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Head, Neck and Neurological Systems > Week 2 > Flashcards

Week 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 2 phases of pain and what fibres are responsible?

A

Quick and sharp - Aδ

Slow and dull - C

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2
Q

What sensory receptors are associated with Aα fibres?

A

Proprioceptors of skeletal muscle

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3
Q

What sensory receptors are associated with Aβ fibres?

A

Mechanoreceptors of skin

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4
Q

What sensory receptors are associated with Aδ fibres?

A

Pain and temperature

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5
Q

What sensory receptors are associated with C fibres?

A

Pain, temperature and itch

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6
Q

What is nociceptive pain?

A

Normal pain elicited only when a noxious stimulus which threatens to damage tissue is evoked
Protective/adaptive
High threshold, limited duration
Transmitted by Aδ and C fibres

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7
Q

What is chronic/clinical pain?

A

Evoked or spontaneous sustained sensory abnormality/peripheral pathology - stimulated by normally innocuous sensation
Maladaptive
Transmitted by Aβ, Aδ and C fibres

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8
Q

What is allodynia?

A

Normally innocuous stimuli perceived as noxious

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9
Q

What do hair follicle afferent receptors respond to?

A

Gentle brushing

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10
Q

What is dermatographia?

A

Condition in which light scratching of the skin causes intense reddening and raising - skin writing

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11
Q

What does the white reaction and triple response demonstrate?

A

Local effects of mild tissue damage

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12
Q

What is the white reaction and triple response?

A

White reaction - initial area of blanching on either side of scratch
Triple response - red reaction, wheal and flare

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13
Q

What is the red reaction, wheal and flare of the triple response?

A

Red reaction - red line at site of injury due to direct vasodilation mediated by histamine (primary hyperalgesia)
Wheal - slight oedema at site around red reaction, mediated by histamine
Flare - surrounding ill-defined erythema due to axon reflex (secondary hyperalgesia)

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14
Q

What mediators are released when tissue is damaged and where from?

A

Tissue damage - K+, prostaglandins
Plasma - bradykinin
Platelets - 5-HT

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15
Q

What mediators are released from axons at the site of tissue damage?

A

Substance P and CGRP which activate mast cells to release histamine

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16
Q

What role do substance P and CGRP play in tissue damage?

A

Substance P - plasma extravasation, oedema, bradykinin release
CGRP - vasodilation

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17
Q

What is ischaemic pain?

A

Pain associated with inadequate blood (and therefore oxygen) supply to active tissues (e.g. angina)

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18
Q

Where does referred pain from the heart radiate?

A

Left shoulder and arm

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19
Q

What laminae do Aδ and C-fibres terminate at in the spinal cord?

A

Laminae I and II

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20
Q

What laminae do Aβ (cutaneous) fibres terminate at in the spinal cord?

A

Laminae III-V

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21
Q

How does the supraspinal loop contribute to the modulation of nociceptive afferent input?

A

Serotonergic and
noradrenergic descending
projections from the periaqueductal grey matter
and medullary raphe nuclei directly inhibit projection of neurons and/or activate enkephalin containing interneurons to reduce nociceptive activity

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22
Q

What are the 2 explanations for how TENS machines work?

A

1 - stimulating large diameter axons of other sensory receptors, a jamming effect is created in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord (pain perception reduced/abolished by interference with pathway transmission)
2 - stimulation releases endorphins from the brainstem which activates descending pathways and suppresses pain pathway

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23
Q

What conditions are TENS machines used for?

A

RA, sciatica, sports injuries, MS, phantom-limb pain

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24
Q

What results should a cold-pressor test give?

A

Increased HR and BP as the sympathetic system is activated; will plateau/decrease eventually as parasympathetic is activated to maintain homeostasis

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25
Q

What are the 3 families of endogenous opioid peptides?

A

Enkephalins
POMC
Dynorphins

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26
Q

What are the 3 types of opioid receptor?

A

Mu, delta, kappa

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27
Q

Describe a monosynaptic reflex

A

Involves a proprioceptive afferent (Ia) and motor neuron
Passive stretch of quadriceps muscle activates Ia afferents via muscle spindle → synapse in spinal cord → activation of motor neuron to cause muscle contraction at motor end plate

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28
Q

What segmental variation is seen in the spinal cord?

A

Enlarged at cervial (C5-T1) and lumbar (L2-S3) levels due to innervation of limbs

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29
Q

What is the ventral horn composed of?

A

Origin of motor neurons for skeletal muscle

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30
Q

What is the dorsal horn composed of?

A

Terminations of incoming sensory fibres

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31
Q

What are the divisions of grey matter?

A

Dorsal horn, intermediate area, ventral horn

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32
Q

What are the divisions of white matter?

A

Dorsal, lateral and ventral columns

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33
Q

What is the filum terminalae composed of?

A

Thin strand of pia mater

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34
Q

What does the dura mater merge with to cover spinal nerves?

A

Epineurium (connective tissue)

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35
Q

What is found in the extra/epidural space?

A

Fat, venous plexus

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36
Q

At what point is the spinal cord continuous with the brainstem?

A

At the level of the foramen magnum

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37
Q

What is the lumbar cistern?

A

Sac of dura mater which encloses the cauda equina

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38
Q

What are the characteristic features of a lumbar vertebra?

A

Large body, small vertebral canal, small transverse processes without facets

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39
Q

What are the characteristic features of a cervical vertebra?

A

Foramen transversarium, bifid spinous process, large vertebral canal

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40
Q

What are the characteristic features of a thoracic vertebra?

A

Transverse processes articulate with ribs

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41
Q

What are the 5 groups of branches of the facial nerve (CN 7)?

A 
Temporal 
Zygomatic 
Buccal 
Marginal mandibular 
Cervical
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42
Q

What are the main arteries of the face?

A 
Superficial temporal artery (branch of external carotid)
Facial artery (gives of superior and anterior labial branches to the lips)
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43
Q

Why is the facial artery tortuous?

A

Allows blood flow to be maintained when mandible is moved

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44
Q

What is the main vein of the face?

A

Facial vein (joins internal jugular vein)

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45
Q

What overlies the masseter muscle in the face?

A

Parotid gland

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46
Q

Where does the parotid duct open?

A

Next to the crown of the 2nd upper molar

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47
Q

How can pain manifest from the parotid gland?

A

Thick capsule surrounding the gland maintains pressure which can cause pain in conditions such as mumps

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48
Q

Describe the path the facial nerve (CN 7) takes to reach the face

A

Emerges from the base of the skull at the stylomastoid foramen and branches within the parotid gland

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49
Q

What muscle does the cervical branch of the facial nerve innervate?

A

Platysma

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50
Q

In which week of gestation does the CNS begin to develop?

A

Week 3

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51
Q

What does the ectoderm germ layer form?

A

CNS, PNS, sensory epithelium of the ear/nose/eye, epidermis, hair and nails, subcutaneous/mammary/pituitary glands, tooth enamel

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52
Q

Where does the notochord extend from and how does this occur?

A

From the primitive node at the end of the primitive streak

Hypoblast cells are displaced by movement of epiblast cells (endoderm replaced hypoblast)

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53
Q

What are the stages of notochord development?

A

Axial process → notochordal process → notochord

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54
Q

How is the notochord involved in neurulation?

A

Notochord has an inductive relationship with the overlying ectoderm - its appearance causes the ectoderm to thicken

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55
Q

From which germ layer is the notochord derived?

A

Mesoderm

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56
Q

Briefly describe the process of neurulation

A

Notochord → ectoderm thickening → neural plate made of neuroectoderm → plate edges elevate to form neural folds → depressed mid-region forms neural groove → fusion of folds results in neural tube

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57
Q

What factors does bending of the neural plate depend on?

A

Intrinsic - cytoskeleton, stage of cell cycle

Extrinsic - adhesion points

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58
Q

What are neural crest cells?

A

Cells which remain at the top of the neural tube on fusion of the neural folds; give rise to range of cell types (e.g. glia)

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59
Q

What hinge points are involved in neural tube formation?

A

Median hinge point - neural groove area

Dorsolateral hinge points - on either side where the neural folds are

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60
Q

How do hinge points contribute to neural tube closure?

A

Cells in these areas decrease in height and become wedge-shaped which allows the neuroectoderm to bend

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61
Q

What lies on either side of the closed neural tube?

A 
Paraxial mesoderm (somites)
Then intermediate and lateral plate mesoderm more laterally
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62
Q

What signalling molecules are involved in induction of the neural plate?

A

FGF and BMP4

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63
Q

What is the role of chordin and noggin in neurulation?

A

Inhibit BMP4 which pushes tissue towards a neural phenotype

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64
Q

What switch in cell type occurs in the neural plate to allow fusion of the neural tube?

A

Switch from E-cadherin to N-cadherin expression

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65
Q

What happens to the neural crest cells after neurulation?

A

Undergo an epithelial to mesenchymal transition

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66
Q

What is the molecular difference between epithelial and mesenchymal cells?

A

Epithelial cells have high E-cadherin expression

Mesenchymal cells have high N-cadherin expression

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67
Q

What do neural crest cells form?

A

Trunk region - melanocytes, hair follicles, dorsal root ganglia, sensory ganglia, sympathetic neurons, Schwann cells, adrenal medulla
Cranial region - craniofacial skeleton, neurons, ganglia, glia, melanocytes

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68
Q

What is the basal lamina and what is its importance in development?

A

Layer of extracellular matrix secreted by epithelial cell

In the myotome, allows cells to migrate between the neural tube and the rest of the embryo

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69
Q

What disorders can occur when neural crest cell migration is disrupted?

A

Treacher Collins syndrome - underdevelopment of facial bones and ears; TCOF 1 gene mutation
Di George syndrome - cleft palate, abnormal facies, cardiac problems; 22q11.2 gene deletion

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70
Q

At what level does the neural tube begin to close and in what direction does it occur?

A

Starts in cervical region

Proceeds in simultaneous cephalic and caudal directions

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71
Q

What are the ends of the neural tube called and when do they close?

A 
Anterior neuropore (day 25)
Posterior neuropore (day 27)
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72
Q

Briefly outline spinal cord differentiation

A

Neuroectoderm/epithelial cells → neuroblasts → form inner mantle layer of spinal cord (grey matter) → outer marginal layer containing fibres from mantle (white matter)

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73
Q

What do the neuroepithelial cells lining the neural tube differentiate into, under the influence of Notch and Delta signalling?

A

Neuroblasts or glioblasts

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74
Q

In development, in which zone are glial cells found?

A

Ventricular zone

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75
Q

In development, in which zone are neuroblasts found?

A

Mantle zone

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76
Q

In development, in which zone are axons found?

A

Marginal zone

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77
Q

In which week of development does the neural tube begin to differentiate into dorsal and ventral aspects?

A

Week 5

78
Q

What are the dorsal aspects

of the neural tube called and what does it become?

A

Alar plates

Sensory/dorsal horn

79
Q

What are the ventral aspects of the neural tube called and what does it become?

A

Basal plates

Motor/ventral horn

80
Q

In spinal cord development, what is the sulcus limitans?

A

Longitudinal groove separating the basal and alar plates

81
Q

In spinal cord development, what are the roof and floor plates and what is their function?

A

Dorsal (roof) and ventral (floor) midline portions of spinal cord which do not contain neuroblasts; pathways for nerve fibres to cross from one side of the spinal cord to the other

82
Q

In what week are the dorsal and ventral horns formed?

A

Week 7-8

83
Q

What neurons are present in the intermediate horn of the spinal cord and where is this found?

A

Sympathetic neurons of the autonomic system

Thoracic and upper lumbar segments only

84
Q

What separates the 2 alar plates from each other?

A

Dorsal median septum

85
Q

What separates the 2 basal plates from each other?

A

Ventral fissure

86
Q

What is the major difference between development of dorsal and ventral spinal nerves?

A

Ventral/motor nerves arise from the ventral horn and grow outwards; dorsal/sensory nerves arise from dorsal root ganglia and grow inwards to the dorsal horn

87
Q

What cells are produced from differentiation of glioblasts?

A

Protoplasmic/fibrillar astrocytes - support/metabolism
Oligodendroglia - myelin sheath formation
Microglia - phagocytic

88
Q

In what week of gestation does brain development occur?

A

Week 3

89
Q

How many primary brain vesicles are formed from the neural tube and what are they called?

A

3
Forebrain - prosencephalon
Midbrain - mesencephalon
Hindbrain - rhombencephalon

90
Q

What folds/flexures are present in the early brain due to uneven growth?

A

Midbrain cephalic flexure
Pontine flexure
Cervical flexure

91
Q

What does the forebrain/prosencephalon give rise to?

A

Telencephalon

Diencephalon

92
Q

What does the telencephalon give rise to?

A

Cerebrum (right and left cerebral hemispheres)

93
Q

What does the diencephalon give rise to?

A

Eye cup
Thalamus
Hypothalamus
Epithalamus

94
Q

What is the epithalamus?

A

A part of the dorsal forebrain including the pineal gland and a region in the roof of the third ventricle

95
Q

What does the midbrain/mesencephalon give rise to?

A

Does not divide

96
Q

What does the hindbrain/rhombencephalon give rise to?

A

Metencephalon

Myelencephalon

97
Q

What does the metencephalon give rise to?

A

Pons

Cerebellum

98
Q

What does the myelencephalon give rise to?

A

Medulla oblongata

99
Q

In what week of gestation do the secondary brain vesicles develop?

A

Week 5

100
Q

Until which level does the sulcus limitans extend?

A

Midbrain

101
Q

What condition is caused by failed/incomplete closure of the anterior neuropore?

A

Anencephaly

102
Q

What condition is caused by failed/incomplete closure of the posterior neuropore?

A

Spina bifida

103
Q

In what region is spina bifida most common?

A

Lumbosacral

104
Q

What can be given in the early stages of pregnancy to reduce risk of neural tube defects?

A

Folic acid

105
Q

Name 2 neural tube defects

A

Anencephaly

Spina bifida

106
Q

What are the 3 types of spina bifida?

A

Occulta - incomplete vertebrae but no spinal cord protrusion
Meningocele - normal vertebrae but meninges protrude
Myelomeningocele - protruding mass of nervous tissue

107
Q

What is hydrocephalus?

A

Condition associated with spina bifida; cerebral anomaly resulting in raised pressure and large head

108
Q

What is a chiari malformation?

A

Abnormality which causes the cerebellum to be pushed down into the spinal canal (obstruction of foramen magnum)

109
Q

What is spina bifida cystica?

A

Encompasses meningocele and myelomeningocele types

110
Q

What is a syringomyelia?

A

CSF filled cyst within the spinal cord

111
Q

How is a chiari malformation treated?

A

Decompression - removal of sections of bone from the skull to allow more room

112
Q

From what cells do the meninges develop?

A

Mesenchymal and neural crest cells

113
Q

In meninges development, what happens at days 20-35 of gestation?

A

Mesenchymal and neural crest cells migrate around the neural tube to form an external (dura) and internal (pia and arachnoid) layer

114
Q

What meningeal layers arise exclusively from neural crest cells?

A

Pia and arachnoid mater

115
Q

What is the ependyma?

A

The thin membrane of glial cells lining the ventricles of the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord

116
Q

How is the choroid plexus formed?

A

Fusion of pia mater with ependyma

117
Q

From which germ layer do the meninges form?

A

Mesoderm

118
Q

Where do meninges in the trunk/caudal region arise from?

A

Paraxial mesoderm

119
Q

At what time points do the dura, arachnoid and pia mater layers develop?

A

Pia - day 24
Dura - day 45
Arachnoid - day 57

120
Q

How much CSF is produced daily?

A

400-500ml

121
Q

How much CSF is circulating at any one time?

A

125-150ml

122
Q

What is the importance of the buoyancy CSF provides for the brain?

A

Ensures the weight of the brain does not compress the cranial nerves on the inside of the skull

123
Q

What is the choroid plexus?

A

Sac-like invaginations projecting into the ventricular cavity in the roof of the 4th ventricle which produce CSF

124
Q

Where does CSF circulate?

A

Subarachnoid space

125
Q

What effect does obstruction of the foramen magnum have on CSF circulation?

A

CSF builds up in the head and cannot drain out which increases intracranial pressure, compressing the brain

126
Q

How can increased ICP due to CSF build up be treated?

A

Inserting a shunt to drain the fluid

127
Q

Which structures are most likely to fail to develop in ancencephaly?

A

Telencephalon

Brain, skull, scalp

128
Q

What type of cell makes up the lens of the eye?

A

Epithelial

129
Q

What are lens fibres?

A

Long, thin, transparent cells which lie under the epithelial cells of the lens

130
Q

What type of protein is abundant in the lens of the eye?

A

Crystallins

131
Q

When in gestation does eye development occur?

A

Weeks 3-10

132
Q

When and how do the eyes first appear?

A

Pair of shallow grooves at day 22

133
Q

What are the optic vesicles?

A

Outgrowths of the diencephalon which are in contact with surface ectoderm and induce changes necessary for lens formation (lens placode)

134
Q

What happens to the cells in the lens placode?

A

Become columnar and invaginate to form a double walled cup structure

135
Q

Briefly describe how the blood supply to the eye develops

A

Grooves arise on ventral surface of the optic cup (choroidal fissure) → a branch of the ophthalmic artery (hyaloid artery) passes along the fissure to supply the lens and retina

136
Q

Describe the structure of the optic cup

A

Bilaminar - outer layer forms pigmented layer of the retina’ inner/neural layer forms rods, cones and neuronal cell bodies

137
Q

What structures arise from the rim of the optic cup?

A

Iris and ciliary body

138
Q

How are the cells of the lens arranged?

A

Laminar pattern for transparency

139
Q

Briefly outline the development of the optic nerve

A

Optic cup connected to brain by optic stalk → inner layer cells provide network of neuroglia to support optic nerve fibres → inner and outer layers fuse and stalk cavity disappears → optic stalk becomes the optic nerve

140
Q

What do the hyaloid artery and vein become?

A

Central artery and vein of the retina

141
Q

Briefly outline the development of the eyeball

A

Mesenchyme around optic cup condenses to form choroid and sclera → anterior cornea becomes transparent → space develops between cornea and lens (anterior chamber) → fibrous tissue and gelatinous substance fills the space between lens and retina (posterior chamber)

142
Q

Briefly outline the development of the eyelids

A

Folds of ectoderm grow over the cornea and fuse to form a conjunctival sac in front of the cornea → inner layer of ectoderm becomes the conjunctiva and fuses with the cornea → lacrimal glands form as ectodermal buds from the upper conjunctival sac → eyelids separate

143
Q

When do the eyelids separate in gestation?

A

Between months 5-7

144
Q

What is the role of SHH in development of the eye?

A

Responsible for eye field separation - upregulates PAX2 in optic stalks and restricts PAX6 to optic cup and lens

145
Q

What developmental disorders can occur in the eyes?

A

Congenital cataracts (genetic/rubella)
Microphthalmia (FAS/infection/genetic)
Anophthalmia (genetic/infection)
Cyclopia (SHH mutation)

146
Q

In which facial bone is the infra-orbital foramen located?

A

Maxilla

147
Q

What bones make up the norma frontalis?

A

Frontal bone, zygomatic bone, maxillae, nasal bones, mandible

148
Q

Which cranial nerve supplies the sublingual, submandibular and lacrimal glands?

A

Facial nerve (CN 7)

149
Q

Which cranial nerve supplies the parotid gland?

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 9)

150
Q

What is the function of the buccinator muscle and which cranial nerve is it supplied by?

A

Compresses the oral vestibule during chewing

Buccal branch of the facial nerve

151
Q

What is the embryological origin of the buccinator muscle?

A

Derived from the 2nd branchial arch in development

152
Q

What is the oral vestible?

A

Area of the mouth between the cheek and teeth

153
Q

Which muscles are involved in elevation of the mandible?

A

Masseter, temporalis and pterygoid (lateral and medial) muscles

154
Q

What problem might a patient with unilateral facial palsy have with their eye?

A

Inability to close the eye, causing corneal scarring

155
Q

How is the integrity of the facial nerve tested?

A

Ask the patient to make various facial expressions

156
Q

What is the mechanism of shingles infection?

A

Chickenpox virus can lie dormant in the sensory ganglion and reactivate as shingles later in life affecting only a specific dermatome

157
Q

What regions of the face drain to the parotid lymph nodes?

A

Forehead
Skull
External ear

158
Q

What are relaxed skin tension lines and what is their clinical significance?

A

Natural lines in the skin which are aligned with the collagen of the dermis – incisions along the lines are more likely to heal better without scarring

159
Q

What is the area above the upper lip called?

A

Philtrum

160
Q

Why are small, closely placed sutures favoured in treating facial wounds?

A

For cosmetic reasons and to avoid gaping which occurs commonly in this area because the muscles are close to the surface of the skin

161
Q

What CNS drugs are fast-acting?

A

Anaesthetics

Cocaine

162
Q

What CNS drugs are slow-acting?

A

Antidepressants

Antipsychotics

163
Q

Why is drug entry to the CNS restricted and how has this been overcome?

A

BBB

Pro-drugs (e.g. L-DOPA), carrier molecules, transient disruption of barrier (e.g. mannitol)

164
Q

What is an agonist?

A

Activates a receptor, producing a functional response in the cell

165
Q

What is an antagonist?

A

Binds to the receptor without activating it, blocking the action of agonists

166
Q

What is a partial agonist?

A

Partially activates a receptor, producing a functional response in the cell

167
Q

What are general anaesthetics, how are they administered, how do they work and give some examples

A

Drugs used to produce surgical anaesthesia
Inhalational or intravenous
Act on ion channels (e.g GABA receptor)
Halothane (IH), propofol (IV)

168
Q

What are anxiolytics, how do they work and give some examples

A

Drugs which cause sleep and reduce anxiety

Potentiate action of GABA Barbituates (e.g. pentobarbitone), benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam)

169
Q

What are antipsychotics and give some examples

A

Drugs which are effective in relieving the symptoms of schizophrenic illness
Typical (chlorpromazine, haloperidol), atypical (clozapine, olanzapine)

170
Q

What are antidepressants, how along do they take to work and give some examples

A

Drugs which alleviate symptoms of depressive illness
2-4 weeks
MOIs (phenelzine), tricyclic antidepressants (imipramine), SSRIs (fluoxetine), ketamine (rapid onset)

171
Q

What are analgesics and give some examples

A

Drugs used clinically for controlling pain

Opiates (morphine, buprenorphine), NSAIDs (ibuprofen, aspirin)

172
Q

What are psychomimetics/hallucinogens and give some examples

A

Drugs which cause disturbance of perception and behaviour which cannot be simply characterised by sedative/stimulant effects
LSD, mescaline, ketamine, phencyclidine, THC (cannabis)

173
Q

What are cognition enhancers/nootropic drugs and give some examples

A

Drugs which improve memory and cognitive performance

Galantamine, donepezil

174
Q

What is a common drug for epilepsy?

A

Gabapentin

175
Q

What is a common drug for Parkinson’s?

A

L-DOPA

176
Q

What is a common drug for bipolar disease?

A

Lithium

177
Q

What diseases/processes are regulated by dopaminergic transmission?

A

Parkinson’s, schizophrenia, hormone regulation, addiction and vomiting control

178
Q

What areas of the brain produce dopamine?

A

Substantia nigra, ventral tegmental area, hypothalamus

179
Q

What are the main dopamine pathways, what do they do and what disorder is associated with them?

A

Nigrostriatal → behavioural effects → Parkinson’s disease
Tuberohypophyseal → prolactin secretion → galactorrhoea
Medulla → vomit response → vomiting

180
Q

In what part of the substantia nigra are dopamine producing cells located?

A

Pars compacta

181
Q

What are the main signs of Parkinson’s disease?

A

Resting tremor, hypokinesia, cogwheel/lead pipe rigidity

182
Q

What is often the first sign of Parkinson’s disease?

A

Loss of sense of smell

183
Q

What risk factors are associated with Parkinson’s disease?

A

Ageing, genetic factors (synuclein, parkin), environmental factors (toxins, herbicides, pesticides)

184
Q

What protein is associated with Parkinson’s disease?

A

Synuclein; deposited in protein aggregates in dying dopamine cells (Lewy bodies)

185
Q

What are the 3 ways in which dopaminergic signalling can be enhanced therapeutically?

A 
Replace dopamine (e.g. L-DOPA)
Mimic actions of dopamine (D2/3 agonists e.g. bromocriptine)
Reduce breakdown of dopamine (MOAIs e.g. selegiline)
186
Q

What are the limitations of L-DOPA treatment?

A

Effective initially but only 20% response at 5 years

On/off episodes

187
Q

What are the side-effects of D2/3 agonists?

A

Hallucinations

Pathological gambling/shopping

188
Q

What are the symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

Positive – hallucinations (hearing voices), delusions (persecution or grandeur), disorder of logical thought
Negative - sustained depression, anhedonia (inability to feel pleasure), avolition (lack of drive), slow thought/speech/actions, lack of recognition of illness
Cognitive - difficulties in learning, planning and paying attention

189
Q

What is the mechanism of action of schizophrenia drugs such as haloperidol and clozapine?

A

Reduce dopaminergic signalling at D2 dopamine receptors (D2 antagonists)

190
Q

What are the limitations of D2 antagonists for schizophrenia treatment?

A

D2 receptor blockade is immediate, but therapeutic benefit takes weeks to appear
Some patients do not respond, despite D2 receptor blockade
These drugs are effective against the positive symptoms, but not against the negative and cognitive symptoms

191
Q

What are the side-effects of D2 antagonists?

A

Parkinson’s disease-like symptoms, prolactin hypersecretion, postural hypotension, sedation, dry mouth, weight gain

192
Q

How is dopamine released in the hypothalamus and what is its action?

A

Dopamine cell bodies in arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus have terminals in median eminence – secrete dopamine into the portal blood vessels leading to the anterior pituitary
Dopamine binds to D2 dopamine receptors on prolactin-secretin cells to inhibit prolactin secretion

Head, Neck and Neurological Systems (6 decks)

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