to encroach on the ossicles.

44
Q

Congenital cholesteatomas have a ___ : ___ gender predominance.

A

Congenital cholesteatomas have a (male) : (female) predominance.

45
Q

65M w/a h/o DMII presents w/1wk of R ear pain and otorrhea. On PE, ear canal is edematous and erythematous. After debriding the R EAC, the TM is intact w/a middle ear effusion. The patient is sent home w/Neomycin otic drops. 1wk later, patient has a maculopapular rash involving the R conchal bowl and R EAC. The R canal is significantly less edematous and erythematous. What is the best next step in mgmt.?

A

Stop the neomycin drops and start corticosteroid drop.

(Pt w/maculopapular rash and near resolution of the otitis externa, the patient is having an allergic rxn to the topical neomycin).

46
Q

Malignant otitis externa is a fulminant skull base ___ caused by ___.

A

Malignant otitis externa is a fulminant skull base osteomyelitis caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

47
Q

Clinical findings of malignant otitis externa include:

1.
2. Otorrhea
3. Multiple cranial neuropathies
4. Granulation tissue at the bony-cartilaginous junction

A

Clinical findings of malignant otitis externa include:

  1. Pain out of proportion to exam
  2. Otorrhea
  3. Multiple cranial neuropathies
  4. Granulation tissue at the bony-cartilaginous junction
48
Q

Clinical findings of malignant otitis externa include:

  1. Pain out of proportion to exam
    2.
  2. Multiple cranial neuropathies
  3. Granulation tissue at the bony-cartilaginous junction
A

Clinical findings of malignant otitis externa include:

  1. Pain out of proportion to exam
  2. Otorrhea
  3. Multiple cranial neuropathies
  4. Granulation tissue at the bony-cartilaginous junction
49
Q

Clinical findings of malignant otitis externa include:

  1. Pain out of proportion to exam
  2. Otorrhea
    3.
  3. Granulation tissue at the bony-cartilaginous junction
A

Clinical findings of malignant otitis externa include:

  1. Pain out of proportion to exam
  2. Otorrhea
  3. Multiple cranial neuropathies
  4. Granulation tissue at the bony-cartilaginous junction
50
Q

Clinical findings of malignant otitis externa include:

  1. Pain out of proportion to exam
  2. Otorrhea
  3. Multiple cranial neuropathies
    4.
A

Clinical findings of malignant otitis externa include:

  1. Pain out of proportion to exam
  2. Otorrhea
  3. Multiple cranial neuropathies
  4. Granulation tissue at the bony-cartilaginous junction
51
Q

A ___ scan identifies the presence of ___, which is characteristic of malignant otitis externa. This scan is used to rule ___ malignant otitis externa.

A

A Technetium bone scan identifies the presence of increased osteogenic bone activity, which is characteristic of malignant otitis externa. This scan is used to rule IN malignant otitis externa.

(A Gallium scan is used to follow the response of MOE to treatment)

52
Q

55 diabetic F presents for evaluation of severe L-sided otalgia x1wk. She was initially evaluated at a local urgent care clinic and started on topical Cortisporin otic drops, w/o much improvement. No prior ontological history. On exam there is evidence of HB III as well as erythema and edema of the L EAC w/ noted granulation tissue at the bony-cartilaginous Jon. The patient is unable to sit still due to the severity of pain. What is the diagnosis and what should be done next?

A
  1. Malignant otitis externa
  2. Technetium bone scan
53
Q

Most labyrinthine fistulas involve the ___ canal.

A

Horizontal SCC.

(Rarely, erosions into the superior SCC, posterior SCC, cochlea, and/or vestibule have been reported).

54
Q

Following Tympanostomy tube insertion, which of the following is true?

A. Routine Abx ear drops x5d

B. Tympanostomy tubes should be evaluated 3-6mos after placement

C. Dry ear precautions are recommended

D. Intra-operatively, saline washouts and Abx/Steroid ear drops have comparable efficacy in preventing post-op otorrhea.

A

D. Intra-operatively, saline washouts and Abx/Steroid ear drops have comparable efficacy in preventing post-op otorrhea.

(unless purulent middle ear effusion or acute otitis media is present at the time of TT insertion, routine Abx ear drops are not recommended)

55
Q

Invasive fungal otitis externa, caused by Aspergillus fumigatus or Aspergillus niger, is diagnosed by _____.

A

Biopsy of the polyploid/necrotic tissue will yield evidence of fungal angioinvasion.