Week 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the main components of innate immunity?

A
Soluble Factors:
- antibacterial factors
- complement system
Cellular Factors:
- scavenger phagocytes
  - neutrophils
  - macrophages
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the main antibody isotypes?

A

IgM: main antibody of primary response
IgG: main antibody of secondary response
IgA: present in secretions and lines epithelial surfaces
IgE: high affinity binding to mast cells (role in allergy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the general structure of antibodies?

A
  • Fab region: antigen binding region
  • Light chains
  • Heavy chain (longer)
  • Fc region: binds to Fc receptors on phagocytes, activates complement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the function of antibodies?

A
  • Opsonise for phagocytosis
  • Activate complement for lysis
  • Neutralise toxins and pathogen binding sites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the main differences between class I and II MHC?

A
  • Class I presents to CD8 T cells, class II to CD4
  • Class I presents intra-cellular antigen, class II extracellular
  • Class II found on APCs, class I on all nucleated cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is type 1 hypersensitivity?

A

Immediate, atopic reaction mediated by IgE binding to mast cells
Mast cell degranulation of;
- histamine (smooth muscle contraction)
- proteinase
- cytokines, chemokines, PGs (smooth muscle contraction) and leukotrienes (pro-inflammatory)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is anaphylaxis?

A
  • Severe, systemic type 1 hypersensitivity
  • Widespread mast cell degranulation caused by systemic exposure to antigen (e.g. penicillin)
  • Vascular permeability is principal immediate danger
  • Can be rapidly fatal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are type 2 and 5 hypersensitivity?

A
  • Caused by binding of ABs directed against human cells (IgG usual cause)
  • Common cause of autoimmune disease
  • Steps:
    • sensitisation
    • opsonisation of cells (as cells are different, no longer recognised as self)
    • cytotoxicity (complement, inflammation-> tissue destruction)
  • Type V is direct activation with receptor/antigen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is type 3 hypersensitivity?

A
  • Mediated by immune complexes bound to soluble antigen

- AB complexes aggregate in small blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is type 4 hypersensitivity?

A

Lymphocytes infiltrate area and cause injury several days after (contact dermatitis- contact alters cells so no longer recognised as self-antigen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What causes rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • Inflammation leads to release of PAD from inflammatory cells
  • Alters variety of proteins by converting alanine to citrulline
  • Hence inflammation as proteins no longer recognised as self
  • Inflammatory pannus aggregates in joints
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the systemic effects of RA?

A
  • Pulmonary nodules and fibrosis
  • Pericarditis and valvular inflammation
  • Small vessel vasculitis
  • Soft tissue nodules
  • Skin inflammation
  • Weight loss, anaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is disease?

A

Loss of (normal) homeostasis, and a combination of the causative agent and the body’s response to it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are broad categories of disease?

A

MEDIC HAT PINE

  • Metabolic
  • Endocrine
  • Degenerative
  • Inflammatory
  • Congenital
  • Haematological
  • Autoimmune
  • Trauma
  • Psychological
  • Idiopathic/Iatrogenic
  • Neoplastic
  • Environmental
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the broad causes of cell injury?

A
  • Physical agents
  • Chemicals/drugs
  • Infections
  • Hypoxia/ischaemia
  • Immunological reactions
  • Nutritional imbalance
  • Genetic disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is reversible cell injury?

A
  • Changes due to stress in environment

- Return to normal once stimulus removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is irreversible cell injury?

A
  • Permanent
  • Cell death, usually necrosis, follows
  • Threshold between reversible and irreversible
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Give examples of reversible cell injury:

A
  • “Cloudy swelling” is osmotic disturbance, loss of energy-dependent Na pump leads to Na influx and build up of intracellular metabolites
  • Cytoplasmic blebs, disrupted microvilli and swollen mitochondria
  • “Fatty change”: accumulation of lipid vacuoles in cytoplasm caused by disruption of fatty acid metabolism, especially in liver
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the broad mechanisms of cell injury?

A

Damage to:

  • mitochondria: disrupted aerobic respiration/ATP synthesis
  • cell membrane: disrupted ion concentrations, esp. increases Ca2+ ions
  • cytoplasm including ribosomes: disrupted enzyme and structural protein synthesis and architecture
  • nucleus: disrupted DNA maintenance and DNA damage
  • oxidative stress: caused by reactive oxygen species, formed pathologically by absorption of radiation, toxic chemicals, hypoxia and damage made more likely by lack of antioxidants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is necrosis?

A

Unprogrammed cell death following injury due to external stimuli. Always pathological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the histological changes upon cell necrosis

A
  • Cell swelling, vacuolation, and disruption of membranes of cell and its organelles including mitochondria, lysosomes and ER
  • Release of cell contents (cell lysis) including enzymes causes adjacent damage and acute inflammation
  • DNA disruption and hydrolysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the types and main features of necrosis?

A

Coagulative:
- firm, tissue outline retained
- haemorrhagic: due to blockage of venous drainage
- gangrenous
Colliquitive:
- tissue becomes liquid and its structure is lost (e.g. infective abscess, cerebral infarct)
Caseous:
- combination of coagulative and colliquitive, appearing “cheese-like”: classical for granulomatous inflammation, especially TB
Fat:
- due to action of lipase on fatty tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are depositions?

A

Abnormal accumulations of substances, located either intra or extracellularly, or in CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe amyloid:

A
  • Organisation of soluble protein fibrils into specific abnormal, insoluble aggregates
  • Can be systemic or localised
  • Occurs due to excessive production/accumulation of a normal protein, production/accumulation of an abnormal protein or tendency of protein to misfold
  • Clinical effects depend on site of deposition (brain = dementia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the two main types of normal protein that forms amyloid?

A
  • AL amyloid
    • immuonglobin light chain
    • produced in B-cell neoplasms
  • AA amyloid
    • serum amyloid associated protein, produced in liver
    • produced in prolonged chronic inflammation (RA)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe pathological calcification:

A
  • Deposition of calcium salts
  • May be:
    • dystrophic (in abnormal tissue with normal serum Ca) or metastatic (deposition on normal tissue with raised serum Ca)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What causes pathological calcification?

A
  • Increased levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH)
  • primary: PT gland tumour
  • secondary: kidney disease
  • May be systemic effect with cancer (most common)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How does vascular dilatation occur?

A
  • Histamine from mast cells, prostaglandins and NO released
  • Arterioles dilate increasing blood flow in response
  • Stasis of blood flow
  • Fluid passes into tissue causing swelling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How does neutrophil activation occur?

A
  • C5a, leukotriene B4, bacterial products accumulate
  • Activation of neutrophils
  • Rolling, adhesion, pass between endothelial cells
  • Chemotaxis
  • Phagocytosis and bactericidal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How does endothelial activation occur?

A
  • 5-HT, histamine, C3a, C5a, bradykinin leukotriene involved
  • Activates vascular endothelium
  • Increased cell adhesion molecules
  • Increased leakiness of endothelium
  • Plasma proteins travel into tissues including immunoglobulins, complement and fibrinogen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Explain the signs of inflammation:

A
  • Redness, caused by increased blood flow (hyperaemia)
  • Swelling, caused by fluid exudate and hyperaemia
  • Heat, caused by hyperaemia
  • Pain, caused by release of bradykinin and PGE2
  • Loss of function, caused by all of above
32
Q

Describe various exudates:

A
  • Neutrophilic exudate
  • supportive/purulent
  • Fibrinous exudate
  • pink strands histologically, contains much fibrin
  • Serous inflammation
  • peritoneal or pleural
33
Q

How may infection spread?

A
  • Breach of natural barriers (through wound in skin)
  • Air borne
  • Blood borne
  • Immune factors (IgA deficiency, loss of defence in airway, diabetes and chronic steroids can also predispose to infection)
34
Q

What are the sequelae of acute inflammation?

A
  • Abscess
  • Resolution
  • Healing by repair
  • Chronic inflammation
35
Q

When does chronic inflammation occur?

A

Results from persisting tissue damage and ongoing acute inflammation (or de novo in viral infection)

36
Q

Describe chronic inflammation:

A
  • Associated with chronic inflammatory cell infiltrate

- Often leads to fibrosis or scarring

37
Q

What is granulomatous inflammation?

A
  • Presence of granulomas- collection of epitheloid macrophages and multinucleate giant cells
  • Subtypes include necrotising, non-necrotising, foreign body granulomas
38
Q

What are the stages of healing?

A

Types of wound/healing:
- primary intention (simple incision)
- secondary intention (dirty/infected wound)
Stages
- granulation tissue
- fibrous scar
(- bone heals by regeneration rather than repair, callus formation)

39
Q

What does a post-mortem involve and demonstrate?

A
  • Can reveal real cause of death when unclear or in criminal cases
  • Involves external examination, internal examination (evisceration, organ dissection (macro and microscopic assessment), return of organs to body, death certificate writing and report prepared by pathologist
40
Q

What disease are usually seen on post-mortem in Scotland?

A

From most to least common,

  • Malignant neoplasm of bronchus and lung
  • Acute MI
  • Chronic ischaemic heart disease
  • COPD
  • Unspecified dementia
  • Pneumonia
  • Stroke
  • Vascular dementia
  • Alzheimer’s disease
  • Sequelae of CVS disease
41
Q

What are the risk factors for DVT?

A
  • Vessel wall
  • increasing age, varicose veins, surgery
  • Blood flow
  • obesity, pregnancy, immobilisation, IV catheters, external vein compression
  • Composition of blood
  • thrombophilias (including family history), inflammatory conditions, oestrogen hormones
42
Q

How is DVT treated?

A
  • Prevent thrombus extending or embolising
  • anticoagulation for 3-6 months
  • Remove risk factors
  • Pain relief
  • Graduated elastic compression stockings
43
Q

How is VTE (DVT) prevented?

A
  • Avoid risk factors if possible
  • Risk assess at hospital admission or surgery
  • Provide thrombo-prophylaxis when appropriate
  • anti-embolism stockings
  • heparin (LMWH daily sub cut)
  • education patients on risks and avoidance measures
44
Q

What is virchow’s triad?

A

3 categories of factors that contribute to thrombosis: hypercoaguable state, vascular wall injury and circulatory stasis

45
Q

What is the difference between arterial and venous thrombosis?

A

Arterial: many platelets, with small amounts of fibrin (reflects high flow)
Venous: many fibrin with trapped red cells (reflects slow flow)

46
Q

How is DVT investigated?

A
  • Clinical score (Wells) indicates likelihood
  • D-dimer test
  • Wells <2 and d-dimer negative suggests very unlikely DVT
  • Other results treated as DVT until confirmed with ultrasound or venography
47
Q

How is MI or acute coronary syndrome diagnosed?

A
  • Suggestive history
  • Clinical evidence of cardiac dysfunction
  • ECG findings
  • Biochemical evidence of myocardial damage (ischaemia)
  • elevated troponin
  • Visualisation of coronary arteries
  • cardiac catheterisation
48
Q

How is acute coronary syndrome treated?

A
  • Prevent thrombus extension
    • anti-platelet agent (aspirin, clopidogrel)
    • anticoagulant (heparin)
  • Remove thrombus
    • thrombolysis (alteplase, tenecteplase)
    • remove clot via catheter (PCI)
  • Widen stenotic plaque
    • balloon angioplasty, insert coronary artery stent
  • Prevent further thrombus
    • anti-platelet agent, statin
49
Q

What are the normal visible structures seen on CXR?

A
  • Trachea
  • Hilum
  • Lungs
  • Diaphragm
  • Heart
  • Aortic knuckle
  • Ribs
  • Scapulae
  • Breasts
  • Stomach
50
Q

What are important invisible or obscured structures on CXR?

A
  • Sternum
  • Oesophagus
  • Spine
  • Fissures
  • Pleura
  • Aorta
51
Q

What is PA projection?

A

Direction of beam is posterior to anterior, standard projection but not always possible

52
Q

Describe AP projection:

A
  • XR penetrate through the front of the patient onto the film
  • Heart appears magnified as it is closer to film
  • All CXR from ICU are AP as patients cannot stand
53
Q

How can you gauge rotation on a CXR?

A

From the angle of the spinous processes

54
Q

What is the silhouette sign?

A

Normal adjacent anatomical; structures of differing densities form a crisp silhouette or contour, loss of this at a specific location can help show position of disease

55
Q

Where are important locations to look for silhouette sign?

A
  • Trachea
  • Hilum
  • Lungs
  • Diaphragm
  • Heart
  • Aortic knuckle
  • Ribs
  • Scapulae
  • Breasts
  • Stomach
  • Apices and costophrenic angles
56
Q

How are specimens handled in pathology labs?

A
  • Removal of tissue, into formalin in surgery
  • Transport to pathology
  • Pathologist examine and trim tissue
  • Tissue fixed in formalin
  • Tissue processing
  • Tissue embedded into wax
  • Tissue blocks sectioned
  • Tissue stained with H&E
  • Tissue examined by pathologist and reported or additional testing requested
57
Q

What steps are involved in tissue processing?

A
  • Dehydration
  • Clearing
  • Wax impregnation
58
Q

What additional tests might be requested after tissue is examined?

A
  • Special stains
  • Immunohistochemical testing
  • Molecular prenanalytical techniques
  • Molecular testing (NGS/FISH)
59
Q

What is the timetable for tissue in pathology labs?

A
  • Urgent < 1 week

- Others < 4 weeks

60
Q

What are special stains used to demonstrate?

A
  • Mucin in epithelial cells for adenocarcinoma classification
  • Normal elastic tissue in vessels
  • Depositions e.g. fibrous tissue, amyloid, iron in hepatocytes
  • Infections
61
Q

What is immunohistochemistry (IHC)?

A
  • Staining technique which yields brown staining of specific proteins
  • Used in tumour diagnosis and classification
62
Q

What is a developmental anomaly?

A

Structural congenital anomaly

63
Q

What is a hamartoma?

A
  • Malformation that may resemble a neoplasm that results from faulty growth in an organ
  • Composed of a mixture of mature tissue elements which would normally be found at the site
64
Q

Describe ventricular septal defect:

A
  • Hole in ventricular septum causes left-to-right shunt of blood
  • Aycanotic initially, but can develop pulmonary resistance leading to the reversal of the shunt and causing cyanosis (deoxygenated blood circulated around the body)
65
Q

What is diverticular disease?

A
  • Circumscribed pouch/sac caused by herniation of lining mucosa of an organ through defect in muscular coat
  • Effects include inflammation, bleeding, perforation and fistulation
  • Chronic inflammation causes fibrosis causing hypertrophy of smooth muscle and can lead to stenosis and colonic obstruction
66
Q

What is intussusception?

A

Part of the intestine folds onto the next section

67
Q

What is Meckel’s diverticulum?

A
  • Congenital
  • Diverticulum at terminal ileum
  • 2 inches long
  • Contains all layers of the intestine and often has ectopic tissue within it (pancreatic/gastric)
  • Complications include inflammation, bleeding (from ulcerated gastric tissue), perforation and obstruction/intussusception
68
Q

Compare hypertrophy and hyperplasia:

A

Hypertrophy is increases in size of cells

  • enlargement is due to an increased synthesis of structural proteins and organelles
  • occurs when cells are incapable of dividing
  • caused by increased functional demand or hormonal stimulation

Hyperplasia is increase in the number of cells

  • adaptive response in cells capable of replication
  • critical response of connective tissue cells in wound healing
  • can be physiological (hormonal or compensatory when part of tissue is removed or diseased) or pathological (excessive signalling)
69
Q

What is atrophy?

A
  • Shrinkage in the size/numbers of the cell by the loss of cell substance
  • Results from decreased protein synthesis and increased protein degradation
  • Causes
    • loss of innervation
    • diminished blood supply
    • inadequate nutrition
    • decreased workload
    • loss of endocrine stimulation
    • ageing (senile atrophy)
70
Q

What is metaplasia?

A
  • Reversible change from one fully differentiated cell type into another
  • Adaption so cells sensitive to a particular stress are replaced by other cells better able to withstand the adverse environment
71
Q

What is a neoplasm?

A
  • An abnormal tissue mass with excessive growth (not physiological) and uncoordinated compared to adjacent normal tissue
  • Persists even after cessation of the stimuli that caused
72
Q

What is the difference between neoplastic and non-neoplastic growths?

A

Neoplastic growths are uncontrolled and irreversible and non-neoplastic growths are controlled and reversible

73
Q

Compare tumours and neoplasms:

A
  • Tumour and neoplasm are not synonymous
  • Tumour is a swelling or lump, but not all swelling are tumours (hamartomas) and not all neoplasms cause swelling (myelofibrosis, leukaemia, some lymphomas
74
Q

What are the differences between benign and malignant neoplasms?

A

Benign

  • a neoplasm that grows without invading adjacent tissue or spreading to distant sites
  • usually well-circumscribed due to the lack of invasions of surrounding tissues

Malignant

  • a neoplasm that invaded the surrounding normal tissue
  • can spread to distant sites (metastasis)
  • usually is not well circumscribed
  • malignant tumour is cancer
75
Q

How are specific tumours defined and classified?

A
  • Benign tumours usually end with suffix -oma (with a few exceptions)
  • Malignant tumours have to be one of the following:
    • carcinoma; epithelial origin
    • sacroma; mesenchymal origin
    • melanoma; melanocytic origin
    • lymphoma; haemopoietic origin
    • germ cell tumours
    • glial tumours
76
Q

How are tumours graded and staged?

A
  • Tumour grade refers to the differentiation of a malignancy: a high grade malignancy is a poorly differentiated cancer
  • Tumour stage refers to how far a tumour has spread/how advanced it is
    • each speciality has its own dataset to stage tumours
77
Q

What is carcinoma in-situ (CIS)?

A
  • Full-thickness epithelial dysplasia extending from the basement membrane to the surface of the epithelium
  • Only epithelial neoplasms can be CIS
  • If entire lesion is no more advanced than CIS then risk of metastasis is low as there are no blood vessels or lymphatics within the epithelium above the basement membrane