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BVMS Module 4 > Week 2 > Flashcards

Week 2 Flashcards

1
Q

toxoplasma?

A

is a disease that results from infection with the Toxoplasma gondii parasite, one of the world’s most common parasites.
causes economic burden, health and welfare, zoonoitic infections, death of livestock etc

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2
Q

name some major protozoan parasites in the UK?

A

Mastigophora, coccidia piroplasmida
Leishmania eimeria theileria
trypanosoma Isopora. babesia

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3
Q

what is Toxoplasma Gondii?

A

T. gondii - cause of abortion + terminated mortiaaluty in sheep, 2nd most causes in UK

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4
Q

Life cycle of T.gondii?

A

cat = final host
cat ingested infected intermediate host ➡️ bradyzocyte lives in tissue cyst of intermediate ➡️ intermediate host ruptures in cat gut ➡️ bradyzocyte released, rapidly invades epithelium cells of gut ➡️ asexua reproduction, sexual reproductive including MACROGAMETE AND MICROGAMETE. ➡️ infected cel ruptures in MICROGAMETES. ➡️ multiply Moto-microgamayes find female macrogametes and produce a zygote. ➡️ leading to a oocyst, relesed into faeces and SPORULATION occurs in faeces 1-5days @ 25degrees.

intermediate host then infected by oocysts

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5
Q

what are bradyzocyte in T.gondii?

A

are quiescent parasites formed in intracellular tissue cysts found within muscle cells and within cells of the central nervous system

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6
Q

what is Sporulation?

A

formation of nearly dormant forms of bacteria . In a limited number of bacteria, spores can preserve the genetic material of the bacteria when conditions are inhospitable.

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7
Q

describe ovine toxoplasmosis pathology?

A

acute disease - tachyzoites resulting in necrosis of organs

immuno-competent host infected unnoticed signs of pyrexia + lymphadenopathy.

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8
Q

what is a tachyzoite?

A

tachos = fast) refer to the rapidly growing life stage of T. gondii that has also been called endozoites or trophozoites

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9
Q

what is a Bradyzoites?

A

brady = slow), also called cystozoites, are the life stage found in the tissue cyst and are believed to replicate slowly.

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10
Q

describe ovine abortionn + perinatal mortality?

A

first 50/55 days - death rates of barren ewes higher than expected
50-120 days - premature birth of still borne accompanied with brown mummified fortis before expected
late gestation - lamb infected but clinically fine

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11
Q

epidemiology of ovine toxoplasmosis?

A

speed by CAT - infected by ingestion of infected rodent,

cats shed oocysts, transimison to sheep via feed, sporulated oocysts.

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12
Q

describe some public health problems with T.gondii?

A

ZOONOTIC disease!!
under cooked meat, 3-4 week turn around,
pregnant woman disease can result in death

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13
Q

what is Neospora caninum?

A

causes abortion in cattle, not ZOONOTIC

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14
Q

describe the life cycle of Neopora caninum?

A

immune response causes ➡️ bradyzocytes in tissue to rupture cysts ➡️ due to dogs eat infected tissue ➡️ sexual phase of CC in dogs from feed ➡️ ingestion of oocysts ➡️ sporozoites released + invade gut cells ➡️ trachyzoites replicate intracellular ➡️ immune response

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15
Q

describe the pathology in cattle with Neospora caninum?

A

no real symptoms in cattle during pregnancy
re-activation of bradyzoites @ pregnancy
trachyzoutes cross placenta + infect foetus

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16
Q

describe the epidemeoly of Neospora caninum in cattle?

A

infection can be re-activated when pregnant - calves infected - can occur over many pregnancies
60-80% transmission via vertical route - major route

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17
Q

how is Neospora caninum diagnosed?

A

commercial ELISA test - detect Ab in herd.

detect bradyzoites/trachyoxites in foetal tissue

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18
Q

what are the main comic loses form Neospora caninum?

A 
aborted cattle foetuses = 12.5-26%
USA 24%
global casts = $1 billion
no VACCINE
control is diffucult
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19
Q

what is coccidia?

A

wide spread in enviormet, many different species infected
coccidia = subclass
eimeriidae = family
eimeria = genera
species - host-specific, only infect single host.

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20
Q

describe the life cycle of Coccidia?

A

schizogony - mature into Merozoites in gut and move onto gametogeny (sexual reproduction) microgametes and macrogametes produce a zygote = oocyst which sporulates in species.
oocyst then matures and 4 sporozoites and produced into 2 trophozoites which grown into schizogony.

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21
Q

describe the pathogenies of coccidia?

A 
destruction of gut epitltial cells 
villous supply
malabsorption of nutrients - loss of eggs production in poultry. 
diarrhoea 
haemorrhage into lumen of intestine
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22
Q

Diagnoses of Coccidia?

A
  1. appearance of birds - sick birds - bundle together
    eyes ofter closed
    dropping wings
  2. abnormal faeces - diaherreoa - blood in faeces - mucous
  3. laboratory detection in oocytes in faeces - sporulated oocyst.
  4. PM on brid - anaemic appearance of internal organs gut appercne, location of lesions.
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23
Q

describe epidemiology of coccidia?

A

age, prevois exposure, genetics, diet,

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24
Q

how is coccidia controlled?

A

ANTICOCCIDIALS
prophylactic - continue feed, 4-6 month drug change,
therapeutic - usually given in water
vaccination available aswell

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25
Q

describe bovine coccidiosis?

A

infection not always clinically diseased, low infective dose, generally younger animals but also stressed adults, thigh morbidity/ low mortitliry

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26
Q

describe bovine coccidiosis diganosis and control?

A

faecal oocysts
control - avoid overcrowding, calving gets waterlogged
Drug treatment - ampororlim, sulfaqualine, toltrazorail, lasalocid, monsisa etc

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27
Q

describe coccidia in sheep?

A

effects ileum, caecum, upper colon.
clinical signs - diarrhoea, failure to thrive, dehydration , fever, anaemia.
young animals - lambs 1-2 months,
triplets - reduced amount of colostrum, stress poor, severe weather, conconrteated infections.

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28
Q

diagnosis n control of sheep coccidia.?

A

similar to bovine, number of oocyst, history and clinical signs.
Control - dry bedding, clean enviroment.

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29
Q

what is Isospora (cytoisopra)

A

intestinal disease caused by the coccidian parasite Cystoisospora belli it is a parasite picked up from soil.

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30
Q

life cycle of Isopora?

A

host ingested sporulated oocyst, ruptures, infects epithiulum gut cells many routes of infection, produces Hypnozoites, becomes infected.

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31
Q

what are Hypnozoites?

A

dormant forms in the life cycles of certain parasitic protozoa that belong to the Phylum Apicomplexa (Sporozoa

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32
Q

what is Isopora sois?

A

Isopora in Pigs, mainly piglets, 15-20% of piglets get it, 10 day scour (dairrehor) mortality <20%

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33
Q

how many oocysts are needed for infection of Isopora sois?

A

<100 oocyst needed, infected piglets excrete>100000 occults per gram of faeces, so its very easy to catch.

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34
Q

What is cryptosporidium?

A

emeria family, 1902 discovered Ernest tyzzer,
ZOONOTIC disease,
destruction of gut epithelial cells, villus atrophy
Transmission; faeces, oral water transmission

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35
Q

name the clinical signs of cryptosporidium?

A

difficult to detect oocysts in unstained faecal samples due to small size, Acid - fast staining technique used to see.
not seen with pathogens, range of entropathogens

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36
Q

describe the epidemiology of cryptosporidium?

A

oocysts sporulate in host so infection can spread, water/feed borne infection, oocyst very resistant, adults become immune

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37
Q

what is the infection dose of cryptosporidium?

A

1000 oocyst = 100% infection

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38
Q

how is cryptosporidium able to spread to humans?

A

slurry direct contamination, water sources, food fruiting, farms/vets, leisure farms etc

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39
Q

describe the difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

A 
prokaryotes = bacteria and are Gram POSITIVE
eukaryotes = animal cells and are GRAM NEGATIVE
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40
Q

describe the structure of Bacteria?

A

no membrane bound nucleus, DNA withOUT histones, many plasmids, no mitochondria, no chloroplasts, contains flagella, no ER, no Golgi app, 70s Ribosomes,

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41
Q

name the most common bacteria shapes?

A 
Coccus - round, circular
Rob/bacillus - long, round (like kidney)
Vibrio - similar to Rob
Spirillum - spiral shape 
Spiroochete - spiral shape
Branching filaments - long branched
42
Q

describe bacteria chromosomes?

A

single closed circular DNA, highly condensed, histone like ‘protein’ present, plasmids may be present

43
Q

describe the structure of ribosomes in bacteria?

A

30S + 40S = 70S
S = Svedberg
polysomes = stings of ribosomes

44
Q

describe the Bacterial Cell wall?

A

peptidoglycan - strength and ridity to cell, polymer of NAG-NAM tetra peptide, cross linked, cause ‘shock’ if gets into bloodstream (sepsis)

45
Q

how does penicillin work on bacteria?

A

destroys cell wall of bacteria, inactivates enzyme for cross linking of cell wall.
enzyme = transpeptidase or peniciilin binding protein.

It accepts the penicillin as a substate, alkanolates a nucleophilic oxygen of the enzyme, rending it inactive, cell lyses and dies, cross linking is prevented.

46
Q

what is Gram Stain?

A
  1. shape
  2. atmospheric requirements for repsiration
  3. presense of spores
  4. gram stain

gram stain depends on cell wall structure, amount of peptidoglycan.
Gram positive + gram negative have different susceptibles to antibiotic.

47
Q

describe the gram positive cell wall?

A

contains a very thick wall due yo peptidoglycan layer, Teichoic acid binds lipteichoic acid together. Plasma membrane sits underneath peptidoglycan.

48
Q

describe gram negative cell wall?

A

very thin cell wall - outer membrane - periplasmic space - plasma membrane
thin cell wall due to no peptidoglycan layer.
bilayer - outer to LPS (lipopolysaccharide)
inner is plasma membrane
excludes hydrophilic

49
Q

what is Lipopolysaccharide? (LPS)

A

only found in gramNEGATIVE bacteria - 3 regions
Lipid A, Core, O side chain
Lipid A = shock if into bloodstream(endotoxic shock)
if it has a long O side chain = salmonella
if has a short O side chain = respiratory, haemophilia diseases.

50
Q

describe flagellated bacterium?

A

allows movement of bacteria,

most bacteria have them, require ATP for movement

51
Q

name the four different types of flagellum?

A

Monotrichous - single
Ampitrichous - one or more at each end
Lophotrichous - two or more at one end
Pertrichous - flagella surrounded cell

52
Q

what are endospores?

A

tough, dormant, non-reporuding structure produced by phylum Firmicutes, spore shaped.
Gram positives produce them, extremely resistant to pH , heat, etc.
large amounts of calcium.

53
Q

what is Acid Fast bacteria? (AFBs)

A

gram postive-like. tough, waxy cell wall.

resists staining, decoloaurings. even in acid.

54
Q

what are mycobacteria?

A

contains mycelia acid + waxD

very acid fast.

55
Q

what are mycoplasmas?

A

molecules, smallest free-living organisms,

lack a cell wall, no peptidoglycan, contains cholesterol ion cell membrane, unusual genetic code.

56
Q

what is chlamydia?

A

obligate intercellular pathogens, small gram negative - cell wall lacks peptidoglycan. contain LPS

57
Q

describe fungi?

A

eukaryotic cell, uni or multicellular organism, defined nuclei. thick cell wall, mostly carbohydrate.
3 main types; yeast filamentous fungi, dimorphic fungi.

58
Q

describe yeast?

A

unicellular, grow by binary fission, budding, sometimes dont operate

59
Q

describe filamentous fungi?

A

multicellular, basic unit is the Hypha, growth occurs at hyphae tip
all cytoplasm are connected.

60
Q

describe dimorphic fungi?

A

Able to switch between yeast and mycelium fungi. depends on environment for fungi.
yeast is pathogenic (37degrees)
mycelium is saprophytic (25degrees)

61
Q

describe bacterial pathogens?

A

primary - always a pathogen
secondary - more likely to cause disease once prepared by another pathogen
opportunistic - dont normal cause infection but can if host is compromised.

62
Q

define pathogenesis?

A

processes or mechanisms of disease devolvement.

63
Q

define virulence?

A

measure of capacity to damage or kill host

64
Q

define infectivity?

A

reflects ability or organism to enter, colonise + survive in the host.

65
Q

define virulence factor?

A

component of bacteria that is involved in pathogenies + virulence.

66
Q

how is virulence multifactorial?

A

requires both pathogens to occur. if only one pathogen is present then disease will not occur eg) tox and KBB both need to be present for severe diarrhoea to occur r

67
Q

describe the life cycle of bacteria pathogens?

A

bacterial adhesion - host tissues, pathogen mucosal surfaces.
recognition of PAMPs and PRRs

68
Q

describe PRRs

A

PRRs - should benefit for survial of bacteria host at present.

69
Q

how does extracellular v intracellular lifecycle differ in bacteria pathogens?

A

after colonisation entry - extracellular pathogen: attachment ➡️ resist pathogenesis ➡️resist action of complement ➡️ acquire nutrients
Intracellular pathogen: attachment ➡️ invasion ➡️resist intracellular destruction ➡️ acquire nutrients.

70
Q

name the 4 extracellular pathogen strategies?

A

common virulence factor
exotoxins
DNAse
Iron and infection

71
Q

describe common virulence factor in extracellular pathogens?

A 
adhesions 
anti-phagocytic factors
anti-complement 
capsules - usually acidic polysaccharides 
anti-phagocytic.
72
Q

describe exotoxins in extracellular pathogens?

A

pathogenic bacteria secrete toxins that effect phagocytes.

help lyse RBCs in vitro - haemolysis

73
Q

what is mannheimia haemolytica leukotoxin?

A

acts on leukocytes from ruminants

damage to neutrophils leads to release of tissue detsoyting enzymes also platelets.

74
Q

what is DNAse?

A

neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs)

pathogenic staphs and streps secrete DNAse to escape NETs

75
Q

describe iron + infection?

A

source of Fe essential for bacteria,
extracellular iron is bonded to host iron binding protein, Transferrin, Tf-serum
Lactoferrin Lf-mucoail surfaces and neutrophils.

76
Q

describe the intracellular pathogen strategies?

A

invade cells, modify intracellular environment, counter intracellular defences,
acquire nutrients
able to survive in macrophages,
eg) salmonella, brucella sp etc.

77
Q

give an example of an intercellular pathogen that can survive?

A

cisteria = is motile within cells, able to push into other cells, without leaving its own cells
tetanus toxin, exfoliate toxin

78
Q

what are worms?

A

nematodes, cestodes/tapeworms, trematodes or flukes.

79
Q

describe nematodes?

A

most important, free living, adaptable, both parasites and worms in humans/animals
roundworms - live in G.I, direct LIFE CYCELS (lamb to lamb)
some are indirect life cycles - two hosts, intermediate hosts present (IMH) essential for life cycle

80
Q

describe the Dog heart worm?

A

adults worms mate ➡️ produce microfilae in blood (L1) ➡️ mosquitoes ingest MF ➡️ devopl L3 in intermediate.➡️ Dog become sinfecte day mosquito ➡️ L3- L4 in dog.

81
Q

describe Hookworms?

A

penetrate skin, cause anaemia in children,

Blood suckling occurs in S.I production of anti-coagulants that inhibit blood clotting.

82
Q

how are helminth infections controlled?

A

human hookworm vaccination initiative (HHVI) aim: to produce recombinant vaccine to prevent infection, helminths are multicellular + complex

83
Q

describe the vaccine against hookworms?

A

Ag located in gut of worm,
immunisation provokes an antibody response
hookworms feed on blood coating Ab to gut Ag
Ab binds to surface of gut + inhibit digestion of blood,
worm starved + lay fewer eggs

84
Q

describe the worms and their hosts connection?

A

worms co-evoleved with host, major driver of immune response.
induce anti-inflammatory response, worm infections are chronic.

85
Q

name the important cestodes in GIT?

A 
Tapeworm
Taenia seginata
Taenia Solium
Echinococcus granulassi granulosa
Dipylidium cranium
86
Q

describe the tapeworm life cycle?

A

adult worms in S.I ➡️ gravid segments shed worm and pass out into faeces ➡️ contain eggs resistant ➡️ ingested by IMH ➡️ emybro released from egg in IMH ➡️ larvae settlers down and encysts ➡️ cysts ingested dub final host latches on SI

87
Q

name some zoonotic worms?

A

Taenia sagniata
taenia sodium
Echinoccic armolosis

88
Q

life cycle fo Taenia seginata?

A

adult in S.I ➡️ passes million of eggs per god in gravid segment ➡️ ingested by susceptible bovine ➡️ emybro release in abdomen ➡️ travels to skeletal muscle and encysts ➡️Cysticercus bovis IMH (human beef tapeworm) ➡️ after 12 weeks ➡️ uncovered meat eaten bu humans.

89
Q

how is Tania seginata diagnosed?

A

meat inspection + basis of diagnosis + control

inspection: masseyter heart tongue, interracial + diahpgram

90
Q

how is Tania saginata controlled?

A

prevent cattle infection, do not allows cattle to graze for 2 years on pasture.
human - meat inspectionm, cook meat properly.

91
Q

what is Taenia Solium?

A

final host - human
IMH - pig/human.
life cycle is very similar to Taenia Saginata
eggs are infective for humans.

92
Q

describe the pathology of taenia solium?

A

little found in S.I, often cysts in CNS or eyes,

major in Latin America!

93
Q

describe the epidemiolgy of taenia solium?

A

close association with man and pig, poor/no meat inspection, rise to infection

94
Q

how is taenia solium controlled?

A

pig controlling, mass inspection, VACCINATION of pigs now avaviable.

95
Q

what economic loss does Tapeworn have?

A

£5 million due to c.ovis in 0.78% in sheep

96
Q

describe Echinococcus granulosis granuloma?

A

final host = dogs
IMH = sheep
ZOONOTIC in UK

97
Q

lifecycle iof E.g.granulosis?

A

adults in S.I ➡️ gravid segments contains eggs shed ➡️ ingested by IMH ➡️ emybros released penetrates S’I wall ➡️ forms hydrated gut in IMH liver/lungs ➡️ cyst ingested by fnal host

98
Q

describe the epidemeoly go e.g.granulosis?

A

DOG, FH becomes infected by feeding on fallen stock, sheep become infect by ingestion of eggs

99
Q

describe the pathogenies of E.g.granulosis?

A

well tolerated in IMH, hydrated gut usually detached in abattoir, ZOONOTIC - sheep farm area mainly, coat of dogs etc.

100
Q

what are Hydatid cyst?

A

forms in IMH - if contents get spill on removed get secondary cyst, Hydatid sand - protoscolues of leads of future tapeworms.

101
Q

what is Dipylidium caninum?

A

common in strays, fleas and mice = IMH
active mollie segments
need to treat ectoparasites as wells adult tapeworm.

102
Q

life cycle of Dipylidium caninum

A

adult in S.I ➡️ 3 weeks gravid segments shed ➡️ eggs ingested by flea ➡️ cysticercoid in haemocaol by flea ➡️ ingestion of flea by dog/cat

BVMS Module 4 (3 decks)

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