Week 2 - Respiratory, ABGs Flashcards

1
Q

Acute Respiratory Failure Overview

Occurs when oxygenation, ventilation, or both are ___________

  • Insufficient O2 transferred to blood
  • ___________
  • Decreased PaO2 and SaO2
  • Inadequate CO2 removal
  • ___________
  • Increased PaCO2
  • ABGs assess pH, PaO2, PaCO2, bicarbonate, SaO2
  • Pulse oximetry assesses arterial O2 saturation(SpO2)
A

Occurs when oxygenation, ventilation, or both are inadequate

  • Insufficient O2 transferred to blood
  • Hypoxemia
  • Decreased PaO2 and SaO2
  • Inadequate CO2 removal
  • Hypercapnia
  • Increased PaCO2
  • ABGs assess pH, PaO2, PaCO2, bicarbonate, SaO2
  • Pulse oximetry assesses arterial O2 saturation(SpO2)
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2
Q

Hypoxemic (Oxygenation) or Hypercapnic (Ventilatory)

A

Hypoxemic
PaO2 is less than or equal to 60 mm Hg on 60% or more oxygen

Hypercapnic
PaCO2 is over 50 mm hg and pH is under 7.35

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3
Q

Common Causes of ARF

Hypoxemic:
* ARDS
* Asthma
* Chronic Bronchitis
* Pulmonary Edema
* Emphysema
* Pneumonia
* PE
* Pneumothorax

Hypercapnic:
* ARDS
* Asthma
* Chronic Bronchitis
* Pulmonary Edema
* Emphysema
* COPD
* Cystic Fibrosis
* Hypoventilation syndrome
* Brainstem injury
* Guillain-Barre Syndrome
* Muscular dystrophy

A

Hypoxemic:
* ARDS
* Asthma
* Chronic Bronchitis
* Pulmonary Edema
* Emphysema
* Pneumonia
* PE
* Pneumothorax

Hypercapnic:
* ARDS
* Asthma
* Chronic Bronchitis
* Pulmonary Edema
* Emphysema
* COPD
* Cystic Fibrosis
* Hypoventilation syndrome
* Brainstem injury
* Guillain-Barre Syndrome
* Muscular dystrophy

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4
Q

Hypoxemic Resp. Failure

  1. Mismatch between Ventilation (V) and perfusion (Q)
    —. V/Q mismatch
  2. Shunt
  3. Diffusion limitation
  4. Alveolar hypoventilation
A
  1. Mismatch between Ventilation (V) and perfusion (Q)
    —. V/Q mismatch
  2. Shunt
  3. Diffusion limitation
  4. Alveolar hypoventilation
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5
Q

pH – the measure of ________ balance found in arterial blood

______ - _______

A

pH – the measure of acid/base balance found in arterial blood

7.35 – 7.45

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6
Q

PaO2 – the partial pressure of O2 found in _______________

_____ - _______ mmHg

A

PaO2 – the partial pressure of O2 found in arterial blood

80 – 100 mmHg

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7
Q

PaCO2 – the partial pressure of CO2 found in arterial blood

_____ - _____ mmHg

A

PaCO2 – the partial pressure of CO2 found in arterial blood

35 – 45 mmHg

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8
Q

HCO3 – the measure of __________ found in arterial blood (buffer that helps balance pH)

_____ - _____ MeQ/L

A

HCO3 – the measure of bicarbonate found in arterial blood (buffer that helps balance pH)

22-26 MeQ/L

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9
Q

SaO2 – O2 saturation in the arterial blood _______ %

A

95-100

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10
Q

SpO2 – O2 saturation in the peripheral capillaries; estimate of the amount of O2 that is bound to Hbg in the blood versus the total amount of Hbg _______%

A

95-100

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11
Q

Hypoxemic Respiratory Failure
Etiology and Pathophysiology

Diffusion Impairment
* Gas exchange across alveolarcapillary membrane is compromised by a process that destroys the alveolar membrane or affects blood flow through the pulmonary capillaries

Alveolar-capillary membrane is thicker (fibrotic) and slows gas exchange

Pulmonary fibrosis, interstitial lung disease, ARDS

Pulmonary edema – accumulation of fluid, WBCs or protein in alveoli

A

Diffusion Impairment
* Gas exchange across alveolarcapillary membrane is compromised by a process that destroys the alveolar membrane or affects blood flow through the pulmonary capillaries

Alveolar-capillary membrane is thicker (fibrotic) and slows gas exchange

Pulmonary fibrosis, interstitial lung disease, ARDS

Pulmonary edema – accumulation of fluid, WBCs or protein in alveoli

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12
Q

Clinical Manifestations of Hypoxemia and Hypercapnia

Signs of respiratory failure are related to
A sudden decrease in PaO2 or rapid increase in PaCO 2 implies a serious condition or lifethreatening emergency
Signs of respiratory failure are related to Extent of changes in PaO2 or PaCO2
Speed of change (acute versus chronic)
Ability for compensation to occur

Failure of compensatory mechanisms leads to resp. failure

A

Signs of respiratory failure are related to
A sudden decrease in PaO2 or rapid increase in PaCO 2 implies a serious condition or lifethreatening emergency
Signs of respiratory failure are related to Extent of changes in PaO2 or PaCO2
Speed of change (acute versus chronic)
Ability for compensation to occur

Failure of compensatory mechanisms leads to resp. failure

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13
Q

Clinical Manifestations of Hypoxemia & Hypercapnia cont.

Lack of O2 affects all body systems
* Manifestations may be specific or nonspecific
* First sign of hypoxemic ARF is a change in ________________

Decreased O2
_________, _________, agitation

Increased CO2
morning headache, decreased RR, decreased LOC

  • Early signs of ARF – tachycardia, tachypnea, pallor, mild increase in work of breathing (WOB)
    Heart and lung compensation for decreased O2 and rising CO2
  • Cyanosis is an unreliable indicator of hypoxemia
A

Clinical Manifestations of Hypoxemia & Hypercapnia cont.

Lack of O2 affects all body systems
* Manifestations may be specific or nonspecific
* First sign of hypoxemic ARF is a change in mental status

Decreased O2
restlessness, confusion, agitation

Increased CO2
morning headache, decreased RR, decreased LOC

  • Early signs of ARF – tachycardia, tachypnea, pallor, mild increase in work of breathing (WOB)
    Heart and lung compensation for decreased O2 and rising CO2
  • Cyanosis is an unreliable indicator of hypoxemia
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14
Q

Hypoxemia and Hypercapnia

Observe
* Position: lie down, sit upright, or tripod
* Work of breathing (WOB); effort needed by respiratory muscles to inhale air into the
lungs

  • Breathing patterns
    _______, shallow (hypoxemia); monitor for fatigue
    _____ RR (hypercapnia)

Change from rapid to slow RR indicating severe muscle fatigue and leading to respiratory arrest

A

Observe
* Position: lie down, sit upright, or tripod
* Work of breathing (WOB); effort needed by respiratory muscles to inhale air into the
lungs

  • Breathing patterns
    Rapid, shallow (hypoxemia); monitor for fatigue
    Slow RR (hypercapnia)

Change from rapid to slow RR indicating severe muscle fatigue and leading to respiratory arrest

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15
Q

Hypoxemia and Hypercapnia

Observe
* Ability to speak
2 to 3 word _______
* _________ breathing
Increased expiratory time; prevents small bronchial collapse
* _________ of intercostal spaces or supraclavicular area; use of accessory muscles
* Paradoxical breathing
Abdomen and chest move outward with exhalation and inward with inhalation (opposite of normal)
May be diaphoretic from increased WOB

A

Observe
* Ability to speak
2 to 3 word dyspnea
* Pursed-lip breathing
Increased expiratory time; prevents small bronchial collapse
* Retraction of intercostal spaces or supraclavicular area; use of accessory muscles
* Paradoxical breathing
Abdomen and chest move outward with exhalation and inward with inhalation (opposite of normal)
May be diaphoretic from increased WOB

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16
Q

Hypoxemia and Hypercapnia S&S

Auscultate breath sounds
* Fine crackles: ________ edema
* Coarse crackles: ______ in airways
* Absent or diminished: atelectasis, pneumonia, or hypoventilation
* Bronchial: consolidation
* Pleural friction rub: ____________ involving pleura

A

Auscultate breath sounds
* Fine crackles: pulmonary edema
* Coarse crackles: fluid in airways
* Absent or diminished: atelectasis, pneumonia, or hypoventilation
* Bronchial: consolidation
* Pleural friction rub: pneumonia involving pleura

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17
Q

Manifestations of Hypoxemia - Specific

  • Respiratory: ________, tachypnea, prolonged expiration, nasal flaring, intercostal muscle retraction, use of accessory muscles, decreased SpO2 (less than 80%), paradoxic chest or abdominal wall movement with respiratory cycle (late), cyanosis (late)
A
  • Respiratory: dyspnea, tachypnea, prolonged expiration, nasal flaring, intercostal muscle retraction, use of accessory muscles, decreased SpO2 (less than 80%), paradoxic chest or abdominal wall movement with respiratory cycle (late), cyanosis (late)
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18
Q

Manifestations of Hypoxemia - Nonspecific

  • CNS: agitation; _________; disorientation; restless, combative behavior; delirium; decreased level of consciousness; coma (late)
  • Cardiovascular: ___________; hypertension; skin cool, clammy, and diaphoretic; dysrhythmias (late); hypotension (late)
  • Other: ________, inability to speak in complete sentences without pausing to breathe
A
  • CNS: agitation; confusion; disorientation; restless, combative behavior; delirium; decreased level of consciousness; coma (late)
  • Cardiovascular: tachycardia; hypertension; skin cool, clammy, and diaphoretic; dysrhythmias (late); hypotension (late)
  • Other: fatigue, inability to speak in complete sentences without pausing to breathe
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19
Q

Manifestations of Hypercapnia - Specific

  • Respiratory: ________, ________ position, pursed-lip breathing, __________ RR or rapid rate with shallow respirations, decreased tidal volume, decreased minute ventilation
A
  • Respiratory: dyspnea, tripod position, pursed-lip breathing, decreased RR or rapid rate with shallow respirations, decreased tidal volume, decreased minute ventilation
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20
Q

Manifestations of Hypercapnia - Nonspecific

  • CNS: morning __________, disorientation, confusion, progressive somnolence, increased intracranial pressure, coma (late)
  • Cardiovascular: __________, HTN, dysrhythmias, bounding pulse
  • Neuromuscular: muscle _________, decreased deep tendon reflexes, Tremors, seizures (late)
A
  • CNS: morning headache, disorientation, confusion, progressive somnolence, increased intracranial pressure, coma (late)
  • Cardiovascular: tachycardia, HTN, dysrhythmias, bounding pulse
  • Neuromuscular: muscle weakness, decreased deep tendon reflexes, Tremors, seizures (late)
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21
Q

Nursing and Interprofessional Management: ARF

Management and care will vary; factors to consider:
Age
Severity of onset
Underlying comorbidities
Suspected or most likely cause

Acute care requires collaboration between nursing, physicians, respiratory therapists,
pharmacists, and others is essential

A

Management and care will vary; factors to consider:
Age
Severity of onset
Underlying comorbidities
Suspected or most likely cause

Acute care requires collaboration between nursing, physicians, respiratory therapists,
pharmacists, and others is essential

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22
Q

Mild to moderate ARF
* __________ O2
* Non-invasive ventilation (Bi-PAP) for patients who are awake, alert, able to maintain a patent airway, able to clear own secretions

A

Mild to moderate ARF
* High-flow O2
* Non-invasive ventilation (Bi-PAP) for patients who are awake, alert, able to maintain a patent airway, able to clear own secretions

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23
Q

Severe ARF - ICU care

_________ ventilation
Continuous pulse oximetry
_________ blood pressure (ABP) monitoring
Frequent ABGs
______________________ (CVP) monitoring
Advanced hemodynamic monitoring

A

Mechanical ventilation
Continuous pulse oximetry
Arterial blood pressure (ABP) monitoring
Frequent ABGs
Central venous pressure (CVP) monitoring
Advanced hemodynamic monitoring

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24
Q

Clinical Problems (ARF)

Impaired ___________ system function
Inadequate tissue _________
__________ imbalance

A

Impaired respiratory system function
Inadequate tissue perfusion
Acid-base imbalance

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25
Q

ARF - Overall goals

  • Independently maintain a patent _______
  • Absence of _______ or recovery to baseline breathing patterns
  • Effectively _____ and able to clear secretions
  • Normal ____ values or values within patient’s baseline
  • _______ sounds within patient’s baseline
A
  • Independently maintain a patent airway
  • Absence of dyspnea or recovery to baseline breathing patterns
  • Effectively cough and able to clear secretions
  • Normal ABG values or values within patient’s baseline
  • Breath sounds within patient’s baseline
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26
Q

ARF Prevention

  • Thorough history and physical assessment to identify at-risk patients and initiate early ____________

Special attention to patients with neuromuscular, cardiac or respiratory problems

Deep __________ and coughing, incentive spirometry, early _________

  • Frequent assessment of __________ patients

Prevent: atelectasis, pneumonia, complications of immobility, and optimize hydration and nutrition

A
  • Thorough history and physical assessment to identify at-risk patients and initiate early interventions

Special attention to patients with neuromuscular, cardiac or respiratory problems

Deep breathing and coughing, incentive spirometry, early ambulation

  • Frequent assessment of high-risk patients

Prevent: atelectasis, pneumonia, complications of immobility, and optimize hydration and nutrition

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27
Q

ARF - Implementation: Acute Care

Identify and treat ________ ______ of ARF

Continuous monitoring of patient response to therapy: changes in _________ status,
trends in ABG, signs of clinical improvement

Modifications may be indicated for patients with V/Q mismatch, shunting, diffusion impairment

A

Identify and treat underlying cause of ARF

Continuous monitoring of patient response to therapy: changes in respiratory status,
trends in ABG, signs of clinical improvement

Modifications may be indicated for patients with V/Q mismatch, shunting, diffusion impairment

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28
Q

ARF - Respiratory therapy
* Goals
Maintain adequate oxygenation and ________
Correct ________ imbalance

  • Interventions
    ____ therapy
    Mobilizing _____________
    Positive pressure ventilation (PPV)
A
  • Goals
    Maintain adequate oxygenation and ventilation
    Correct acid-base imbalance
  • Interventions
    O2 therapy
    Mobilizing secretions
    Positive pressure ventilation (PPV)
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29
Q

Oxygen Therapy

Goal: correct _________

Apply O2 at ________ possible FiO2 to keep SpO2, PaO2 and SaO2 within patient-specific goals

Never withhold ________ from a hypoxic patient

Observe response and monitor for changes in ________ status, RR, and ABGs

A

Goal: correct hypoxemia

Apply O2 at lowest possible FiO2 to keep SpO2, PaO2 and SaO2 within patient-specific goals

Never withhold oxygen from a hypoxic patient

Observe response and monitor for changes in mental status, RR, and ABGs

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30
Q

Oxygen Therapy cont.

Delivery system
* Selected on patient’s overall condition, degree of respiratory failure, ability to maintain patent ________, amount of FIO2 the device delivers, patient’s ability to
_______ spontaneously
* Maintain PaO2 at 60 mm Hg or more and SaO2 at ____% or higher at lowest O2 concentration possible

Patient with hypoxemia is often agitated, disoriented, restless; ________ can worsen the problem

  • Adjust approach, use of face mask accordingly
A

Delivery system
* Selected on patient’s overall condition, degree of respiratory failure, ability to maintain patent airway, amount of FIO2 the device delivers, patient’s ability to
breathe spontaneously
* Maintain PaO2 at 60 mm Hg or more and SaO2 at 90% or higher at lowest O2 concentration possible

Patient with hypoxemia is often agitated, disoriented, restless; anxiety can worsen the problem

  • Adjust approach, use of face mask accordingly
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31
Q

Oxygen Therapy cont.

High FiO2 for prolonged periods can lead to adverse effects
* Oxygen ________ (greater than ____% O2 for longer than 48 hours); inflammation and cell death by disrupting the alveolar capillary membrane
* Absorption atelectasis; lack of nitrogen to help maintain size and shape of alveoli
* Increased pulmonary capillary permeability
* Decreased surfactant production or inactivation
* Fibrotic changes in the alveoli

A

High FiO2 for prolonged periods can lead to adverse effects
* Oxygen toxicity (greater than 60% O2 for longer than 48 hours); inflammation and cell death by disrupting the alveolarcapillary membrane
* Absorption atelectasis; lack of nitrogen to help maintain size and shape of alveoli
* Increased pulmonary capillary permeability
* Decreased surfactant production or inactivation
* Fibrotic changes in the alveoli

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32
Q

Oxygen Therapy cont.

Patients with chronic hypercapnia, (COPD)
* Blunts response of chemoreceptors to high CO2 levels as respiratory stimulant
* Provide O2 at ____ flow (nasal cannula at 1 to 2 L/min or Venturi mask at 24% to 28%)
* Consider __________ ventilation with higher FIO2 for inadequate response

A

Patients with chronic hypercapnia, (COPD)
* Blunts response of chemoreceptors to high CO2 levels as respiratory stimulant
* Provide O2 at low flow (nasal cannula at 1 to 2 L/min or Venturi mask at 24% to 28%)
* Consider mechanical ventilation with higher FIO2 for inadequate response

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33
Q

Secretions can block or limit the exchange of _______, causing or worsening ARF

Secretions can be mobilized by
Proper _________
Effective _________
Chest physiotherapy
_________
Humidification
Hydration
Early _________ when possible

A

Secretions can block or limit the exchange of gases, causing or worsening ARF

Secretions can be mobilized by
Proper positioning
Effective coughing
Chest physiotherapy
Suctioning
Humidification
Hydration
Early ambulation when possible

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34
Q

Position patient upright; HOB should be raised to at least ___ degrees; reclining chair or chair bed
—Increases respiratory expansion, decreases dyspnea, and mobilizes secretions
Risk of aspiration: use side-lying position

Unilateral lung disorders
–Lateral or side-lying position; “_____ lung down” to improve V/Q matching by draining secretions to remove with suctioning

Bilateral lung disorders – Reposition at regular intervals on __________

A

Position patient upright; HOB should be raised to at least 30 degrees; reclining chair or chair bed
—Increases respiratory expansion, decreases dyspnea, and mobilizes secretions
Risk of aspiration: use side-lying position

Unilateral lung disorders
–Lateral or side-lying position; “good lung down” to improve V/Q matching by draining secretions to remove with suctioning

Bilateral lung disorders – Reposition at regular intervals on both sides

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35
Q

Effective Coughing
Encourage patients to cough to clear ________
Augmented coughing (quad coughing)
* Used when patient unable to cough productively (weak)
* Place one or both hands at anterolateral base of lungs; have patient take a deep breath and move hands forcefully ___ as expiration begins
* Increased abdominal pressure and helps patient cough
* Increases expiratory flow and promotes secretion clearance

A

Encourage patients to cough to clear secretions
Augmented coughing (quad coughing)
* Used when patient unable to cough productively (weak)
* Place one or both hands at anterolateral base of lungs; have patient take a deep breath and move hands forcefully up as expiration begins
* Increased abdominal pressure and helps patient cough
* Increases expiratory flow and promotes secretion clearance

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36
Q

Chest Physiotherapy

For all patients who are producing sputum, have severe atelectasis or pulmonary infiltrates (on CXR)

_______ drainage

__________

__________
–Helps move secretions to larger airways for more effective coughing or suctioning
Contraindicated in TBI with ICP, unstable orthopedic injuries, and recent hemoptysis

A

For all patients who are producing sputum, have severe atelectasis or pulmonary infiltrates (on CXR)

Postural drainage

Percussion

Vibration
–Helps move secretions to larger airways for more effective coughing or suctioning
Contraindicated in TBI with ICP, unstable orthopedic injuries, and recent hemoptysis

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37
Q

Suctioning

If patient unable to expectorate secretions
Done in an _______, non-intubated patient using a soft-tip suction catheter through a nasopharyngeal tube
Proceed with caution to avoid stimulating the ____ reflex (vomiting)
Suctioning through an artificial airway is only done as ________

A

If patient unable to expectorate secretions
Done in an awake, non-intubated patient using a soft-tip suction catheter through a nasopharyngeal tube
Proceed with caution to avoid stimulating the gag reflex (vomiting)
Suctioning through an artificial airway is only done as needed

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38
Q

Humidification and Hydration

Adjunct in secretion management

Thin secretions
* Aerosols of sterile normal saline or mucolytic drugs via nebulizer
* O2 via aerosol mask
* Monitor for bronchospasm and severe coughing

Hydration
* Oral intake ______ L/day (unless contraindicated)
* IV ______
* Monitor for fluid overload – crackles, dyspnea, increased weight or CVP

A

Thin secretions
* Aerosols of sterile normal saline or mucolytic drugs via nebulizer
* O2 via aerosol mask
* Monitor for bronchospasm and severe coughing

Hydration
* Oral intake 2 to 3 L/day (unless contraindicated)
* IV fluids
* Monitor for fluid overload – crackles, dyspnea, increased weight or CVP

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39
Q

Positive Pressure Ventilation (PPV)

Noninvasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV)
* Provides O2 and decreases WOB with spontaneous breathing; must be awake,
alert, and VS stable
* Contraindicated for decreased LOC, high O2 requirements, facial trauma, hemodynamic instability, or excess

Two forms
* _______ —continuous positive airway pressure
* Constant pressure during inspiration and expiration

  • ________—bilevel positive airway pressure (more common)
  • Uses 2 different levels of positive pressure – one with ________ & _____________
A

Noninvasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV)
* Provides O2 and decreases WOB with spontaneous breathing; must be awake,
alert, and VS stable
* Contraindicated for decreased LOC, high O2 requirements, facial trauma, hemodynamic instability, or excess

Two forms
* CPAP—continuous positive airway pressure
* Constant pressure during inspiration and expiration

  • BiPAP—bilevel positive airway pressure (more common)
  • Uses 2 different levels of positive pressure – one with inspiration; another with expiration
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40
Q

Drug Therapy

Consider: comorbidities & presence of infection

Goals of drug tx:
Reduce airway __________ and therapy bronchospasm
Relieve pulmonary _________
Treat infection
Reduce anxiety, pain, and restlessness

A

Reduce airway inflammation and therapy bronchospasm
Relieve pulmonary congestion
Treat infection
Reduce anxiety, pain, and restlessness

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41
Q

Drug Therapy cont.

Reduce airway inflammation and _________

  • Acute bronchospasm
    Short-acting __________ repeated every 15-30 minutes until a response is achieved using hand-held nebulizer or metered-dose inhaler with a spacer
    Monitor VS and _____ changes for signs of dysrhythmias or cardiac ischemia
  • ____________ help with inflammation
    Effects may take hours when given IV; 4-5 days when inhaled
    See: Drug Alert – hypokalemia, adrenal insufficiency, hyperglycemia
A

Reduce airway inflammation and bronchospasm

  • Acute bronchospasm
    Short-acting bronchodilators repeated every 15-30 minutes until a response is achieved using hand-held nebulizer or metered-dose inhaler with a spacer
    Monitor VS and ECG changes for signs of dysrhythmias or cardiac ischemia
  • Corticosteroids help with inflammation
    Effects may take hours when given IV; 4-5 days when inhaled
    See: Drug Alert – hypokalemia, adrenal insufficiency, hyperglycemia
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42
Q

Drug Therapy cont.

Relieve pulmonary congestion

Injury to alveolar capillary membrane from HF or fluid overload can cause interstitial fluid accumulation in lungs

Decrease pulmonary congestion caused by HF

  • IV _______
  • Morphine
  • Nitroglycerine
    ** Use w/ caution – can cause changes in HR & rhythm & significant decreases in BP
A

Relieve pulmonary congestion

Injury to alveolar capillary membrane from HF or fluid overload can cause interstitial fluid accumulation in lungs

Decrease pulmonary congestion caused by HF

  • IV diuretics
  • Morphine
  • Nitroglycerine
    ** Use w/ caution – can cause changes in HR & rhythm & significant decreases in BP
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43
Q

Drug Therapy cont.

Treat infections
* Cause excessive mucus production; fever; increased O2 consumption; inflamed, fluidfilled and/or collapsed alveoli
* Cause or worsen ARF
* Diagnosed with CXR and sputum cultures
* Treated with IV ________

Reduce anxiety, pain, and restlessness
* Address ______; do not depend solely on use of medications
* Benzodiazepines and Opioids – use _______ dose possible (RR)
* See Safety Alert

A

Treat infections
* Cause excessive mucus production; fever; increased O2 consumption; inflamed, fluidfilled and/or collapsed alveoli
* Cause or worsen ARF
* Diagnosed with CXR and sputum cultures
* Treated with IV antibiotics

Reduce anxiety, pain, and restlessness
* Address cause; do not depend solely on use of medications
* Benzodiazepines and Opioids – use lowest dose possible
* See Safety Alert

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44
Q

Nutrition Therapy

Collaborate with _______

Maintain _______ and _______ stores
Critically ill: hypermetabolic state

Start enteral nutrition within ______ hours to avoid depletion and delayed recovery

A

Collaborate with dietician

Maintain protein and energy stores
Critically ill: hypermetabolic state

Start enteral nutrition within 24 to 48 hours to avoid depletion and delayed recovery

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45
Q

Expected outcomes
* Independently maintain a patent _______
* Maintain adequate __________
* Have normal __________ stability
* Achieve a return to baseline respiratory system function

A
  • Independently maintain a patent airway
  • Maintain adequate oxygenation
  • Have normal hemodynamic stability
  • Achieve a return to baseline respiratory system function
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46
Q

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)

Sudden _________ form of acute respiratory failure

________ capillary membrane becomes damaged and more _________ to intravascular fluid

A

Sudden progressive form of acute respiratory failure

Alveolar capillary membrane becomes damaged and more permeable to intravascular fluid

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47
Q

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)

  • One of most common conditions seen in the adult ICU (___% of all ICU admissions)
  • More than 200,000 cases per year in United States
  • Mortality rate about ___%
A
  • One of most common conditions seen in the adult ICU (10% of all ICU admissions)
  • More than 200,000 cases per year in United States
  • Mortality rate about 35%
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48
Q

ARDS: Etiology - Predisposing factors

  • Most common: _______
    Other: multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)
    Multiple risk factors means 3 to 4 times likely to develop ARDS
  • Direct lung ______
    Common: pathogen in lungs; aspiration, virus, bacteria, or sepsis
  • ________ lung injury
    Common: problem (e.g., sepsis or massive trauma) from elsewhere in the body move toward favorable lung environment and proliferate > acute lung injury > ARF > ARDS
A
  • Most common: sepsis
    Other: multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)
    Multiple risk factors means 3 to 4 times likely to develop ARDS
  • Direct lung injury
    Common: pathogen in lungs; aspiration, virus, bacteria, or sepsis
  • Indirect lung injury
    Common: problem (e.g., sepsis or massive trauma) from elsewhere in the body move toward favorable lung environment and proliferate > acute lung injury > ARF > ARDS
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49
Q

ARDS Pathophysiology

Pathophysiologic changes divided into 3 phases
* _______ or exudative phase
* Reparative or __________ phase
* ________ or fibroproliferative phase

A
  • Injury or exudative phase
  • Reparative or proliferative phase
  • Fibrotic or fibroproliferative phase
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50
Q

ARDS

Injury or exudative phase
* Begins 24 to 72 hours after initial lung injury (direct or indirect); lasts _____days
Interstitial edema occurs from engorgement of peribronchial and perivascular interstitial space
Fluid surrounding alveoli crosses membrane and enters alveolar space; capillary blood cannot be oxygenated resulting in V/Q mismatch and intrapulmonary shunt

A

7 – 10

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51
Q

ARDS Injury or exudative phase cont.

  • Exact cause of damage to alveolar-capillary membrane unknown; may be stimulation of ___________ and immune systems
    Stimulation attracts neutrophils to pulmonary interstitium which release biochemical, humoral, and cellular mediators leading to increased pulmonary capillary permeability, destruction of collagen, formation of pulmonary microemboli, and pulmonary artery vasoconstriction
A

inflammatory

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52
Q

ARDS Injury or exudative phase cont.

  • Hypoxemia and stimulation of juxtacapillary receptors in stiff lung parenchyma (J
    reflex) leading to increased RR and decreased tidal volume (VT), causing increased CO2 removal, resulting in respiratory alkalosis
  • Increased cardiac output (CO)—compensatory mechanism to increase pulmonary blood flow
  • As pulmonary edema and pulmonary shunt increase, compensation fails, causing hypoventilation, decreasing CO, and decreasing tissue O2 perfusion
A
  • Hypoxemia and stimulation of juxtacapillary receptors in stiff lung parenchyma (J
    reflex) leading to increased RR and decreased tidal volume (VT), causing increased CO2 removal, resulting in respiratory alkalosis
  • Increased cardiac output (CO)—compensatory mechanism to increase pulmonary blood flow
  • As pulmonary edema and pulmonary shunt increase, compensation fails, causing hypoventilation, decreasing CO, and decreasing tissue O2 perfusion
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53
Q

ARDS Injury or exudative phase cont.

  • Alveolar cells type I and II are damaged
    Surfactant dysfunction leading to atelectasis
    Widespread _________ causing decreased compliance, compromised gas exchange, and increased hypoxemia
  • Necrotic cells, protein, and fibrin form thick hyaline membranes that line alveoli
    Contribute to fibrosis and atelectasis, resulting in decreased gas exchange capability and lung compliance
A

atelectasis

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54
Q

ARDS Injury or exudative phase cont.

  • Refractory hypoxemia
    Severe V/Q mismatch and shunting of pulmonary capillary blood
    Classic sign of ARDS
    Unresponsive to increasing O2 concentrations
  • Diffusion Impairment worsens _________
  • Lungs become less compliant
    Higher airway pressures must be generated to inflate “stiff” lungs, increasing WOB requiring mechanical ventilation
A

hypoxemia

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55
Q

ARDS Reparative or proliferative phase

  • 1 to 2 weeks after initial lung injury
  • Influx of neutrophils, monocytes, lymphocytes, and fibroblasts continues leading to increased pulmonary vascular resistance and pulmonary HTN as pulmonary vasculature is destroyed
  • Lung compliance continues to ________
A

decline

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56
Q

ARDS Reparative or proliferative phase cont.

  • Hypoxemia worsens due to thickened alveolar membrane causes V/Q mismatch, diffusion impairment, and shunting
  • Airway resistance severely increased
  • Proliferative phase complete when diseased lung replaced by dense, fibrous tissue
  • If reparative phase persists, widespread fibrosis results
  • If reparative phase is stopp
A
  • Hypoxemia worsens due to thickened alveolar membrane causes V/Q mismatch, diffusion impairment, and shunting
  • Airway resistance severely increased
  • Proliferative phase complete when diseased lung replaced by dense, fibrous tissue
  • If reparative phase persists, widespread fibrosis results
  • If reparative phase is stopp
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57
Q

ARDS Fibrotic or fibroproliferative phase
* Patients with ARDS may not enter this stage
* Poorer prognosis for those who do
* Chronic or late phase
* 2 to 3 weeks after initial lung injury
* For those that don’t fully recover, the lung is completely __________ by collagenous
and fibrous tissues

A

remodeled

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58
Q

ARDS Fibrotic or fibroproliferative phase cont.

  • Diffuse scarring and fibrosis cause
    Decreased lung compliance
    Decreased area for ____________
  • Hypoxemia continues
    Pulmonary hypertension
  • Results from pulmonary vascular destruction and fibrosis
A

gas exchange

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59
Q

ARDS Clinical Progression

Some patients survive acute phase of lung injury; pulmonary edema resolves
* Complete recovery within _______

Survival chances are poor for those who enter _______ phase
* Require long-term mechanical ventilation

Factors determining recovery versus progression
* Nature of initial injury, comorbidities, how quickly patient received care, pulmonary complications, genetic predisposition

A

Some patients survive acute phase of lung injury; pulmonary edema resolves
* Complete recovery within a week or so

Survival chances are poor for those who enter fibrotic phase
* Require long-term mechanical ventilation

Factors determining recovery versus progression
* Nature of initial injury, comorbidities, how quickly patient received care, pulmonary complications, genetic predisposition

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60
Q

Complications of ARDS

Ventilator-associated _________ (VAP)
* Implement ventilation bundle protocol reduces the incidence of VAP in mechanically ventilated patients

  • Strategies for prevention of VAP
    Good _______ hygiene
    Elevate HOB _______ degrees
    Daily _____ care with chlorhexidine (0.12%) solution
    Daily assessment for readiness for __________
    Stress ulcer prophylaxis
    Venous thromboembolism prophylaxis
A

Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)
* Implement ventilation bundle protocol reduces the incidence of VAP in mechanically ventilated patients

  • Strategies for prevention of VAP
    Good hand hygiene
    Elevate HOB 30 to 45 degrees
    Daily oral care with chlorhexidine (0.12%) solution
    Daily assessment for readiness for extubation
    Stress ulcer prophylaxis
    Venous thromboembolism prophylaxis
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61
Q

Complications of ARDS

Venous ___________ (VTE)
* Immobility and venous stasis leading to increased risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary emboli
* Prophylactic management Intermittent pneumatic ________ stockings
______________
Early ambulation, if possible

A

Venous Thromboembolism (VTE)
* Immobility and venous stasis leading to increased risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary emboli
* Prophylactic management Intermittent pneumatic compression stockings
Anticoagulants
Early ambulation, if possible

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62
Q

Complications of ARDS

Acute _______ injury (AKI)
* Occurs from decreased renal __________ and subsequent decreased delivery of O2 to kidneys
From hypotension in septic shock, hypoxemia, or nephrotoxic drugs used to treat ARDS-related infections

  • Management
    Monitor input and output
    Daily weight
    Daily BUN and creatinine
    Dialysis or continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT)
A

Acute kidney injury (AKI)
* Occurs from decreased renal perfusion and subsequent decreased delivery of O2 to kidneys
From hypotension in septic shock, hypoxemia, or nephrotoxic drugs used to treat ARDS-related infections

  • Management
    Monitor input and output
    Daily weight
    Daily BUN and creatinine
    Dialysis or continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT)
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63
Q

Survivors of ARDS may have

Anxiety
Memory and attention issues
Inability to focus
Nightmares
Depression
PTSD (up to 5 years later)

A

Anxiety
Memory and attention issues
Inability to focus
Nightmares
Depression
PTSD (up to 5 years later)

64
Q

Because _____ is the most severe form of ARF, the subjective and objective data you need for both is the same

65
Q

ARDS planning

With appropriate therapy, goals include:
* PaO2 of __ mmHg or higher and adequate lung ventilation to help correct any acid-base imbalance

Longer term goals for ARDS
* PaO2 within normal limits for age or at baseline on room air
* SaO2 >90%
* Resolution of the cause(s)
* Clear lungs on auscultation

66
Q

ICU care for patients with moderate to severe ARDS

> Complex and _________ clinical courseNeed _________ ventilation until resolution of inflammation and fluid accumulation begins

_________ HR RR BP SpO2 monitoring EtCO2 monitoring

A

> Complex and unpredictable clinical courseNeed mechanical ventilation until resolution of inflammation and fluid accumulation begins

Continuous HR RR BP SpO2 monitoring EtCO2 monitoring

67
Q

ARDS Best practices (ARDSNet protocol)

  • ____ administration
  • ___________ ventilation
  • Low tidal volume (VT) ventilation
  • Permissive hypercapnia
  • Positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP)
  • _____ positioning
  • Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO)
A
  • O2 administration
  • Mechanical ventilation
  • Low tidal volume (VT) ventilation
  • Permissive hypercapnia
  • Positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP)
  • Prone positioning
  • Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO)
68
Q

ARDS Respiratory Therapy

Oxygen administration
* Primary goal is to correct _________
* Initially high-flow systems (BiPAP) that deliver high O2 concentrations to maximize O2 delivery
Usually temporary
Unable to keep PaO2 within acceptable ranges
* SpO2 continuously monitored
* Mechanical ventilation with FiO2 (70% or higher) to keep PaO2 at least 60 mmHg

69
Q

ARDS Respiratory Therapy cont.

Mechanical ventilation
* Pressure-control type of ventilation
Keeps inspiratory and plateau pressures from becoming too high
Prevents alveolar overdistention and __________
Reducing pressure going into stiff, noncompliant lungs helps to revent further lung injury

70
Q

ARDS Respiratory Therapy cont.

Low tidal volume (Vt) ventilation
* Low tidal volume 4 to 8 mL/kg
Avoids volutrauma and barotrauma leading to lower mortality
Volutrauma causes alveolar fracture and movement of fluids and protein into alveolar spaces

A

Low tidal volume (Vt) ventilation
* Low tidal volume 4 to 8 mL/kg
Avoids volutrauma and barotrauma leading to lower mortality
Volutrauma causes alveolar fracture and movement of fluids and protein into alveolar spaces

71
Q

ARDS Respiratory Therapy cont.

__________ hypercapnia
* Low tidal volumes leads to slow increase in PaCO2
* PaCO2 up to 60 mmHg is acceptable in early phase ARDS
* Brain and systemic circulation compensate with gradual increase
Contraindicated with TBI or  ICP
* Requires frequent ABGs; keep pH 7.30 to 7.45
* Patient usually has continuous IV analgesia and sedation

A

Permissive

72
Q

ARDS Respiratory Therapy cont.

_________________ pressure (PEEP)
* During PPV, apply PEEP at 5 cm H2O to compensate for loss of glottic function with an ET
* PEEP  functional residual capacity and helps to open up collapsed alveoli
* Apply PEEP at 3 to 5 cm H2O increments until oxygenation is adequate with FiO2 less than or equal to 60%
Higher levels may be needed but no identified optimal level of PEEP

A

Positive end expiratory

73
Q

ARDS Respiratory Therapy cont.
Positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP) * Complications

Increased intrathoracic and intrapulmonic pressures generated in the lungs and to the surrounding structures at end expiration can compromise venous return leading to _________ preload, CO, and BP
High PEEP or excess inspiratory pressures can lead to barotrauma and volutrauma

74
Q

ARDS Respiratory Therapy cont.

_______ positioning
* In early ARDS, fluid moves freely in lungs and pools in gravity-dependent regions
* When in supine position, mediastinal contents and heart place more pressure on lungs and predispose to atelectasis
* Prone positioning is an option for refractory hypoxemia when other strategies fail to increase PaO2

75
Q

ARDS Respiratory Therapy cont.

______ positioning
* Perfusion may be better matched to ventilation
Air-filled alveoli in anterior lung become dependent; posterior alveoli may reexpand leading to increased oxygenation
May be able to reduce FiO2 or PEEP
Monitor for dysrhythmias or hypotension from fluid shifts
Suctioning may be required more often

76
Q

ARDS Respiratory Therapy cont.

Prone positioning
* Best practice: position prone in early ARDS
* Up to ___ hours per day
* Positioning requires an ICU intensivist, respiratory therapist, and 3 to 4 nurses
* Be attentive to securing the airway
* Once prone, position in a side-lying position

77
Q

ARDS Respiratory Therapy cont.

___________ membrane oxygenation (ECMO)
* Large blood vessel cannulated and catheter inserted; catheter connected to a device that allows blood to exit the patient and pass across a gas-exchanging membrane outside the body to the ECMO unit ; O2 is delivered and CO2 is removed; oxygenated blood is returned to the patient
* Extracorporeal CO2 removal (ECCO2R): used to enhance oxygenation; blood flow rate is lower

A

Extracorporeal

78
Q

Alternatives to Prone Position

Continuous lateral _________ therapy (CLRT)
* Continuous, slow, side-to-side turning of bed frame less than 40 degrees; 18 of every 24 hours
* Simulates postural drainage and mobilizes secretions; may also have vibrator pack for CPT

Kinetic therapy
* Patient rotated side-to-side at 40 degrees or greater

Monitor pulmonary status and patient

79
Q

ARDS Supportive Therapy

Analgesia and sedation
* Given direct IV or continuous IV
* Decrease discomfort from ET tube, reduces WOB, and prevents ventilator dyssynchrony
* Asynchronous ventilation considerations
Adjust inspiratory flow rates or other setting
Consider neuromuscular blocking agent
Always give simultaneous analgesia and sedation and monitor levels of sedation

A

Analgesia and sedation
* Given direct IV or continuous IV
* Decrease discomfort from ET tube, reduces WOB, and prevents ventilator dyssynchrony
* Asynchronous ventilation considerations
Adjust inspiratory flow rates or other setting
Consider neuromuscular blocking agent
Always give simultaneous analgesia and sedation and monitor levels of sedation

80
Q

ARDS Supportive Therapy cont.

Promoting tissue __________
* Risk for hemodynamic compromise
* Hemodynamic monitoring via a central venous or pulmonary artery catheter
See trends, detect changes, and adjust therapy
Monitor MAP and BP to determine adequate CO
* Inadequate: give IV fluids, drugs, or both
Monitor tissue perfusion (SaO2 , mixed venous oxygen saturation)

81
Q

ARDS Supportive Therapy cont.

Maintaining fluid balance and __________
* Challenges: pulmonary edema and intravascular depletion
* Monitor hemodynamic parameters, daily weights, hourly I & O
* Maintain protein and energy stores to avoid loss of muscle mass and delayed recovery
* Start enteral or parenteral nutrition in 24 to 48 hours

82
Q

ARDS Evaluation

Expected outcomes (similar for patients with ARF)
* Maintain and sustain adequate ___________ & ____________ with decreasing amounts of O2
* Be hemodynamically stable
* Be free of complications

A

oxygenation and ventilation

83
Q

ARF is not a _________ , it is a symptom of insufficient lung function

84
Q

Indications for ABG’s
- Evaluate adequacy of ________
- Evaluate the _________ status
- Evaluate _________ balance

A
  • Evaluate adequacy of ventilation
  • Evaluate the oxygenation status
  • Evaluate acid-base balance
85
Q

Obtaining an Arterial Blood Sample

  1. Arterial puncture is made at the radial, brachial or ______ artery
  2. May be drawn from an _________
  3. Samples drawn by RN or RCP - check with your facility for policy
  4. Collateral circulation must be assessed before doing a puncture by using the ___________
A
  1. Arterial puncture is made at the radial, brachial or femoral artery
  2. May be drawn from an arterial line
  3. Samples drawn by RN or RCP - check with your facility for policy
  4. Collateral circulation must be assessed before doing a puncture by using the Allen’s test
86
Q

Allen’s Test

  • Patient forms tight ______ forcing blood from the hand causing blanching
    -Pressure is applied to ____________ arteries to obstruct blood flow to the hand
    -Pressure to ulnar artery is released, patient opens hand…if palm turns pink within __ seconds, collateral flow is adequate
A
  • Patient forms tight fist forcing blood from the hand causing blanching
    -Pressure is applied to radial and ulnar arteries to obstruct blood flow to the hand
    -Pressure to ulnar artery is released, patient opens hand…if palm turns pink within 6 seconds, collateral flow is adequate
87
Q

Normal ABG Values

pH:
CO2:
HCO3:
BE [base excess]:
PaO2:
SpO2:

A

pH: 7.35-7.45
CO2: 35-45
HCO3: 22-26
BE [base excess]: -2 to +2
PaO2: 80-100
SpO2: 94-100%

88
Q

How the pH is Balanced

Lungs regulate>CO2 = ACID

Kidneys regulate>HCO3 = BASE

A

Lungs regulate>CO2 = ACID

Kidneys regulate>HCO3 = BASE

89
Q

Analysis of ABG’s - Six Step Process

Step #1: Analyze the ___
Step #2: Analyze the ___
Step #3: Analyze the ___
Step #4: Match either the PaCO2 or the HCO3 with the pH
Step #5: Assess for Compensation
Step #6: Analyze the PaO2 and SaO2 for Hypoxemia

A

Step #1: Analyze the pH
Step #2: Analyze the PaCO2
Step #3: Analyze the HCO3
Step #4: Match either the PaCO2 or the HCO3 with the pH
Step #5: Assess for Compensation
Step #6: Analyze the PaO2 and SaO2 for Hypoxemia

90
Q

If the pH is low and the PaCO2 is high, the HCO3 is normal, the patient has __________________

If the pH is high and the PaCO2 is low, the HCO3 is normal, the patient has __________________

If the pH and HCO3 are low and the PaCO2 is normal, the patient has __________________

If the pH and HCO3 are high but the PaCO2 is normal, the patient __________________

A

If the pH is low and the PaCO2 is high, the HCO3 is normal, the patient has respiratory acidosis

If the pH is high and the PaCO2 is low, the HCO3 is normal, the patient has respiratory alkalosis

If the pH and HCO3 are low and the PaCO2 is normal, the patient has metabolic acidosis

If the pH and HCO3 are high but the PaCO2 is normal, the patient has metabolic alkalosis

91
Q

Step #5 ABG analysis: Assess for Compensation

  • Determine whether the PaCO2 or the HCO3 go in the opposite direction of the pH
  • If so, then the patient has __________
  • Example: when the respiratory system (CO2) becomes acidotic, the metabolic system (HCO3) will become alkalotic in an attempt to bring the pH back to normal
A

compensation

92
Q

Step #5: Compensation Continued
-Fully Compensated: pH _________
-Partially Compensated: pH is ABNORMAL and both the CO2 or HCO3 are ABNORMAL
-Non-Compensated: pH is ABNORMAL and either the CO2 or HCO3 are the problem

93
Q

Step #6: Analyze the PaO2 and SaO2 for Hypoxemia
* If the PaO2 is less than ___, the patient has hypoxemia
* If the SpO2 is less than ____%, the patient has hypoxemia
* A patient on supplemental oxygen may have a PaO2 of more than 100 mmHg

A
  • If the PaO2 is less than 80, the patient has hypoxemia
  • If the SpO2 is less than 90%, the patient has hypoxemia
  • A patient on supplemental oxygen may have a PaO2 of more than 100 mmHg
94
Q

low VS high pH

A

High pH - alkalosis

Low pH- acidosis

95
Q

[Cheat sheet]

96
Q

Respiratory acidosis

97
Q

Respiratory alkalosis

98
Q

Metabolic acidosis

99
Q

Metabolic alkalosis

100
Q

Case study 1 -

Mr. Blue, a 67 year old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, arrives to the ED complaining of shortness of breath. He is barrel-chested, has cyanotic nail beds, with distant breath sounds and crackles on inspiration. He sits on the edge of the chair, learning forward, with both hands
on his knees.

ABG:
pH 7.25
PaO2 52 (room air)
PaCO2 54
HCO3- 30

=

A

respiratory acidosis

101
Q

Case Study #2: Mr. Money, a 32 year old international banker returns from a vacation in Guatemala. He complains of severe vomiting for five days. He is very fatigued, has sunken eyes, dry mucus membranes, HR 110 and BP is 85/50. On
standing his pressure falls and his heart rate
increases to 125.

ABG:
pH 7.50
PaCO2 47
PaO2 80
HCO3- 38
O2 sat 94%

=

A

metabolic alkalosis

102
Q

Case Study #3: Mr. Bad-Luck, a 32 y.o. man, was
injured in a bicycle accident suffering multiple
fractures having been hit by a bus. Surgery has been
delayed due to coagulopathy. He is intubated and
placed on the ventilator due to aspiration pneumonia, compromised airway, and increasing confusion. FIO2 50%.

ABG:
pH 7.39
PaCO2 37
PaO2 58
HCO3- 22
O2 sat 91%

=

A

hypoxemia (apply oxygen)

103
Q

Upper Airway Functions:

-Filtration
-Humidification
-Heat Supply
*These are __________ when a patient is on a ventilator

A

-Filtration
-Humidification
-Heat Supply
*These are bypassed when a patient is on a ventilator

104
Q

OXYGENATION is reflected in the PaO2 (dissolved/free oxygen)
*Normal range PaO2= ________ mmHg

A

OXYGENATION is reflected in the PaO2 (dissolved/free oxygen)
*Normal range PaO2= 80-100 mmHg

105
Q

VENTILATION is reflected by PaCO2 levels

*HYPO- ventilation usually causes ______ PaCO2 > retaining/not blowing it off
*HYPER- ventilation usually causes ______ PaCO2 > blowing too much off
*Normal range PaCO2 = 34-45 mmHg

A

*HYPO- ventilation usually causes HIGH PaCO2 > retaining/not blowing it off
*HYPER- ventilation usually causes LOW PaCO2 > blowing too much off
*Normal range PaCO2 = 34-45 mmHg

106
Q

Oxygen Transport

Oxygen is carried into the blood two ways:
1. (SaO2) = % of oxygen bound to ___________________ (i.e. 98%)
2. (PaO2) = dissolved/free oxygen molecules in _______

A

Oxygen is carried into the blood two ways:
1. (SaO2) = % of oxygen bound to hemoglobin in erythrocyte (i.e. 98%)
2. (PaO2) = dissolved/free oxygen molecules in plasma

107
Q

Oxyhemoglobin Dissociation Curve
1. Shows relationship between _______________________
2. Describes ability of hemoglobin to _____ O2

A
  1. Shows relationship between O2 saturation and PaO2
  2. Describes ability of hemoglobin to bind O2
108
Q

PaO2 versus SaO2

PaO2 is the amount of free form dissolved ______________
-Determined using blood gases (ABG’s)
-Normal range is 80-100 mmHg
-No benefit if greater than 100 > can actually be harmful (can lead to ______ )
-If greater than 100 > turn down the FiO2 on ventilator or oxygen device

A

oxygen particles in the blood

  • toxicity
109
Q

PaO2 Versus SaO2 Continued

SaO2 is the % of _______________
-Determined using a pulse oximeter
-Reading is affected by various conditions

A

oxygen BOUND to HEMOGLOBIN

110
Q

General Indications for Mechanical Ventilation
- Failure to adequately __________
- Failure to adequately __________
- To facilitate diagnostic, surgical, and therapeutic procedures
- Failure to protect the airway

A
  • Failure to adequately oxygenate
  • Failure to adequately ventilate
  • To facilitate diagnostic, surgical, and therapeutic procedures
  • Failure to protect the airway
111
Q

Specific Indications for Mechanical Ventilation

-Acute Respiratory Failure (Inability of a pt to maintain adequate PaO2, PaCO2 and potentially acidic pH)

  • Impending Respiratory Failure (Pt is barely maintaining normal blood gases at the expense of significant WOB)
  • Prophylactic Ventilatory Support (to decrease WOB, minimize O2 consumption and hypoxemia, reduce cardiopulmonary stress, &/or control airway with sedation)
  • Hyperventilation Therapy (Acute head injury)
A

-Acute Respiratory Failure (Inability of a pt to maintain adequate PaO2, PaCO2 and potentially acidic pH)

  • Impending Respiratory Failure (Pt is barely maintaining normal blood gases at the expense of significant WOB)
  • Prophylactic Ventilatory Support (to decrease WOB, minimize O2 consumption and hypoxemia, reduce cardiopulmonary stress, &/or control airway with sedation)
  • Hyperventilation Therapy (Acute head injury)
112
Q

CONTRAINDICATIONS TO INVASIVE VENTILATORY SUPPORT

Absolute
- Untreated tension __________
- Patient’s informed ________

Relative
- Medical futility
- Patient pain and suffering

A

Absolute
- Untreated tension pneumothorax
- Patient’s informed refusal

Relative
- Medical futility
- Patient pain and suffering

113
Q

Mechanical Ventilation
- __________ tube (ETT)
-Oral or nasal
-Passes through the vocal cords into the trachea
-Patients cannot ______

ETT Cuff inflated to protect airway
-20-25 cm H2O; check once a shift

_________ to verify placement of tip
-Should be at least 2 cm – 6 cm above carina
-Quick method is to use ETCO2
-Check placement at teeth level; 21 cm for women and 23 cm for men
-Consider sedation and pain meds

A

Mechanical Ventilation
- Endotracheal tube (ETT)
-Oral or nasal
-Passes through the vocal cords into the trachea
-Patients cannot talk

ETT Cuff inflated to protect airway
-20-25 cm H2O; check once a shift

Chest x-ray to verify placement of tip
-Should be at least 2 cm – 6 cm above carina
-Quick method is to use ETCO2
-Check placement at teeth level; 21 cm for women and 23 cm for men
-Consider sedation and pain meds

114
Q

Tidal volume (VT)
- The volume of air moved into and out of the lungs during each ventilation cycle
- _____ mL/kg

115
Q

Positive End Expiratory Pressure (PEEP)
- The positive pressure that will remain in the airways at the ___________ that is greater than the atmospheric pressure in mechanically ventilated patients
- 5 cmH20

A

end of exhalation

116
Q

Fraction of Inspired O2 (Fi02)
- Fraction of oxygen in the inhaled gas
- 0.30-1.00

A
  • Fraction of oxygen in the inhaled gas
  • 0.30-1.00
117
Q

Respiratory Rate - _____

118
Q

Peak Inspiratory Pressure (PIP)
- Highest level of pressure applied to the lungs during ________
- Keep it below 40 cmH20

A

inhalation

119
Q

End-tidal Carbon Dioxide (ETCO2)
- A noninvasive technique which measures the partial pressure or maximal concentration of carbon dioxide (CO2) at the ____________

  • ______ mmHg
A

end of an exhaled breath

35-45

120
Q

Ventilator Alarms

High Pressure
-Increased or thicker _______
-Bronchospasm
-Fighting the vent
-_______in the ventilator circuit
-Tubing _______
-Decreased lung compliance

Low Pressure
-Leak in the ETT or Removal of the ETT tube

Alarm Fatigue

A

High Pressure
-Increased or thicker secretions
-Bronchospasm
-Fighting the vent
-Water in the ventilator circuit
-Tubing kinked
-Decreased lung compliance

Low Pressure
-Leak in the ETT or Removal of the ETT tube

Alarm Fatigue

121
Q

Vent Modes

________ Control
-Pressure Regulated Volume Control (PRVC)
-A mode of ventilation in which the ventilator attempts to achieve a set tidal volume at the lowest possible airway pressure

_______
- Pressure Support (PS)
- A level of support pressure is set to assist every spontaneous effort. The patient determines the tidal volume, respiratory rate, and flow rate

A

Assist Control
-Pressure Regulated Volume Control (PRVC)
-A mode of ventilation in which the ventilator attempts to achieve a set tidal volume at the lowest possible airway pressure

Wean
- Pressure Support (PS)
- A level of support pressure is set to assist every spontaneous effort. The patient determines the tidal volume, respiratory rate, and flow rate

122
Q

Assessment of Ventilated Patients

  • Breath sounds
  • Spontaneous respiratory rate, volume, and pattern
    -Placement/level of ETT at teeth measured in cm
  • ETT cuff pressure and apparent stability of the tube
  • Chest motion
  • Skin color
  • Level of consciousness (LOC)
  • Secretions > Suction as needed, document color, consistency, amount & frequency of suctioning > this prevents ventilator acquired pneumonias (VAP)
A
  • Breath sounds
  • Spontaneous respiratory rate, volume, and pattern
    -Placement/level of ETT at teeth measured in cm
  • ETT cuff pressure and apparent stability of the tube
  • Chest motion
  • Skin color
  • Level of consciousness (LOC)
  • Secretions > Suction as needed, document color, consistency, amount & frequency of suctioning > this prevents ventilator acquired pneumonias (VAP)
123
Q

More Assessments

  • Prevent untoward effects of disconnection from ventilator during
    bedside procedures (restraints?)
  • Documentation of oxygenation and ventilation status (e.g., arterial blood gas results, exhaled PCO2 measurements)
  • Documentation of patient-ventilator synchrony during assisted or supported breaths
A
  • Prevent untoward effects of disconnection from ventilator during
    bedside procedures (restraints?)
  • Documentation of oxygenation and ventilation status (e.g., arterial blood gas results, exhaled PCO2 measurements)
  • Documentation of patient-ventilator synchrony during assisted or supported breaths
124
Q

Ventilator - Safety Concerns
- How can you tell if ETT is in correct position?
- What are s/s that ETT is NOT in correct position?
- If patient pulls out ETT what should you do?
- If ETT is pushed in by several centimeters what should you do?
- Ventilated patients are at high risk for aspiration. How is this prevented?
- How does your facility prevent ventilator acquired pneumonias (VAP)?

A
  • How can you tell if ETT is in correct position?
  • What are s/s that ETT is NOT in correct position?
  • If patient pulls out ETT what should you do?
  • If ETT is pushed in by several centimeters what should you do?
  • Ventilated patients are at high risk for aspiration. How is this prevented?
  • How does your facility prevent ventilator acquired pneumonias (VAP)?
125
Q

Liberation from Mechanical Ventilation (aka: Weaning)
- Daily Screening

Pt. must meet these criteria:
-No vent discontinuation/______ within past 24 hrs
-No active cardiac ischemia or __________ (hemodynamically stable)
-No neuromuscular blocking agents
-Adequate ____ (limited or no sedation)
-Limited/no restlessness or anxiety
-Adequate respiratory drive, cough, & ability to mobilize secretions

A

-No vent discontinuation/failure within past 24 hrs
-No active cardiac ischemia or arrhythmyias (hemodynamically stable)
-No neuromuscular blocking agents
-Adequate LOC (limited or no sedation)
-Limited/no restlessness or anxiety
-Adequate respiratory drive, cough, & ability to mobilize secretions

126
Q

Assessments During Weaning
-Monitor for Failure:
- Tachypnea
- Dyspnea
- Agitation/anxiety/restlessness
- Tachycardia
- Dysrhythmias
- SpO2 less than 90%
- Hyper or hypotension
- Changes in LOC

A

-Monitor for Failure:
- Tachypnea
- Dyspnea
- Agitation/anxiety/restlessness
- Tachycardia
- Dysrhythmias
- SpO2 less than 90%
- Hyper or hypotension
- Changes in LOC

127
Q

Pleural Space
-Lies between the parietal pleura (membrane lining the chest cavity) and the visceral pleura (surrounds the lungs)
- Holds about 50 ml of lubricating fluid
- Creates a negative pressure that keeps ___________
- Excess fluid or air accumulation in the pleural space limits lung expansion and leads to respiratory distress

A

the lungs expanded

128
Q

Why Do We Need Chest Tubes

____________: Air in the pleural space caused by trauma, lung disease, invasive pulmonary procedure, forceful coughing, surgical complication, or may occur spontaneously
–To drain air, the chest tube is placed in anterior chest at the second or third intercostal space

____________: Blood in the pleural space caused by blunt/penetrating trauma or a complication of chest surgery
–To drain fluid, the chest tube is placed at lung base

____________: Excessive fluid in the pleural space caused by pneumonia, left ventricular heart failure, pulmonary embolism, cancer, or complication of surgery

A

Pneumothorax: Air in the pleural space caused by trauma, lung disease, invasive pulmonary procedure, forceful coughing, surgical complication, or may occur spontaneously
–To drain air, the chest tube is placed in anterior chest at the second or third intercostal space

Hemothorax: Blood in the pleural space caused by blunt/penetrating trauma or a complication of chest surgery
–To drain fluid, the chest tube is placed at lung base

Pleural effusion: Excessive fluid in the pleural space caused by pneumonia, left ventricular heart failure, pulmonary embolism, cancer, or complication of surgery

129
Q

Why Do We Need Chest Tubes (other reasons)

_________: Pus from an infection, such as pneumonia; must always be drained no matter how small the amount

Other considerations: Preventively after cardiac/pulmonary surgery to drain blood postoperatively and prevent cardiac tamponade

130
Q

Chest Tube Insertion

-Done in patient’s room, ED, interventional radiology, or OR
- Aseptic (sterile) procedure
-Position patient for comfort depending on site to be inserted
-Tube will be anchored with sutures
-Insertion site will have an occlusive dressing applied
–e.g. Petroleum gauze
-Connections securely taped (closure device)
-Chest X-ray to confirm position

A

-Done in patient’s room, ED, interventional radiology, or OR
- Aseptic (sterile) procedure
-Position patient for comfort depending on site to be inserted
-Tube will be anchored with sutures
-Insertion site will have an occlusive dressing applied
–e.g. Petroleum gauze
-Connections securely taped (closure device)
-Chest X-ray to confirm position

131
Q

Chest Tube Insertion
- Pain medication
-Heimlich/Flutter Valve
- _________ System: Wet versus Dry System
–– Have this set up and ready before insertion

A
  • Pain medication
    -Heimlich/Flutter Valve
  • Drainage System: Wet versus Dry System
    –– Have this set up and ready before insertion
132
Q

Drainage Collection Chamber
-Receives fluid and air from the pleural space
-The drained fluid stays in this chamber while expelled air vents to the water seal chamber
-Drainage chamber is not emptied – RN to mark amount every shift on the chamber
-When this chamber is full, change out the closed chest drainage system with a new one

A

-Receives fluid and air from the pleural space
-The drained fluid stays in this chamber while expelled air vents to the water seal chamber
-Drainage chamber is not emptied – RN to mark amount every shift on the chamber
-When this chamber is full, change out the closed chest drainage system with a new one

133
Q

Water Seal Chamber
- Contains 2 cm of water, which acts as a one-way valve:
– Brisk bubbling of air in this chamber = pneumothorax
– Intermittent bubbling during exhalation, coughing, or sneezing = there is still some air in the pleural space
– No bubbling = air leak resolved, lung expanded

__________: This up and down movement of water in concert with respiration reflects intrapleural pressure changes during inspiration and expiration
– If tidaling stops suddenly - assess the chest tube for occlusion
– If tidaling gradually slows then eventually stops – means the lung has re-expanded

A

Water Seal Chamber
- Contains 2 cm of water, which acts as a one-way valve:
– Brisk bubbling of air in this chamber = pneumothorax
– Intermittent bubbling during exhalation, coughing, or sneezing = there is still some air in the pleural space
– No bubbling = air leak resolved, lung expanded

Tidaling: This up and down movement of water in concert with respiration reflects intrapleural pressure changes during inspiration and expiration
– If tidaling stops suddenly - assess the chest tube for occlusion
– If tidaling gradually slows then eventually stops – means the lung has re-expanded

134
Q

Water Suction Control Chamber
- The water suction control chamber uses a column of water to control the amount of suction from the wall regulator
- The chamber is typically filled with 20 cm of water
–– The suction pressure is usually ordered to be - 20 cm H2O
- To start suction, _________ the vacuum source until gentle bubbling is present in the this chamber
- Excessive bubbling does not increase the amount of suction but does increase the rate of evaporation of the water and the amount of noise made by the device

A

Water Suction Control Chamber
- The water suction control chamber uses a column of water to control the amount of suction from the wall regulator
- The chamber is typically filled with 20 cm of water
–– The suction pressure is usually ordered to be - 20 cm H2O
- To start suction, increase the vacuum source until gentle bubbling is present in the this chamber
- Excessive bubbling does not increase the amount of suction but does increase the rate of evaporation of the water and the amount of noise made by the device

135
Q

Dry Suction Control Chamber
- Dry suction chest drainage systems do not contain water.
- They often have a visual alert that shows if the suction is working.
- It uses a regulator to dial the desired negative pressure; this is internal in the chest drainage system.
- To increase the suction pressures, turn the dial on the drainage system.
- Increasing the vacuum source does not increase the pressure. When decreasing suction, depress the manual vent to reduce excess vacuum to the lower prescribed level.

A

Dry Suction Control Chamber
- Dry suction chest drainage systems do not contain water.
- They often have a visual alert that shows if the suction is working.
- It uses a regulator to dial the desired negative pressure; this is internal in the chest drainage system.
- To increase the suction pressures, turn the dial on the drainage system.
- Increasing the vacuum source does not increase the pressure. When decreasing suction, depress the manual vent to reduce excess vacuum to the lower prescribed level.

136
Q

[chest tubes] Complications
-________: Usually minor, but may require surgery if extensive
- ________: Likelihood increases the longer the chest tube is in place
- Subcutaneous ________: Characterized by swelling in face, neck, and chest; crackles on palpation

A

-Bleeding: Usually minor, but may require surgery if extensive
- Infection: Likelihood increases the longer the chest tube is in place
- Subcutaneous emphysema: Characterized by swelling in face, neck, and chest; crackles on palpation

137
Q

Nursing Considerations [chest tubes]
-Monitor vital signs
- Assess breath sounds bilaterally (check for SQ emphysema, crepitus)
- Assess the insertion site
- Encourage the patient to TCDB
-Make sure connections are taped securely
-Keep collection apparatus below level of pt chest; don’t allow tubing to touch floor

A

-Monitor vital signs
- Assess breath sounds bilaterally (check for SQ emphysema, crepitus)
- Assess the insertion site
- Encourage the patient to TCDB
-Make sure connections are taped securely
-Keep collection apparatus below level of pt chest; don’t allow tubing to touch floor

138
Q

Nursing Considerations cont. for chest tubes

-Check suction control and water seal chambers frequently
-Assess drainage for color, amount
- Measure drainage every 8 hours or more often depending on patient’s condition
-Document assessment
- Report: drainage greater than 200 mL in the first hour, development of subcutaneous emphysema, or any signs and symptoms of respiratory distress

A

-Check suction control and water seal chambers frequently
-Assess drainage for color, amount
- Measure drainage every 8 hours or more often depending on patient’s condition
-Document assessment
- Report: drainage greater than 200 mL in the first hour, development of subcutaneous emphysema, or any signs and symptoms of respiratory distress

139
Q

more Nursing Considerations for chest tubes

-At the bedside: Always keep 2 Kelly clamps- may be needed if the chest tubes accidentally become dislodged/disconnected from the tubing
-Tubing: Avoid aggressive manipulation such as “stripping”
-Patency: To maintain patency, try “gentle” hand-over-hand squeezing of tubing and release
-Clamping: Avoid except when replacing chest drainage unit, locating air leak, or assessing when tube will be removed

A

-At the bedside: Always keep 2 Kelly clamps- may be needed if the chest tubes accidentally become dislodged/disconnected from the tubing
-Tubing: Avoid aggressive manipulation such as “stripping”
-Patency: To maintain patency, try “gentle” hand-over-hand squeezing of tubing and release
-Clamping: Avoid except when replacing chest drainage unit, locating air leak, or assessing when tube will be removed

140
Q

more Nursing Considerations for chest tubes

If client must be transported: suction is usually off and air is vented out
– Tubing is not _______ for transport!

  • If a tube accidentally pulls out – quickly place a tight occlusive dressing over the insertion site on the chest to prevent air from re-entering
  • If chest tube becomes detached from the drainage system – quickly place the end of the chest tube into a bottle of sterile water
A

If client must be transported: suction is usually off and air is vented out
– Tubing is not clamped for transport!

  • If a tube accidentally pulls out – quickly place a tight occlusive dressing over the insertion site on the chest to prevent air from re-entering
  • If chest tube becomes detached from the drainage system – quickly place the end of the chest tube into a bottle of sterile water
141
Q

Chest Tube Removal - Can remove chest tube when:
–There’s little to no ________
–Air leak is gone
–Patient is ________ normally without respiratory distress
–Fluctuations in water seal chamber stopped
–Chest X-ray shows lung re-expansion with no residual air or fluid

A

–There’s little to no drainage
–Air leak is gone
–Patient is breathing normally without respiratory distress
–Fluctuations in water seal chamber stopped
–Chest X-ray shows lung re-expansion with no residual air or fluid

142
Q

Chest Tube Removal
-Gather supplies and explain procedure to patient
-Pain meds 30 - 60 minutes prior
-During peak exhalation, the clinician will remove the chest tube in
one quick movement (Valsalva maneuver)
- Immediately apply a sterile gauze dressing containing petroleum
to prevent air from entering pleural space
- Monitor patient’s respiratory status
- Arrange for chest X-ray to confirm lung re-expansion
- Monitor patient’s respiratory status and SpO2 for 1-2 hours after
removal

A

-Gather supplies and explain procedure to patient
-Pain meds 30 - 60 minutes prior
-During peak exhalation, the clinician will remove the chest tube in
one quick movement (Valsalva maneuver)
- Immediately apply a sterile gauze dressing containing petroleum
to prevent air from entering pleural space
- Monitor patient’s respiratory status
- Arrange for chest X-ray to confirm lung re-expansion
- Monitor patient’s respiratory status and SpO2 for 1-2 hours after
removal

143
Q

Acute respiratory failure is when one or both happen:

  • Oxygen unable to pass from lungs to _____, causing blood oxygen level to
    drop (hypoxemia).
    -Loss of blood oxygen means tissues and ______ may not function appropriately.
  • Carbon Dioxide (CO2) unable to pass from blood into _______.
  • Body unable to get rid of CO2 (___________).
  • Buildup of CO2 can cause damange to tissues and organs.
  • Can be classified as two main types based on underlying mechanism
A
  • Oxygen unable to pass from lungs to blood, causing blood oxygen level to
    drop (hypoxemia).
    -Loss of blood oxygen means tissues and organs may not function appropriately.
  • Carbon Dioxide (CO2) unable to pass from blood into lungs.
  • Body unable to get rid of CO2 (hypercapnia).
  • Buildup of CO2 can cause damange to tissues and organs.
  • Can be classified as two main types based on underlying mechanism
144
Q

Type I vs II Respiratory Failure

A

Hypoxemic Respiratory Failure (Type I)

Hypercapnic Respiratory Failure (Type II)

145
Q

Hypoxemic Respiratory Failure (Type __)
Known as: Lung Failure, Oxygenation Failure, Respiratory Insufficiency.

Definition: Failure of lungs to provide adequate ___ to meet metabolic needs.
O2 ____, CO2 normal or slightly↓

Causes: Pneumonia, Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS), Pulmonary Edema, Pulmonary Embolism, trauma to lungs, heart attack, sepsis.

A

Hypoxemic Respiratory Failure (Type I)
Known as: Lung Failure, Oxygenation Failure, Respiratory Insufficiency.

Definition: Failure of lungs to provide adequate O2 to meet metabolic needs.
O2 ↓↓, CO2 normal or slightly↓

Causes: Pneumonia, Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS), Pulmonary Edema, Pulmonary Embolism, trauma to lungs, heart attack, sepsis.

146
Q

Hypercapnic Respiratory Failure (Type __)
Known as: Pump Failure, __________ Failure.

Definition: Failure of the lungs to _________ adequate CO2. Low O2 levels.
O2 ↓, CO2 ____

Causes: COPD, Muscular Dystrophy, Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS), Drug Overdose (opioids or sedatives), stroke, sepsis.

A

Hypercapnic Respiratory Failure (Type II)
Known as: Pump Failure, Ventilatory Failure.

Definition: Failure of the lungs to eliminate adequate CO2. Low O2 levels.
O2 ↓, CO2 ↑↑

Causes: COPD, Muscular Dystrophy, Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS), Drug Overdose (opioids or sedatives), stroke, sepsis.

147
Q

Signs and Symptoms of Acute Respiratory Failure

__________
Tachypnea
Sweating
Cyanosis
Use of ____________
Restlessness
__________
Agitation

A

Dyspnea
Tachypnea
Sweating
Cyanosis
Use of accessory muscles
Restlessness
Confusion
Agitation

148
Q

ARDs
- Life threatening condition
- Type of ____.

A

ARDs
- Life threatening condition
- Type of ARF.

149
Q

ARDS vs ARF

150
Q

ARF/ARDS Interventions

_______ therapy
- Supplemental oxygen
- Bilevel positive airway pressure (BIPAP).

  • Long-term ventilator therapy may result in tracheostomy placement.

Medications
- ___________
-Corticosteroids
-Antibiotics

Close monitoring
- Continuous monitoring of oxygen levels
- Arterial Blood Gas (ABG)
- Respiratory rate
- Vital signs

A

Oxygen therapy
- Supplemental oxygen
- Bilevel positive airway pressure (BIPAP).

Mechanical ventilation
- Ventilator
- Long-term ventilator therapy may result in tracheostomy placement.

Medications
- Bronchodilators
-Corticosteroids
-Antibiotics

Close monitoring
- Continuous monitoring of oxygen levels
- Arterial Blood Gas (ABG)
- Respiratory rate
- Vital signs

151
Q

Mechanical Ventilation
* Usually initiated as pressure-regulated volume control (______).
* Delivers set tidal volume and rate with lowest possible pressure.

  • Patients may require for:
  • Low _____ (75-100 mmHg) levels
  • High ______ (35-45 mmHg)
  • Abnormal ____ (7.35-7.45)
  • Always check the patient before the equipment.
A
  • Usually initiated as pressure-regulated volume control (PRVC).
  • Delivers set tidal volume and rate with lowest possible pressure.
  • Patients may require for:
  • Low PaO2 (75-100 mmHg) levels
  • High PaCo2 (35-45 mmHg)
  • Abnormal pH (7.35-7.45)
  • Always check the patient before the equipment.
152
Q

Interventions for Vented Patients

Mobilizing _________
- Assessing need for suctioning.
- Always preoxygenate before suctioning, review patients SpO2, and document amount, color, and consistency of secretions after suctioning.
- Patients with thick secretions on mechanical ventilation.
-Hydration and nutrition important.

_____ Hygiene
-Compliance with VAP bundle
- Prevention of ventilator association pneumonia
- Wash your hands.

  • Turn and Reposition patient q__h
  • Keep HOB 30degrees and higher
  • Administer sedatives if not tolerating ventilator.
  • Always assess hemodynamic status prior to extubation.
  • Communicate with patients, give simple, clear directions and explanations.
A

Mobilizing secretions
- Assessing need for suctioning.
- Always preoxygenate before suctioning, review patients SpO2, and document amount, color, and consistency of secretions after suctioning.
- Patients with thick secretions on mechanical ventilation.
-Hydration and nutrition important.

Oral Hygiene
-Compliance with VAP bundle
- Prevention of ventilator association pneumonia
- Wash your hands.

  • Turn and Reposition patient q2h
  • Keep HOB 30degrees and higher
  • Administer sedatives if not tolerating ventilator.
  • Always assess hemodynamic status prior to extubation.
  • Communicate with patients, give simple, clear directions and explanations.
153
Q

Mnemonic - indications for chest tube

PEACH

A

Pneumothorax
Effusion (plueral)
Abscess
Cancer (lung)
Hemothorax

154
Q

Normal VS Abnormal (Ventilation)

_______ is normal and expected

__________ bubbling is normal (associated with breathing / coughing)

__________ bubbling is NOT normal (may indicate air leak)

A

Tidaling is normal and expected

Intermittent bubbling is normal (associated with breathing / coughing)

Continuous bubbling is NOT normal (may indicate air leak)

155
Q

Nursing Considerations for Patients with Chest Tubes

  • With new chest tube monitor patients’ vital signs, oxygen saturation, breath sounds, and insertion site every 15 minutes for first 2 hours, and then every shift.
  • Ensure an occlusive dressing is at bedside such as (sterile 4X4 gauze or petroleum gauze) * Used in the event of accidental removal or when chest tube is dc’d.
  • Monitor chest tube drainage.
  • If tube disconnects from drainage system accidentally:
  • Immerse tube in sterile water
A
  • With new chest tube monitor patients’ vital signs, oxygen saturation, breath sounds, and insertion site every 15 minutes for first 2 hours, and then every shift.
  • Ensure an occlusive dressing is at bedside such as (sterile 4X4 gauze or petroleum gauze) * Used in the event of accidental removal or when chest tube is dc’d.
  • Monitor chest tube drainage.
  • If tube disconnects from drainage system accidentally:
  • Immerse tube in sterile water
156
Q

Hypoxemic: _________ failure
* Oxygen is not reaching the tissues even if ventilation is normal
* PaO2 ≤ 60 mmHg on FiO2 ≥ 60% oxygen

Hypercapnic: _________ failure
* Imbalance between supply and demand of gas exchange
* Inadequate ventilation even if perfusion is functioning unimpaired
* PaCO2 > 45 mmHg and pH < 7.35
* PaCO2 is ACIDIC above 45
* PH is ACIDIC below 7.35
* ABG interpretation: Respiratory Acidosis

A

Hypoxemic: Oxygenation failure
* Oxygen is not reaching the tissues even if ventilation is normal
* PaO2 ≤ 60 mmHg on FiO2 ≥ 60% oxygen

Hypercapnic: Ventilatory failure
* Imbalance between supply and demand of gas exchange
* Inadequate ventilation even if perfusion is functioning unimpaired
* PaCO2 > 45 mmHg and pH < 7.35
* PaCO2 is ACIDIC above 45
* PH is ACIDIC below 7.35
* ABG interpretation: Respiratory Acidosis