Week 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the five different letter prefixes to indicate the reference sequence used?

A
g - Genomic 
c - Coding 
n - Noncoding
r - RNA
p - protein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

All variants should be described in relation to an accepted reference sequence from where?

A

NCBI/EBI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the 3’ rule?

A

For all the descriptions the most 3’ position possible of the reference sequence is arbitrarily assigned to have been changed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What order should the full standard nomenclature follow?

A
  • HGNC Official Gene Symbol
  • Reference sequence
  • Single letter prefix
  • Position with the base change
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If we are using genomic reference sequence; 1 would be what nucleotide?

A

The first nucleotide of the file

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

If we are using coding reference sequence; 1 would be of what nucleotide?

A

The A of the ATG start codon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why is the coding DNA preferred as a reference?

A

Because there is no need to deal with introns and the numbers don’t go so high so it is less complicated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If there is repeated sequences and there is a change which one is recorded as changed?

A

Assume the most 3’ repeat has changed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How are bases before ATG denoted in coding DNA?

A

They go into minus number, the first base before ATG would be -1 and the second would be -2 and so on…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How are bases after the stop codon denoted?

A

One after the stop codon would be 1* and the second 2* and so on…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How would you write a substitutions of a base from A to C at position 320

A

c.320A>C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How would you write a deletion a base A at position 210?

A

c.210delA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How would you write a duplication of T at position 25?

A

c.25dupT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How would you write an insertion between position 125 and 126 of a G?

A

c.125_126insG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What represents a stop codon?

A
  • at the end or Ter at the end
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is star allele nomenclature?

A

Alleles arnt identified by their cDNA or genomic position, rather through the means or numbers and letters, separated from the gene name by the star.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the advantages of star allele nomenclature?

A
  • One star allele can be used to identify a group of variants.
  • Faster and easier for non-specialised professional in identifying important phamacogenomic alleles.
    Could help transcription mistakes which may be more frequent using HGVS nomenclature.
18
Q

Problem with star allele nomenclature

A
  • A major obstacle is the complexity of nomenclature systems.
  • Genetic test interpretations should be uniform regardless of the lab.
19
Q

Rule 1 of star allele nomenclature

A

Prove an allele has pharmacogenomic relevance from an allele group, where it segregates together with other neutral alleles.

20
Q

Rule 2 or the star allele nomenclature

A

To identify groups of functional alleles, the number of the most powerful allele is always used, followed by a letter.
So the other variants will be for example *2A and *2B.

21
Q

What is Pharmacodynamics?

A

Is the drug action and mechanism

22
Q

What is Pharmacokinetics?

A

Is how the body metabolises the drugs.

23
Q

When drugs are metabolised what are the products?

A

Inactive Excretion products; urine and bile, and Toxic Intermediates.

24
Q

What are the possible results of phase 1 metabolism?

A
  • Drug becomes inactive.
  • One or more of the metabolites are pharmacologically active, but less than the original drug.
  • Original substance is not pharmacologically active. The original substance is called prodrug
25
Q

Why are the Cytochrome p450 enzymes important in phase 1 metabolism?

A
  • Responsible for degradation and elimination of drugs.
  • Superfamily of
    mono-oxygenases
  • use haem iron to oxidise molecules, often making them more water-soluble for clearance.
26
Q

Information on Cytochrome P450’s

A
  • There are aproximately 60 cytochrome P450 genes in humans.
  • 70-80% enzymes involved in drug metabolism are CP450.
  • Primarily found in liver cells
  • Located in endoplasmic reticulum and the mitochondria.
27
Q

Phase 2 metabolism

A

Involves reactions that chemically change the drug/P1 metabolites into soluble (adding polar group) compounds enough to be excreted in urine.
Metabolites are likely to be inactive.

28
Q

Differences in drug metabolism can account for differential response to drugs, How ?

A

Differences in drug metabolism can be caused by genetic variants…

29
Q

What can CYP2D6 (Cytochrome P450 D6) metabolising enzyme effect?

A

Beta-blockers
Tricyclic antidepressants
Codeine metabolism

30
Q

What are the types of metabolisers?

A
  • Ultra rapid metaboliser
  • Extensive metaboliser
  • Intermediate metaboliser
  • Poor metaboliser
31
Q

Types of drugs

A

Prodrugs
- Codeine
Active drug
- Warefarin

32
Q

Opioid drugs

A

Morphine is an effective analgesic for acute and chronic pain
Other effect:
euphoria, respiratory destress, depression of cough reflex, Nausea and vomiting.
Opioids are any substance that produce morphine like effects - Synthetic and endogenous.

33
Q

What is the mechanism of action of opioids?

A
  • Bind to the opiate receptors in the CNS.
  • pain relief through mu.
  • Decreases activity of adenylyl cyclase, decreasing cAMP.
  • Increase in the efflux of K+ and cellular hyper-polarisation and a decrease in the influx of Ca++ and lower intracellular concentrations of free Ca++
34
Q

What are the four subtypes of opiate receptors?

A

mu, delta, epsilon and kappa

35
Q

Codine

A
  • Prodrug, weakly binds to the mu opioid receptor.
  • Undergo o-demethylation by CYP2D6 to morphine to exert opioid activity
  • Only 5-10% of coding is metabolised to morphine
36
Q

CYP2D6 and codeine metabolism

A
  • CYP2D6 gene is highly polymorphic, with more than 100 star (*) alleles described
  • Inadequate pain relief in poor metabolisers because of reduced morphine levels.
37
Q

Who shouldn’t take prescriptions Codeine or Tramadol?

A
  • Children younger than age 12
  • Mother who are breastfeeding
  • Children younger than age 18 following surgery to remove tonsils and/or adenoids.
38
Q

Tramadol

A

Synthetic opioid, related to codeine

  • Post-operative pain, and pain caused by cancer.
  • Some activity at mu-opioid AND it also inhibits the synaptic reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine which inhibits pain transmission at the spinal cord
39
Q

Tramadol metabolism

A
  • O-desmethyltramadol, known as M1
  • Tramadol and M1 contribute to the analgesic effect.
  • M1 has significantly higher affinity for opioid receptors than tramadol.
  • CYP2D6 catalyses the production of M1.
  • CYP2B6 and CYP3A4 catalyse the production of M2, an inactive metabolite.
40
Q

Thiopurines

A
  • Used for treatment of inflammatory and autoimmune disease, leukaemia.
  • Prevent rejection post organ transplant.
41
Q

Side effects of thiopurines

A
  • Life threatening bone marrow suppression
  • Hepatotoxicity
  • Nausea and vomiting pancreatitis
42
Q

What turns thiopurines in to their inactive form?

A

TPMT- turns into non-toxic forms, Phase II