Week 2 - CVS Flashcards

MI/IHD, Atherosclerosis, Aneurysms

1
Q

What is the best way to salvage ischaemic myocardium and how?

A

Rapid reperfusion:

  • thrombolysis
  • PTCA +/- stenting
  • CABGs

*Keep in mind re-perfusion injury!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is atherosclerotic plaque separation caused by?

A

Proteolytic enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 3 types of aortic dissection classifications?

A
  • Debakey I –> whole aorta
  • Debakey II –> ascending only
  • Debakey III –> descending only
  • Type A Stanford = Debakey I and II
  • Type B Stanford = Debakey III
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the most important cause of aneurysms?

A

Atherosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where are berry aneurysms common?

A

Cerebral arteries

  • haemorrhage (rupture)
  • stroke (thromboembolism)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are complications of aneurysms?

A
  • mural thrombosis/embolism –> COMMONEST
  • fatal hemorrhage (if rupture)
  • surrounding organ compression
  • ischaemic organ damage!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the pathogenesis of aneurysms?

A

Cystic medial degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are vasa vasorum?

A

small blood vessels that supply wall of blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is an aneurysm and its types?

A

Abnormal dilatation of an artery

  • True (all layers involved) –> saccular/berry; fusiform
  • False (not truly enlarged - escaped blood causes bulge) –> hematoma; dissecting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which cardiac marker is best for lab evaluation of an MI?

A

Troponins I + T

  • increased within 2-4hrs
  • peak @48hrs
  • remain elevated for 7-10 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the MI markers?

A
  • myoglobin
  • troponin I + T
  • CK + CK-MB
  • lactate dehydrogenase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are chronic complications of MI?

A
  • chronic IHD - CHF
  • arrhythmias
  • ventricular aneurysm
  • mural thrombosis
  • papillary muscle contraction –> Mitral regurgitation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are acute complications of MI?

A
  • heart failure
  • arrhythmias
  • CHF
  • cardiogenic shock
  • pericarditis
  • mural thrombosis
  • myocardial wall rupture –> tamponade (3-10days)
  • papillary muscle rupture –> mitral regurgitation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which coronary arteries are commonly affected by infarction?

A
  • LAD (ant/septum) –> 50% (most commonly affected)
  • RCA (posterior) –> 30%
  • Left marginal (L circumflex) (lateral) –> 20%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 3 types of myocardial infarcts?

A
  1. Sub-endocardial
    - partial obstruction
    - NSTEMI
  2. Transmural
    - complete obstruction
    - STEMI
  3. Multiple Small (Microscopic)
    - small vessels affected
    - normal ECG
    - gives rise to chronic IHD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where in the artery is an atheroma located within?

A

Tunica Intima

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Compare the 3 types of aneurysms

A
  1. Berry
    - from one side of artery producing a ‘fruit-like bulge’
    - common in cerebral arteries
  2. Fusiform
    - whole circumference of artery dilates due to AS plaque with inflammation weakening the arterial wall
  3. Dissecting
    - plaque ruptures in middle, blood rushes inside splitting wall into 2 layers (blood between tunica intima and media)
    - common in aorta; blood enters ruptured plaque
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the complications of atherosclerosis?

A
  • ischaemia/infarction of organ supplied
  • progressive block
  • thrombosis/thromboembolism
  • aneurysm
  • rupture –> haemorrhage
  • MACROANGIOPATHY
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis?

A
  1. Endothelial injury
  2. LDL entry and oxidation in intima
  3. Oxidised LDL causes adhesion and entry of monocytes/T-cells across endothelium via pro-inflammatory mediators
  4. Monocytes –> macrophages which consume large amounts of LDL –> Foam cells
  5. Foam cells release cytokines which cause inflammation and smooth muscle cell/fibroblast proliferation –> fibrous cap formation
20
Q

Compare the 2 types of plaques

A

Unstable Plaque (10%):

  • large lipid core
  • severe inflammation (IFN-gamma) –> M1
  • thin fibrous cap
  • low SMC
  • rapid change
  • pain at rest (unstable angina)

Stable Angina (90%):

  • small lipid core
  • low inflammation (IL-4/IL-13) –> M2
  • thick fibrous cap
  • high SMC
  • slow progressive
  • pain on exertion (stable angina)
21
Q

True or False?

Unstable plaque cannot regress back to stable plaque

A

False

  • atheroma plaque = balance between inflammation and healing
  • increased inflamm. = unstable
  • increased healing = stable
  • with modifications of risk factors, unstable plaque can –> stable (and vice versa)
22
Q

What are the 2 pathways of macrophage activation?

A
  1. Classic Path
    - Th1 –> IFN-gamma –> M1
  2. Alternate Path
    - Th2 –> IL-4/IL-13 –> M2
23
Q

Where does plaque accumulation start in BVs and why?

A

At the bifurcation of arteries

- due to increased trauma here from blood hitting this area with increased force

24
Q

What are the risk factors for atherosclerosis?

A
  1. Non-modifiable
    - age, male, family history, genetics
  2. Modifiable
    - hyperlipidemia, HTN, smoking, DM, lifestyle
  3. Additional
    - CRP, hyperhomocysteinemia, metabolic syndrome, pro-coagulants
25
What are the clinical manifestations associated with unstable plaque?
- unstable angina - acute MI - sudden cardiac death
26
What is the earliest microscopic feature in atheroma formation?
Foam cells
27
Outline gross and microscopic changes to heart post-MI
``` Gross: <4hrs - none 4-12hrs - occasional dark mottling 12-24hrs - dark mottling 1-3days - mottling + yellow tan centre 3-7days - pale/yellow centre with hemorrhagic border 7-10days - max. yellow tan + red margins 1-3wks - red-grey depressed borders, thin (loss of tissue mass) >3wks - small silvery white scar ``` Micro: <4hrs - none (loss of LDH/glycogen - special stain*) 4-12hrs - oedema, hemorrhage, beginning of necrosis 12-24hrs - coagulative necrosis, contraction bands, oedema, hemorrhage, neutrophils, pyknosis of nuclei 1-3days - necrosis, loss of nuclei, interstitial neutrophils 3-7days - dead myocytes, dying neutrophils, phagocytosis by macrophages 7-10days - macrophages, granulation tissue 1-3wks - no muscle, new BVs, granulation, fibroblasts (collagen), macrophages >3wks - dense fibrosis (collagen scar), NO inflammation
28
What is granulation tissue?
Collective term for structure composed of new BVs and collagen fibres formed in the healing process approximately 7-10 days post-MI
29
When is the most dangerous time during healing post-MI for rupture of ventricular walls to occur and why?
Between 3-7days -macrophages are present and begin phagocytosing dead debris (neutrophils and dying myocytes) --> thus potentially thinning the wall to the point of rupture --> CARDIAC TAMPONADE
30
What is Metabolic Syndrome X?
Collection of disorders that occur together and increase the risk of developing T2DM and CVD. Dx. is made when a person has >/= 3 of: - central obesity - HTN - increased triglycerides - increased LDLs/decreased HDLs - increased BSLs
31
Where do coronary arteries arise from and when do they receive blood supply?
- from behind the the cusps of aortic valve | - receive blood during DIASTOLE, from L+R coronary sinuses
32
What are gross and microscopic features of chronic IHD?
Gross: - LV dilatation and hypertrophy - myocardium will show multiple grey-white scars (old MIs) - evidence of atherosclerosis - patchy white scars in endothelium --> mural thrombi Micro: - myocyte hypertrophy and vacuolisation - fibrosis
33
What is the commonest cause of clinical angina?
Decreased coronary blood flow (90%) | -90% of this is atherosclerosis
34
What are contraction bands and when do they occur?
- bright, eosinophilic bands of condensed contractile proteins that run at right angles to the long axis of the cardiac myocyte - occur after acute MI (12-24hrs)
35
What are the stages of AS plaques?
Foam cells --> fatty streak --> intermediate lesion --> atheroma --> fibrous plaque --> complicated lesion/rupture
36
What is cystic medial degeneration?
- elastic fibre degeneration - small cyst-like spaces of necrosis in media - commonest pathogenesis of aortic aneurysms - caused by atherosclerosis - separation of media tissue by elastic fragmentation forming cleft-like spaces in media
37
What is IHD?
Primarily a consequence of inadequate coronary perfusion relative to myocardial demand --> angina pectoris
38
What % of the coronary artery is required to be occluded to cause symptoms?
- <70% = asymptomatic - >70% = critical stenosis (symptomatic on exertion - stable angina) - >90% = symptomatic at rest - unstable angina
39
What is collateral perfusion?
Remodelling of coronary vessels over time to provide compensatory blood flow for at-risk areas
40
After how long does loss of function and necrosis occur with lack of O2?
loss of function --> 1-2mins | necrosis --> 20-40mins
41
What is the pathogenesis of ischaemic pain in cell injury/inflammation?
-decreased oxidative phosphorylation = decreased ATP = increased anaerobic glycolysis = increased lactic acid = decreased pH --> PAIN
42
What are the CXR findings of cardiac failure?
``` A - alveolar bat wings B - kerley B lines C - cardiothoracic ratio > 50% D - dilated upper lobe vessels E - pleural effusion ```
43
What is Nutmeg liver?
Passive venous congestion of liver, characteristic of RHF
44
Give examples of ischaemic vs. non-ischaemic causes of cardiac pain.
Ischaemic: - stable angina - unstable angina - MI Non-ischaemic: - myocarditis - pericarditis - aortic dissection
45
Outline management process for ACS pts.
M - morphine/fentanyl (analgesia) O - oxygen if hypoxic N - nitrates if pain not controlled by opioids A - aspirin ASAP L - leads (ECG) I - IV access + blood tests taken (cardiac markers) S - streptokinase (+ other thrombolytics) A - anti-platelet therapy as required *Re-perfusion Tx. if pts. present within 12hrs of symptom onset