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2-Anesthesia Pharm > Week 2-Specific Opioid Agonists/Antagonists > Flashcards

Week 2-Specific Opioid Agonists/Antagonists Flashcards

1
Q

What type of pain is morphine more effective in relieving?

A

Continuous, dull pain is relieved by Morphine more effectively than is sharp, intermittent pain

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2
Q 
Rank the following medications from lowest to highest potency: 
Morphine 
Merperidine 
Hydromorphine 
Methadone 
Fentanyl 
Sufentanil
A 
Merperidine (0.1)
Methadone and morphine (1)
Hydromorphone (5-8) 
Fentanyl (100)
Sufentanil (1000)
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3
Q

The effect of an opioid (as in peak effect) is proportional to the concentration at ______, not the plasma concentration.

A

the effect site

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4
Q

What effects drug onset?

A

Drug onset will depend on the effect being measured (e.g., incisional vs. postoperative pain, etc.), the opioid dose administered, and any pre-existing opioid concentrations.

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5
Q

What effects the absorption of a drug?

A

its lipid solubility and inversely on its polarity or degree of ionization

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6
Q

What is produced from morphine metabolism?

A

5-10% results in active metabolite: morphine-6-glucuronide (M6G)

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7
Q

What is elimination half life?

A

Elimination half-time is time necessary forplasmaconcentration of a drug to fall to 50% during the elimination phase
… is independent of the dose administered

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8
Q

Review opioid agonists. ``

A

Slide 62

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9
Q

What is context-sensitive half-time?

A

Context-sensitive half-time is time necessary for plasma concentration of a drug to fall to 50% aftera continuous infusion of a specific duration

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10
Q

What is effect site equalibration time?

A

Effect-site equilibration time is the half-time of equilibration between the drug concentration in plasma and the drug effect

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11
Q

Review peak effect slide.

A

Slide 73

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12
Q

What is codeine used for?

A

Used mainly for antitussive effects

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13
Q

What is the PK of codeine?

A

PRO-drug converted to Morphine (10%) in the liver

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14
Q

What impact does the liver have on codeine?

A

Limited first pass hepatic effect

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15
Q

What effect does liver failure and opioids have on one another?

A

Even though the liver is the metabolic organ primarily responsible for the biotransformation of most opioids, the degree of liver failure typically seen in perioperative patients is not severe enough to have a major impact on opioid pharmacokinetics

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16
Q

Alfentanil affected by _________.

A

CYP enzyme alterations

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17
Q

How is morphine metabolized?

A

Morphine 3-glucuronide and morphine 6-glucuronide are excreted via the kidney

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18
Q

What is important to know about meriperidine’s active metabolite, normeperidine?

A

excitatory CNS effects that can cause seizures

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19
Q

What is the relation between remifentanil and renal failure?

A

it is not impacted by renal failure

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20
Q

What is the relationship between morphine and gender?

A
  • Evidence that Morphine is more potent in women than in men
  • A lower concentration of morphine is required to produce comparable analgesia
  • May be related to cyclic gonadal hormones
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21
Q

Fentanyl congeners are more potent in _________

A

older patients

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22
Q

What are the pharmokinetic differences associated with older patients?

A

decreases in clearance and Vd, in older patients

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23
Q

Pharmacodynamic differences are primarily responsible for _______________ in patients greater than 65 years of age

A

decreased dose requirements

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24
Q

What is an important factor influencing the clinical pharmacology of opioids?

A

Body weight

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25
Q

Morbidly obese patients require _________ doses than lean patients to achieve target concentrations

A

Higher

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26
Q

What is the response from partial agonists?

A

Bind to mu receptors, and activates it with a smaller shape change which leads to only a partial receptor response.

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27
Q

What are the effects of competitive antagonists?

A

Bind to mu receptors= Produce no effect

28
Q

Also exert partial agonist actions at ______ & ______ receptors

A

kappa and delta

29
Q

What effect can opioid agonist-antagonists have on opioid agonists?

A

Antagonistic properties of these drugs can attenuate the efficacy of subsequently administered opioid agonists

30
Q

What are the side effects of opioid agonist-antagonists similar to?

A

Side effects are similar to those of opioid agonists

31
Q

Opioid agonist-antagonists can cause ____________ reactions

A

dysphoric

32
Q

What are some advantages to Opioid agonist-antagonist (3)?

A
  • Ability to produce analgesia with limited depression of ventilation
  • Reduced potential to produce physical dependence
  • No Ceiling effect
33
Q

What should the class of Opioid Agonists-Antagonists be reserved for?

A

be reserved for those patients who cannot tolerate a pure agonist

34
Q

What is a ceiling effect?

A

increased doses do not produce additional side effects

35
Q

Naloxone, Naltrexone, and Nalmefene are _________ opioid receptor antagonists with no agonist activity

A

pure mu opioid receptor

36
Q

What effect do opioid antagonists have on the mu receptors?

A
  • Displaces the opioid agonist from mu receptors

- Following this displacement, the binding of the pure antagonist does not activate mu receptors, and antagonism occurs

37
Q

What is the effects of naltrexone?

A
  • Highly effective, given orally

- Produces sustained antagonism of opioids for as long as 24 hours

38
Q

True opioid allergy is ______

A

rare

39
Q

What is true about opioid allergy?

A

-Predictable side effects are often misinterpreted as an allergic reaction
-Localized histamine release
-Orthostatic hypotension
N&V

40
Q

What is minimum alveolar concentration?

A

is the concentration of a vapor in the alveoli of thelungsthat is needed to prevent movement (motor response) in 50% of subjects in response to surgical (pain) stimulus

41
Q

What is MAC used to compare?

A

the strengths, orpotency, of anesthetic inhalational agents

42
Q

What effect does morphine have on MAC?

A

Morphine decreases the MAC of volatile anesthetics in a dose-dependent manner

43
Q

What effect does MAC have on fentanyl in relationship to forane & desflurane?

A

A single dose of Fentanyl 3 ug/kg IV 25-30 minutes prior to surgical incision reduces MAC of Forane and Desflurane by 50%

44
Q

Sufentanil and Alfentanil also produce a ___________ until a plateau is reached

A

dose-dependent reduction in MAC

45
Q

What is the effect of MAC on remifentanil?

A

The decrease in MAC produced by Remifentanil is similar to that produced by other opioids and ranges from 50-91% depending upon the plasma concentration of Remifentanil

46
Q

Opioid agonists do not provide ________, even at extremely high doses

A

reliable amnesia

47
Q

What is less effective in decreasing the MAC?

A
  • Opioid agonists-antagonists are less effective than opioid agonists in decreasing MAC
  • Even large doses of opioid agonists-antagonists do not produce unconsciousness or prevent patient movement in response to surgical stimulation
  • Intraoperative role of these drugs is minimal
48
Q

What is the rationale for using PCA?

A

Rationale: by using frequent, small doses of opioid, patients will have better control of their pain by keeping effect-site concentrations in the therapeutic range for a longer period of time

49
Q

What are the two important characteristics of PCA?

A

Increases patient satisfaction & Lowers opioid consumption

50
Q

Neuraxial approach: What is the most reliable clinical sign of respiratory depression?

A

Most reliable clinical sign of respiratory depression is a depressed level of consciousness, possibly caused by hypercarbia

51
Q

Neuraxial approach: What is the most reliable clinical sign of hypoventilation in those with supplemental oxygen?

A

arterial hypoxemia is a late sign of hypoventilation

52
Q

Neuraxial opioids: What is the single dose for an epidural morphine dose? Infusion?

A

2-5 mg; infusion 0.1-1 mg/h

53
Q

Neuraxial opioids: What is the single dose for an epidural Fentanyl dose? Infusion?

A

50-100 mcg; infusion 25-100 mcg hr

54
Q

Neuraxial opioids: What is the single dose for an subarachnoid Fentanyl dose? Infusion?

A

10-20 mcg

55
Q

Neuraxial opioids: What is the single dose for an subarachnoid Morphine dose? Infusion?

A

0.25-0.3 mg

56
Q

What is the goal of Central Acting Nonopioid Analgesics (2)?

A
  • Minimize the adverse effects of opioids (Goal)

- Provide a multimodal approach for relieving pain

57
Q

Neuraxial approach to bypass ________

A

blood-brain barrier

58
Q

What are some disadvantages to the neuraxial drug/approach (4)?

A
  • Damage to structures of the CNS (dura, nerves) by needles and catheters
  • Neurotoxic effects from the drugs (preservatives, antioxidants)
  • ? adequate testing for drug for neuraxial route (novel approach for many medications)
  • Infection
59
Q

What does neostigimine increase?

A

Increase Ach levels

60
Q

What neostigimine side effects can be seen?

A

Muscarinic side effects (N/V) limit its use despite analgesic effects

61
Q

What are the advantages to ketamine?

A

Advantages include lack of CV and respiratory depression

62
Q

What are some side effects of ketamine?

A

Neurotoxicity, psychomimetic issues, inadequate motor blockage, short duration of action- concerns

63
Q

What is midazolam being investigated for?

A

Investigated for use in postop and chronic pain (Used with opioids and clonidine for additive effects).

64
Q

What have animal trials shown about midazolam?

A

Serious risk: neurotoxicity in animal models that manifested after human use

65
Q

What is the MOA of ketorolac?

A

COX inhibitor to ⬇️ prostaglandin after cell injury.

66
Q

What do the theoretical implications say about ketorolac?

A

Despite theoretical implications, especially for chronic pain, limited effect with neuraxial route

2-Anesthesia Pharm (4 decks)

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