Week 2 Flashcards

1
Q

How can you determine dominance of coronary vessels? What is more common?

A

85% right dominant- meaning the RCA gives rise to PDA perfusing posterior 1/3 of septum

Dominant= perfuses the posterior third of septum

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2
Q

What are causes of decreased oxygen supply?

A

Coronary artery occlusion
Anemia
Pulmonary disease/hypoxemia
Tachycardia

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3
Q

What are reasons for increased oxygen demand

A
Tachycardia
LVH
HTN
Increase in cardiac work/wall tension- afterload
Physical exertion, emotional excitement
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4
Q

What are the four ischemic heart diseases, which three are associated with ACS?

A

IHD- MI, angina, chronic ischemic heart disease with HF, sudden cardiac death

ACS- disruption of a plaque= MI, unstable angina, sudden cardiac death

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5
Q

How much coronary obstruction do you need to get exertion at rest? With exertion?

A

75% decrease in cross section of coronary artery= symptoms occur with exertion

90% occlusion= sx at rest

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6
Q

What are the key features of each ACS

A

Angina stable- fixed stenosis-75% no plaque disruption, pain with exertion

UA- fixed stenosis, plaque disruption, partial thrombus,

Variant /prinzmetal angina- episodic chest pain at rest, not coronary stenosis, secondary to vasospasm, STE on ECG

sudden death- most common cause is ischemia, severe CAD

MI- complete thrombus, subendocardial to transmural infarct

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7
Q

What are the sequence of events in ischemia?

A

ATP depletion begins in seconds, depleted by 40-50 minutes
Loss of contractility- 2 minutes
**Irreversible injury- 20-40 minutes, endocardial>epicardial
Microvascular injury- hours

Ischemia occurs distal to an infarct or thrombus

By 24 hours the infarct is transmural

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8
Q

Describe how an infarct of each coronary would result in myocardial damage seen and how often seen

A

LAD- 40-50%, apex, Anterior wall LV transmural and anterior 1/3 of septum

Left circumflex- left lateral LV wall transmural except apex

PDA of RCA 30%- left ventricle inferior/ posterior wall and posterior 1/2 of septum, inf/posterior RV

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9
Q

Describe the gross changes seen with MI

A

Grossly
No change for first 24 hours
1-3 days- pallor of infected tissue
3-7 days- red granulation tissue surrounds the area of infarction, hyperremic MI
7 days= yellow
7-10 days- sharply defined necrotic area yellow tan soft region with hyperemic border- highly vascular granulation tissue
Weeks- month= scar

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10
Q

When is a rupture mostly likely to occur in s/p MI?

A

Days 7-8 after an MI becuasing necrosis is making the ventricle weak

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11
Q

What changes can be seen under microscope s/p MI?

A

4-12 hours= wavy fibers followed by coagulation necrosis, mycotolysis is starting up to one day

2-3 days- acute inflammation most prominent, neutrophils prominent, muscles beginning to break up
5-10 days- macrophages removing myocytes= yellow

2-4 weeks- granulation tissue that will be replaced by fibrosis= red, yellow

6-8 weeks= fully fibrotic- white scar

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12
Q

What is goal and approaches to repurfusion s/p MI?

A

Attempts to restore perfusion to salvage ischemic myocardium
If done within 20 mins can salvage everything, more time= more death

Use fibrinolytics, balloon ang, PTCA

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13
Q

What changes persist despite repurfusion s/p MI

A

Infarct will have hemorrhagic appearence d/t leakage from injured vasculature- contraction band necrosis (lose nuclei, striations or bands in muscle, gaps in muscle) hypercontracted sarcromeres

Some new damage from free radicals
Stunned myocardium: functional changes that persist despite repurfusion

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14
Q

What complications can arise s/p MI and when do they present?

A

Contractile or pump failure= CHF of some type, disycn pumping, early or later, common late months to year complication

Arrtymias- an early complication of MI within day to week
Myocardial rupture- 7-10 days after MI, septal rupture with L to R shunt, pap muscle rupture with severe mitral regurg, free wall rupture associated with hemopericardium and tamponade

Pericarditis- 2-3 days, secondary to incoming inflammation, weeks later can develop dressler’s syndrome

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15
Q

What is chronic ischemic heart disease?

A

Progressive heart failure sp ischemic MI when compensatory mechanisms are exhausted, up to half patients need cardiac transplant

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16
Q

What, where, how does myxoma cause damage, what is it associated with?

A

90% in atria, usually Left
Usually immoble and planted but if able to move through AV valve can cause obstruction and damage

Can have constitutional symptoms bc of elaboraton of cytokines

10% ass. With Carney syndome= multiple myxomas, spotty skin pigmentation, endocrine over reactivity

LOOKS LIKE STRAWBERRY JAM IN HEART

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17
Q

What are the other cardiac tumors he talked about

A

Rhabdomyoma- associated with tuberous sclerosis, spider cells

Metastatic tumors from lung breast melanoma, hematologic

Hamartoma- most common tumor in heart of kids, associtated with tuberosus sclerosis

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18
Q

What leads are good for detecting inferior STEMI? what artery is occluded?

A

II III avF are inferior leads. STE in those leads

RCA = inferior

If II >III circumflex

if III> II RCA

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19
Q

What are goals for reperfussion in STEMI?

A

Door to fibrinolytic (needle) =30 minutes

Door to balloon (PCI)= 90 minutes

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20
Q

What are the four Killip classes of MI? Define and explain mortality approximately?

A
Can grade outcomes after MI
Class I- no CHF, least mortality 6%
II- S3 sound and or basilar rales- 17%
III- pulmonary edema= 30-40% mortality
IV- Cardiogenic shock- 60-80% mortality

more signs of cardiogenic shock= worse they do

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21
Q

What are some mechanical complications post MI and when do they occur?

A

Free wall rupture- 2-3 days post MI, tamponade or PEA arrest

VSR- septum rupture less than 5 days after MI, usually with murmur/thrill

Papillary muscle rupture- less than 5 days post MI, 50% have murmur

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22
Q

What are other complications of MI?

A

A fib
VT/V fib
heart block- anterior less likely to recover
LV aneursym- persistent ST elevation, risk for thrombus
Pericarditis- 1-4 days sp MI, Dresslers syndrome is 2-10 weeks sp MI

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23
Q

Where do narrow complex tachycardias come from

A

they are supra ventricular, above the AV node

SA node- SA node reentry tachy
Atrium- atrial tachy, a flutter
AV node- AVNRT, ORT

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24
Q

What is inappropriate sinus tachy and who does it affect mostly?

A

Accelerated baseline sinus rate without physiological stressor

Most common in young women without structural heart disease

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25
Q

What is premature atrial contractions?

A

early beats in atria from advanced automaticity
2 or more Ps without a QRS everytime, long PR interval

if happens in a long run= atrial tachy

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26
Q

What is atrial tachy and what are common causes?

A

HR in 120-200bpm from supra ventricular

Can be see with prior sx or ablation
COMMONLY SEEN with digitalis toxicity- dig binds Na/K aptase and competes with K to pump, with hypokalemia little K to compete with digitalis= risk for digitalis toxicity
**likely on exam

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27
Q

What is multifocal atrial tachy and what is it commonly seen with?

A

Mutliple (3 or more) competing loci in atrium, irreg irreg

P waves with different morphologies, different PP PR intervals

OFTEN SEEN IN CHRONIC LUNG CONDITIONS

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28
Q

What is the most common cardiac arrythmia and describe it

A

Atrial fibrillation is most common
Rapid and disorganized atrial pulses

Irreg irreg= irregular conduction through AV node leads to RR intervals with no pattern

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29
Q

How do you treat a fib?

A

control the HR, prevent strokes with anti-coagulation

may need to get aggressive to control arrythmia

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30
Q

What is junctional ectopic tachycardia? what is the cause and what is seen

A

A supra ventricular NCT. Caused by sudden rapid pacing of an automatic focus in the AV junction right below the AV node

Automaticity from junction up to atrium (may see retrograde P waves) and down to ventricle

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31
Q

Describe re-entry circuits

A

Electrical impulse travels in a tight circle within the heart leads to fast heart rates

Requires two areas with different conduction speeds and different refractory periods

premature beat typically initiates the cycle

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32
Q

What causes atrial flutter and what does it look like on ECG?

A

A flutter is caused by re entrant rhythm typically in the RA around cavo tricuspid isthmus, not dependent on nodes

See F waves or sawtooth pattern on ECG

Tx: like a fib, control HR and anti-coagulate and maybe get aggressive on anti rhymics

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33
Q

Describe AV nodal reentrant tachycardia

A

most common reentrant SVT, more common in women

Requires “dual AV nodal physiology”- if fast pathway has long refractory period and slow has short refractory period then hit with next stim and it must go down the slow pathway- by the time it gets down the slow pathway the fast has repolarized accepts the impulses

Can be fast or slow, anterograde or retrograde

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34
Q

What is AVNRT ecg look like?

A

P waves are in QRS or shortly after QRS as pseudo Rprime in V1

impulse travels up fast pathway due to nearly simultaneous activation of atria and ventricles

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35
Q

What is atypical AVNRT?

A

Reentrant circuit with AV node anterograde conduction in fast pathway and retrograde conduction in slow pathway

P waves usually visible bc of delay traveling up slow pathway

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36
Q

Describe ORT vs ART

A

More common in men. Requires an accessory pathway that connect atrium and ventricle allowing bypass of AV node.
Orthodromic- down the AV to ventricle and up the ventricle to the atrium through an accessory pathway. Anterograde through AV and retro through pathway= reentry circuit- retrograde P wave after QRS

Seen narrow QRS, and delta wave bc got to muscle early, short PR, retrograde P after QRS in inferior leads

Antidromic is down the accessory pathway up through the node retrograde, look like Vtachy but will respond to adenosine and VT won’t, wide complex tachy

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37
Q

Describe WPW

A

An accessory pathway that starts in SA node down both the AV node and an accessory pathway leading to delta wave from pre excitation, QRS >100ms, short PR interval

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38
Q

If atrial rhythm is regular how do you dx NCT?

A

can try to slow conduction through the AV node to help with dx to better visualize atrial activity and terminate re entry circuits depending on AV node

Vagal maneuvers: carotid sinus massage, valsalva- decrease preload to heart (as side not hand grip increases after load)

or give adenosine and see if it stops, AV node block, terminates AVNRT or AVRT
does not terminate a fib or MAT

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39
Q

What is most sensative cardiac biomarker?

A

Myoglobin is most sensative for MI, not specific at all

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40
Q

what is myoglobin used for as biomarker?

A

it is a good early detector of MI and for reinfarct analysis

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41
Q

how often should blood be drawn after ACS onset?

A

at presentation and every 6-9 hours

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42
Q

What is the difference in CK and CKMB

A

CK is the activity of kinase, CKMB is the amount or weight

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43
Q

What is the timeline for CK increases and peak and resolved after AMI?

A

rises 3-8 hours, peaks 10-24 hours, normal by 48 hours

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44
Q

Is CKMB cardiac specific? What is its timeline? how is it measured

A

not cardiac specific but concentration greater in cardiac muscle, after MI there is 10 fold increase in CKMB

abnormal by 4 hours

Measured as index: concentration/activity CK

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45
Q

is myoglobin cardiac specific? timeline?

A

no its in cardiac and skeletal muscle, not specific but most sensitive

abnormal within 2 hours, normal within 24 hours after AMI

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46
Q

What is the best biomarker for MI

A

troponin

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47
Q

what are the troponin subunits used for testing in AMI and why?

A

CTI subunits exist. C is genetically same in cardiac and skeletal muscle so not good biomarker

T and I are used as biomarkers

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48
Q

Compare and contrast troponin T and I in uses for biomarkers, length after MI, cytosolic compensate and prognostic value

A

troponin T= coexpressed in skeletal and cardiac muscle during fetal develop and in muscle trauma/kidney disease
cytolosic compostion= 6% more sensative than I
longer presence after AMI bc continued release as result of repeated cardiac injury, used as indicatior of UA
0.1-0.2 is cutoff

troponin I is not expressed in skeletal muscle- 3 additional amino acids in cardiac form= more specfic than troponin T, cytosolic fraction is about 3% so less sensitive than T, cut off is 0.3 but can vary

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49
Q

Describe the rise and fall of troponin in AMI dx

A

It is required now for dx of AMI

blood samples every 6-9 hours to increase sensativity to rule in AMI, look at absolute changes
now suggestion to draw blood every 2-3 hours but not done here yet

rises by 4 hours and is abnormal for about 1 week

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50
Q

do all MI have pain and symptoms

A

no especially in DM or obese

might not see EKG changes either

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51
Q

What percent of US population is affected by HF

A

2-3%, only lung cancer is worse prognosis

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52
Q

how do you dx HF

A

based on clinical signs and symptoms rather than stand alone test results, unlike MI biomarkers are not required for dx but NP are helpful

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53
Q

What are goals for HF biomarkers

A

to identify underlying and reversible causes of HF, help confirm dx of HF, assess severity of HF and risk of progression

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54
Q

What is the mechanism of release and function of naturietic peptides?

A

Mechanism of release: cardiac volume and pressure overload and cardiac stretch

Function: naturesis (Na excretion), vasodilation, renin inhibition
Can actually give BNP to reduce pressures as a drug

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55
Q

What are the biomarkers for HF

A

BNP and proBNP correlated to HF

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56
Q

Compare the sythesis of NT proBNP and half life- what is the effect?

A

Pro BNP is cleaved by corin in response to stretch or ischemia to create 1 BNP and 1 NT pro BNP

BNP half life is shorter, NT pro BNP is longer and can accumulate in renal patients

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57
Q

What is the site of action for BNP?

A

NPR-A is receptor for BNP after release

could determine dyspnea from HF from COPD potentially

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58
Q

When is BNP elevated and why?

A

BNP and NT pro BNP levels occur in setting of elevated filling pressures in patients with cardiac dysfunction and can provide relatively reliable diagnostic and prognostic values

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59
Q

what are the cutoff levels for BNP vs proBNP in dx HF

A

BNP is 100 and proBNP is 300 bc half life is longer
BNP less than 50 effectively rules out HF
BNP higher than 500 with clinical sx is almost always secondary to HF
BNP btn 100-300 is not effective in distinguishing HF from other diseases

have negative predictive power in ruling out HF with patients presenting with dyspnea

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60
Q

What are normal intervals on ECG

A
PR= 0.12-.2
QRS= 0.06-0.10
QT= 0.35-.43
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61
Q

What halves of the P wave does each represent

A

first half is RA depol

second half is LA depol

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62
Q

What leads are best to see P waves

A

II and V1

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63
Q

How can you determine a LA abnormality

A

delayed terminal portion of P wave

Notched P wave in II, biphasic with dip in V1

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64
Q

How can you determine RA abnormality

A

Tall upright P waves in II > V1

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65
Q

What is a likely cause of global PR depression

A

pericarditis

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66
Q

What does high voltage on ECG mean

A

possible LVH or RVH,

specific, not sensitive

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67
Q

What changes on ECG are seen in LVH

A

in lateral leads I AVL V5 V6 see downsloping ST depression with T wave inversions and asymmetry

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68
Q

What changes on ECG seen in RVH

A

R wave in V1 is upright (positive) more than usual and is bigger than S which is abnormal for V1

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69
Q

What do flattened T waves mean

A

coronary ischemia

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70
Q

What are tall T waves from

A

hyperkalemia

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71
Q

What are U waves from

A

hypokalemia, repol of purkinje fibers

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72
Q

How do you treat LEF monomorphic VT? Normal EF monomorphic VT?

A

Low EF: amiodarone, lidocaine

normal EF: procainamide, amiodarone, lidocaine

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73
Q

What should be avoided in monomorphic VT

A

Adenosine or AV node blockers

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74
Q

How do you treat polymorphic VT?

A

If unstable= defib

If long QT= IV magnesium, increase HR with isoproterenol

if suspect ischemia= amiodarone, lidocaine to improve coronary flow

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75
Q

What is treatment for VF

A

need high energy cardioversion

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76
Q

How can a ICD control VT

A

by giving short bursts of anti tachy ventricular pacing in low energy can prevent VT most times

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77
Q

what is difference in single and double chambered ICDs

A

Single chamber pacemaker- no need for A V sync, not for bradycardia pacing, good for chronic a fib and primary prevention of sudden cardiac death

Dual chambered: sinus rhythm with so AV block or SA node dysfunction, bradycardia control

cardiac resync- 3 lead system in RA RV LV, LBBB patients

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78
Q

What is characteristics of sick sinus rhythm

A

Also called tachy-brady syndrome

Dysfunctional SA node that sometimes fires too quick sometimes too slow

Rate varies but sinus rhythm (narrow QRS from above AV node)

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79
Q

What is sinus arrest? how is it different from sick sinus

A

Sinus arrest is failure of impulse formation of SA node, in sick sinus the SA is just dysfunctional and fires too fast or slow

In sinus arrest must look for escape rhythm from either the ventricles or the junction, SA node is not pacemaking something lower is

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80
Q

What is the treatment for SA nodes diseases?

A

if symptoms then need atrial pacemaker

If no symptoms then no tx needed bc atrial kick is only about 20% of filling

81
Q

What is the characteristics of 1st degree AV block

A

All P waves are conducted to ventricles but conducted in a delayed fashion, this makes the PR interval longer than 0.2s (1 big box)

Consistent PP interval, every P is followed by a Q (1:1)

Intranodal block- conduction slows in the AV node

82
Q

What is characteristic of 2nd degree AV blocks

A

Some P waves are conducted

83
Q

3rd degree AV blocks are called what and why

A

complete heart block because no P waves are conducted to ventricles. Independent atrial and ventricular rhythms

PP constant, RR constant (from escape beats)

84
Q

What is Mobitz Type I AV block

A

A 2nd degree block with consistent PP interval

PR interval gets progressively longer until one P wave is dropped, PR after the dropped beat is short and right before the dropped beat is long

Intranodal block- decremental conduction through AV node

85
Q

Explain how decremental conduction through AV node is effected by changes to SNS or PSNS. What about infra nodal?

A

If AV node (intranodal) problem and exercise or catecholamines or atropine (decrease PSNS and increase conduction) is applied the block gets better less blocked beats, infranodal you drop more beats (you have more beats to drop)

If perform vagal maneuver (increase PSNS and slow conduction) and intranodal more beats are blocked. Or go to bathroom and pass out from increased vagal tone and more dropped beats. Infra nodal- slow sinus rate and fewer beats are dropped

Infranodal conduction is unaffected by autonomic modulation

86
Q

What is AV block Mobitz type II?

A

Second degree AV block, Infra nodal block likely in bundle of His

Consistent PP interval (like type I) but PR interval remains the same (unlike Type I) with intermittent dropped beats

More clinically unstable than Type I mobitz

87
Q

What is 2:1 AV block

A

A second degree AV block where every other P wave is not conducted to ventricles

Cannot determine level of block (type I or type II)

If affected by autonomic stimulus then it is in AV node, if not then outside or below the node

88
Q

In third degree AV block what is the relationship btn P and QRS complexes? what is faster?

A

No relationship btn P waves and QRS complexes

Regular PP intervals and regular RR intervals

Atrial rate must be faster than ventricular rate (coming from higher up and the A and V are not connected. Each beats regularly but with no relation to each other)

89
Q

What is common causes of AV block? What would you look for first in someone with AV block?

A

Common causes: high vagal tone (in shape, go to bathroom)
medications: BB, CCB, amiodarone, digitalis
MI- not enough blood and can lose conduction
metabolic/electrolyte derangements

LOOK first for causes that are easy to reverse like electrolytes or thyroid panel

90
Q

When does someone with AV block get a pacemaker?

A

If they have symptoms- pacemaker

If they have no symptoms- and infranodal- pacemaker
- and intranodal- typically stable escape rhythm- expectant management (observe)

91
Q

What leads do you look at to determine BBB? what is normal

A

V1 and V6

V1- should be no Q, small R up, larger S down, back to isoelectric and then up T wave

V6- small down Q, large up R, S back to isoelectric, up T wave

92
Q

What is the ECG pattern of RBBB?

A
Wide QRS > 0.12s
Intial QRS is normal
Terminal forces reflect slow myocte to myocyte RV depol- R prime + in V1 and V2
wide slurred S in I V5 V6
T may change in V1 and V2

V1- no Q and R is up and smaller than S (normal) but then S shoots up past isoelectric to make R prime then INVERTED T wave

V6- small Q with large R (normal) but S shoots back down past isoelectric then back to iso, T is upright and normal

93
Q

What are important RBBB causes?

A

Normal varient in 1 in 500

Ischemic heart disease- new RBBB with symptoms can indicate LAD ischemia

Hypertensive disease- change shape of conduction tissue

Cor pulmonale- lung disease gives RH problems
acute=pulmonary embolism
chronic= COPD

94
Q

What is the management of RBBB?

A

Evaluate for underlying cause- cardiomyopathy, IHD, RV overload, check LAD

No therapy needed for isolated RBBB, unless d/t ACS then tx ACS, unclog LAD

95
Q

What does LBBB look like on ECG

A

In V1- see a down going QS that is forked, then straight to isoelectric

V6- broad slurred R with fork, no Q , inverted T

96
Q

What are important causes of LBBB

A

IHD, HTN heart disease, LVH- walls of pump has to change and remodel to match and exceed pressure in aorta

97
Q

How do yo treat LBBB?

A

Evaluate for AMI not because of blood supply to LBBB (gets dual supply) bc the ST segments are hard to interpret with LBBB

Consider resynch therapy if LV EF is less than 35%

98
Q

What are indications for pacemaking?

A

Both symptoms and documented evidence of arhythmia

Also sick sinus syndrome is Class I indication if symptoms attributable to SSS

  • bradycardia
  • chronotropic incompentence- heart needs to speed up but can’t
  • symptomatic bradycardia from necessary drug therapy

Also in 3rd degree AB block or 2nd degree with symptoms, HR less than 40, post surgery, d/t necessary drug tx, or a fib with pauses of 5 seconds or greater

Also Carotid hypersensativity- carotid massage causes bradycardia, indication for pacing if carotid sinus massage causes recurrent syncope

99
Q

What are the three mechanisms of arrhythmia?

A

Enhanced automaticity, triggered rhythms- impulse intiate

Re-entry- impulse propogation

100
Q

where does automaticity come from?

A

Spontaneous action potentials from diastolic depolarizatin caused by a net inward current during phase 4 of action potential (Ca) to bring to threshold

101
Q

Describe the SA node action potential

A

Phase 0- occurs by increased Ca conductance through L type Ca channels, slow movement so rate of depolarization is slower than in other cardiac cells like purkinje fibers

Phase 3- repolarization, K channels open and K out which hyper polarize cells

Phase 4- funny current (lf) are activated during hyper polarization and inactive during depolarization, they depolarize the sarcolemmal membrane, is a mixed Na-K inward current modualted by ANS through cAMP

102
Q

What are the paces of the different heart tissues

A

SA node= 60-100bpm

AV= 45-50 bpm

Ventricular muscle= 30-40bpm

103
Q

How do drugs that cause QT elongation work?

A

they affect Ikr, block to make depolarization longer

104
Q

What determines the RMP (phase 4) of myocardium?

A

SA node it is funny Na currents

But in myocardium automaticity results from moving to RMP (-90mV) to threshold at -30 to -70mV

RMP in myocardium is mainly determined by IK1 activity-pumps K out at rest

things that reduce IK1 enhance automaticity: increased extracellular K, reduced IK1 channels, long QT syndrome

105
Q

What are triggered arrhythmias?

A

Abnormal depolarizations of cardiac myocytes that interrupt depolarization

Typically caused by Ca overload- gene defect of digoxin toxicity

Can lead to arrhythmias by causing depolarization before the myocardium is fully repolarized

Afterpolarizations can lead to spontaneous AP= triggered response

106
Q

What is an example of triggered arrhythmias

A

Torsade de pointes, digoxin toxicity, some ventricular tachycardias

107
Q

How can 2:1 block lead to VT

A

2:1 block is long diastolic filling, high Ca intracellularly leads to triggered arrhythmias that are Polymorphic VT

Tx with fixing bradycardia

108
Q

How does RVOT VT happen?

A

It is caused by intracellular Ca overload that enhances the Na/Ca exchanger- leads to increasing inward current and after depolarization

Afterdepolartizations can lead to another AP and initiate tachycardia

cAMP has a substantial role in regulating intracellular Ca
when concentration of cAMP is increased after depolarizations are more likely

109
Q

What is the tx for RVOT VT

A

adenosine is the tx for RVOT VT because its ability to lower cAMP- less afterdepolarzations

BB are effective bc inhibit adenylyl cyclase that makes cAMP

Verapamil works by inhibiting L type Ca channels and decreasing Ca intracellular that can decrease cAMP

or ablate

110
Q

How can you test for exercise induced VT

A

could give isuprel- alpha beta agonist that acts like you get on treadmill- reproduces the triggered VT

111
Q

Re-entrant rhythms are caused by what

A

caused by a circus motion around a functional or fixed obstacle

Cells take turns in recovering from excitation so that they are ready to be excited again when next wavefront arrives

Need unidirectional block and long enough circuit to allow each site to recover before depol wavefront returns

112
Q

How can MI lead to VT

A

VT can be reentrant around prior infarct scar

113
Q

What are the class Ia AAD. What is their action

A

quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide

They block NA mostly and little K- prominent AP prolong

114
Q

What are class Ib AAD. what is their action

A

Lidocaine, mixlitine

115
Q

What are the class Ic AAD. what is their action

A

flecainide, propafenone

block Na channels

116
Q

What are the varying potencies of class I AAD

A

CAB- potentcy
BAC= fast to slowest kinetics

if bind strong then potent but slow

117
Q

What are the effects of the different class I AAD

A
class Ia- block Na and K a little
Decrease the slope of phase 0, increase QRS= decrease the conduction, prolongs the QT= longer to depol and repolarize

Class Ib- unique that they shorten the AP, shorten the QT- useful in long QT syndrome

Class Ic- most effect on decreasing slope of phase 0= increase QRS

It says all of them increase PR and QRS, slow conduction and reduce excitability _not sure if true

118
Q

What is the Class III AAD? what is their effect

A

Ikr blocking, prolongs refractory period (increase AP duration), QT prolonging

amiodarone, sotalol, dofetilide, ibutilibe- all block different portioins of channel, have different side effects

119
Q

What is mutated in long QT syndrome

A

Ikr channels- block repolarization - prolongs refractory period to increase AP duration

QT prolonging drugs usually block Ikr

120
Q

What are the class IV AAD? What is their effect?

A

Ca Channel blockers, block automaticity in SA node, slow AV node conduction

Negative inotropes, increase threshold for phase 4 depolarization in SA/AV nodes

121
Q

What is Class I AAD use dependence? why?

A

Class I are Na channel blockers that bind and work when channels are open in phase 0 or inactive in phases 2,3.

Faster HR= more drug binding= use dependence (forward dependence)

122
Q

What is Class III AAD use dependence? Why?

A

Class III iKr blockers have reverse use dependence. They have more affinity for resting channels, more active in slower HR

123
Q

On the page with the charts, what are the Class I AAD drug effects that are important?

A

Class Ia- Increase QRS, Increase QT, decrease slope 0
(also decrease slope and slows conduction= wide QRS)

Class Ib- Decrease the QT
(unique in that they shorten AP, useful in long QT)

Class Ic- Biggest effect on decreasing slope phase 0
(no effect on QRS widening, QRS prolongation is main effect)

They slow conduction and decrease excitability

Ia=prolong QT
Ib=shorter QT
Ic= decrease slope phase 0

124
Q

what is the MOA of quinidine? What is effect? what is it used for?

A

MOA: blocks Na current mostly, some effect on K channels

Effect: prolongs PR, QRS, QT

Tx: effective in atrial and ventricular arrhythmias, bogoda

125
Q

What is quinidine side effects?

A

GI is most common- nausea, anorexia, diarrhea
Cinchonism- combo of neuro effects- tinnitus, hearing loss, visual loss, confusion
Thrombocytopenia, hemolytic anemia
Hypotension from vasodilation
Increase QT and torsade de pointes- start them in the hospital

126
Q

What is the MOA of procainamide? What is it used for?

A

Blocks Na channels mostly and some K

Drug of choice for atrial fibrillation in WPW (aka preexcited a fib- don’t give adenosine, give procainamide)

Works by blocking accessory pathway muscle conduction and his-purkinje system

Can be used to unmask Brugada
test for Infranodal block

127
Q

How is procainamide excreted and why important

A

60% renal excreted, careful in renal insufficiency

NAPA is a metabolite of procainamide and 100% renal excreted and a pure III AAD agent

128
Q

What is Brugada syndrome? What mutation? Who gets it and what effect?

A

It is a loss of Na channel function, hertiable syndrome predisposing to sudden death at night or rest

SCN5A loss of function
Genetric predisposition becomes phenotypically apparent with fever, BB, Na CB (don’t give)

More common in SE Asian men

129
Q

How do you test for Brugada?

A

Normally don’t give Na CB bc they have a Na channel defect but give procainamide and look at ECG

See ST elevation- Saddleback deformities in V1-3 at high levels

130
Q

What are the important side effects of procainamide?

A

DRUG INDUCED LUPUS- in about 30%, 80% have +ANA but don’t need to check unless suspicous

Agranulocytosis

QT prolongaion

Torsade de pointes- idiosyncratic

vasculitis raynauds GI hypotension bradycardia

131
Q

What is lidocaine MOA? Where does it have effects? What is it used for? Where is it metabolized? What side effects?

A

It is a class Ib agent, blocks vg Na channels with most effect in ischemic tissue, little effect on atrial tissue or AV conduction

Useful in ischemic myocardium

Metabolism is dependent on hepatic blood flow, be careful with CHF and liver cirrohirosis= dec dose

Side effects: neuro- delirium and serizures

132
Q

What is Class Ic agents MOA and contradicitions?

A

Potent Na channel blockers, minimal effect on refractoriness

Marked negative inotropic effects- do not give in CAD, HR, structural heart disease, or to suppress post myocardial PVCs

133
Q

What is propafenone MOA? Who is a slow metabolizer of it? Side effects? and toxicities?

A

Propafenone- is a potent Na CB with some weak beta blocking

Whites are slow metabolizers- could increase BB and worsen HF or bradycardia

Side effects: dizziness, blurred vision, no effects on pacing or defib thresholds

Increase digoxin level (renal) and warfarin (CYP)

134
Q

What is digitalis MOA? Effects and how are they increased?

A

Na-K ATPase blocker, increases Na influx and active Na-Ca exchange, so increases Na that leads to increase intracellular Ca too

Effect is greater in hypokalemia

PSNS effects in atrium and AVN- shorter cycle lengths in atria bombard AVN- decrease conduction (concealed conduction)

Intracellular Ca (DADs) and and SNS and arrythmias (AV block, a or v tachy) in toxic doses

135
Q

What is adenosine MOA? Effects? Uses?

A

MOA is A1 receptor inhibiting of adenylyl cyclase, reduces cAMP, downstream reduction in CA

Hyper polarizes cells by increasing outward K efflux- also causes endothelial dependent relaxation of smooth muscle, decrease lf in SA node, makes phase 3 more negative

Useful in termination of SVT that depends on AV node

136
Q

Don’t worry about but what BB are lipophilic vs hydrophilic

A

lipo- metropolol, propanolol, labetalol, acebutolol, liver short half life

hydo- atenolol, nadolol, pindolol, sotolol, kidney long half life

137
Q

What are the Class III AAD? what are they effects? and use dependence?

A

Ibutilide, dofetilide, sotalol, amiodarone (has a little of every class)

They block Ikr, prolong repolarization, increase refractoriness, increase AP duration (QT)

reverse use dependence

can cause Ventricular arrtymias

138
Q

What is Long QT syndrome type II? Tx?

A

mutation in Ikr, repolarize slow when does not work, prelonged QT longer than .48s predisposes to sudden death from polymorphic VT or VF

triggered arrhythmia by emotion or scarred, alarm clock, exercise

75% penetrance

Nadolol is treatment

139
Q

What is important about amiodarone? Side effects?

A

Has more Na CB properties than class III but call it class III

most commonly used AAD- used for atrial and ventricular arrhythmias, a fib or VT

large volume of distribution and long half life

Significant side effects: hypothyroidism and prevent T4 to T3 (increased TSH and low T4), supplement with T4
Possible hyperthyroid too, need to stop amio
Pulmonary: CHF appearance on CXR, lung fibrosis, eye problems, liver must be watched
skin blue discoloration or photosensativity
eye- photosensative

140
Q

What is endocarditis?

A

inflammation (not necessarily infection) of endocardial surface of heart (including valve)

141
Q

what are risk factors for endocarditis?

A

Structurally abnormal valve
IV drug use- staph or strep
indwelling foreign material - can lead to infection
persistent bacteremia and inflammed valve- leads to vegetation

142
Q

What is vegetation and what is it made up of?

A

A visible often mobile mass on valve

Made up of fibrin, platelets, blood component
secondary infection with collection of organisms

143
Q

How do you form vegetations on valve from infective endocarditis?

A

Already damaged valve exposes endocardium for activated platelets to bind to, fibrin sticks

then bacteria flowing through blood can stick on top of that

144
Q

What is difference in subacute vs acute infective endocarditis

A

Acute- normal valve becomes inflamed, highly virulent organism sticks, more damage, higher mortality, days to weeks

Subacute- previously abnormal valve, low virulence organism, most recover with antibiotics, weeks to months

145
Q

what is most common organism causing infective endocarditis and who gets it

A

IE from IV drug user, staph aureus is most common

strep viridans, HACEK, enterococci, coag neg staph

146
Q

What valves are most effected in infective endocarditis

A

AV and MV most comply affected

TV in IV drug users

will see blood products build up in bacterial endocarditilis

147
Q

How does IE present

A

2 phenomenon:
Vascular- emboli in left or right, mycotic aneurysm, Janeway lesions, intracranial hemorrhage, conjuctival hemorrhage

Immune complex mediated- glomerlonephritis, osler nodes (digit pad), fluffy exuadate on retina, rheumatoid factor

148
Q

What are the three levels of infective endocarditis and how do you dx

A

Definite endocarditis- 2 major, 1 major 3 minor, 5 minor
possible- 1 major 1 minor, 3 minor
rejected- not meeting that or sx not up to it

Major: bacteremia of usual organisms on 2 cultures
evidence of endocardial involvement- vegetation or regurg

Minor:
predisposing factor, fever, new murmur, vascular phenomonon, immune phenomonon, blood culture

149
Q

What is treatment for IE

A

IV antibiotics- more for left
Remove indwelling pacemaker or catheter
Surgery if: vegetation is about 1.5 cm, ongoing embolic phenomon, HF d/t valve dysfunction, can’t clear bactermiena, paravalvular extension- abscess or heart block

150
Q

What is Libman sacks endocarditis? what valves affected? what seen?

A

Non infective endocarditis from SLE!!!

MV and TV affected

See small sterile granule vegetations on both sides of valve

151
Q

What is myocarditis?

A

Inflammation of muscle of myocardium lead to damage and dysfunction

152
Q

what is major cause of myocarditis in the US

A

Viral, coxaskie A and B (enterovirus)

Coxaskie B if flu like illness before myocarditis

Adenovirus if subclinical myocarditis

153
Q

what is most common cause of myocarditis in south america? how get it and prognosis? histo?

A

Trypanosme cruzi- chagas disease

from kissing bug, life long infection, few people get symptoms but most deaths chronically are from arrhythmia or CHF from chronic inflammatory cardiomyopathy

Histo see parasite balls in cardiomyocytes

154
Q

how does myocarditis present? what can it cause

A

very variable- asymptomatic to sudden death

arrythmia- esp in giant cell
Heart failure- elevated troponin, elevated pressures in ventricle= ischemia

idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy can be caused by asymptomatic myocarditis presenting later as LV systolic dysfunction

155
Q

what do you see histo for myocarditis

A

not much, maybe some lymphocytic infiltration and some damage to myocardium

156
Q

How can you get non infective myocarditis?

A

Giant cell is most important

Transplant rejection or hypersensativity reaction

157
Q

what is giant cell myocarditis? what causes it

A

Giant cell myocarditis is aggressive inflammatory process target at cardiac myocytes, infilitration of lymphocytes (CD8) eosinophils plasma cells PMN and mulinucleated giant cells (macrophages with many nuclei)

thought to be T lymphocyte mediated inflammation (CD8), prominent myocyte necrosis seen

some assocation in some people with abs and autoimmune disorders

158
Q

How does giant cell myocarditis present and how is it treated/dx

A

It presents with preceding flu like symptoms
progresses to heart failure and shock and ventricular arrhythmias in days to weeks from inflamed myocardium

Rapid progression and can be fatal, ARRHYTHMIA- lots of destruction and inflammation in myocardium- myocyte necrosis seen with giant cells

Treat with immunosupreesion with steroids, if suspicious get a biopsy to dx
Heart transplant and mechanical support often needed

159
Q

What is pericardial effusion? what causes it

A

excess fluid in pericardial sac, more than the normal 50mL

not tamponade or pericarditis

Caused by: 1) **malignancy
autoimmune, hemodyalsis, idopathic, sp radiation

If hemorrhagic consdier: TB malignancy, trauma, aortic dissection

160
Q

What is acute pericarditis? presentation? exam? EKG?

A

Inflammation of pericardial sac

Presentation: chest pain THAT IS IMPROVED WHEN SITTING FORWARD, SOB, tachycardia

Exam: may hear friction rub

EKG: PR depressions diffuse in II* and STE

161
Q

What is cause of acute pericarditis?

A

usually viral or idiopathic

post MI= dressler’s
post cardiac surgery
Infectious- TB fungal bacteria

162
Q

What is most common cardiac tumor

A

metastatic tumor, came from somewhere else

163
Q

what is most common primary cardiac tumor

A
atrial myxoma (L more than Right), not malignant, mesenchymal, surgery if embolic but usually benign 
symptoms from obstruciton= sweat fever weight loss
164
Q

What are 2 ways to get CHF

A

Forward failure- low CO

Backward failure- accumulate blood in venous system

165
Q

What are common causes of LHFailure

A

Ischemic heart disease
HTN
Aortic/mitral valve disease
Nonischmic heart disease`

166
Q

What is seen with LHFailure

A

LV hypertrophy and dilation with secondary elnargement of LA

Congestion and edema of lungs, heart failure cells in lung- leads to dyspnea, orthopnea, PND

Reduced renal perfusiion- increase RAA- salt water retention- edema

In advanced cases get hypoxic encephalopathy of brain

167
Q

What is seen histo in LHF

A

See yellow brown histiocytes in HF, HF cells- hemosiderin iron laden macrophage

fluid in lung alveoli

168
Q

What is most common cause of RHF besides LHF

A

Then associated with pulmonary HTN= COR pulmonale, or lung diseases like COPD

169
Q

What are findings of RHF

A

minimal pulmonary congestion, engorged systemic and portal venous systems

Liver- congestive hepatomegaly from passive congetion- nutmeg liver
if with L heart hypoxia- centrilobular necrosis
with central fibrosis- cardiac cirrhosis
Also: increased portal vein pressure, congestive splenomegaly, ascites

pleural and pericaridal effusions
peripheral edema of SUBCUT tissue
Renal congestion
brain hypoxia

170
Q

What is cardiomyopathy?

A

Heart disease resulting from a primary abnormality of myocardium, may be ischemic related or nonischemic
not including cardiac infections

171
Q

What are the three categories of cardiomyopathy

A

Dilated- most common, usually d/t alcohol, LV dilates to MV to LA. Increase cardiac mass, poor wall motion, all chambers dilate

Hypertrophic= thickening of LV esp the septal side, interfere with blood flowing into aorta

Restrictive= wall is normal to thick, things inside the heart make it harder to beat efficiently

172
Q

What are consequences of dilated cardiomyopathy and prognosis

A

mural thrombi can form from poor blood motion

Valvular regard from pulling the valves apart

Genetic in 35%
Remainder of people acquire it from 20-50 yo
it is a slow progression of signs and symptoms of CHF with acute decompensation
Death secondary to CHF or arrhythmia
transplant recommneded

173
Q

What is the etiology and causes of dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

Most common cardiomyopathy in young people

Causes: Previous myocarditis is most common known causes, then alcohol (or thiamine deficiency) is most direct toxic effect leading to it in 15-45% of cases. then other drugs or metals
Genetics in 25-35%- AD, abnormalities in cytoskeleton

Others: idiopahtic, drugs: coke, doxirubicin, sniffing flue, post partum,

thyroid or K level problems, nutritional or thiamine deficiency , iron overload

174
Q

what is pathophysiology of dilated cardiomyopathy

A

generalized decrease in contractility leading to global enlargement of the heart

See RHF LHF narrow pulse pressure d/t decreased SV and arrythmias

175
Q

What are the CO and EF in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

CO is low- less diastolic filling bc ventricle is so big

EF is high- i guess bc what volume you do have is pumped out

176
Q

What are finding of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A
exertional dyspnea
Limited CO from bad filling and increased pulmonary venous pressure
harsh systolic ejection murmur
angina
sudden death d/t arrthymias in athletes 

sporadic myocytes histo and banna shaped LV grossly

177
Q

What is etiology and prognosis and genetics of hypertrophic cardiomyopahty

A

most common cause of death in young athletes
1:500 affected
60-70% genetic linked- AD with complete penetrance
affects young people
genes mapped to chromosomes 11 and 14q missense mutation- LEADS TO BETA MYOSIN HEAVY CHAIN GENE MUTATION, affects myosin binding protein C and troponin T

sporadic form in old peole

178
Q

What causes some of the problems in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

most people have no obstruction but it is possible for anterior leaflet of MV to be drawn against the septum in systole- regurg?

Abbrent muscle fibers may cause arrthymias and sudden cardiac death

179
Q

What is ARVC

A

arrthymogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy

Inherited disease of cardiac muscle that causes right ventricular failure and rhythm disturbances leading to death in young people

RV wall is thin and fatty with fibrosis

AD with variable penetrance, defect in cell adhesion proteins in cardiac myoctes

180
Q

What is restrictive cardiomyopathy. What is it associated with

A

decrease in ventricular compliance with impaired filling during diastole

associated with amyloidosis - leads to stiff ventricle ad diastolic dysfucntion

181
Q

what are the types of amyloid discussed

A

Can get cardiac amyloid from systemic or isolated just to cardiac tissue

If just in cardiac tissue then can be:
Senile Cardiac amyloidosis: transthretin (prealbumin)
or
Isolated atrial amyloidosis- ANP, most common

SCA is better prognosis than systemic amyloid

182
Q

What is the histo you need to know for restrictive cardiomyopathy

A

Look for cardiac amyloid btn heart cells keeping it from functioning well

see extracellular eosinophilic protein deposited btn cardiac myocytes

BUT NEED TO KNOW: congo red stain amyloid is bright pink and then under polarized light see APPLE GREEN BIREFRINGENCE

183
Q

What is carcinoid heart disease

A

Dense endocardial fibrosis of R heart and valves, intimal thickening

1/2 patients have Right heart involvement= mass in small bowel or liver produce serotonin and 5HA that is goes to R heart before can be broken down = FIBROSIS CAUSING TV REGURG AND PV STENOSIS

patient with mall in small bowel and liver and flushing and sweating and RHF- carcinoid

184
Q

What is similar to caricnoid heart disease but in left heart

A

phen-fen and ergots

185
Q

What is a major causes of sudden death in adults less than 40

A

myocarditis

186
Q

What causes myocarditis

A

viruses- adenovirus most common, cosakie A and B

or Chagas from T cruzi

187
Q

How do you dx viral myocarditis

A

by serology or PCR but diffciult

myocardial biopsy may show lymphocytes and dead myocytes

188
Q

How do you treat viral myocarditis causes by T cruzi

A

nifurtimox

189
Q

What is effects of myocarditis on heart

A

global enlargement and dilation of all chambers and lymphocytic infiltration with focal areas of necrosis

see arrythmia, friction rub, biventricular heart failure with S1 and S2 sounds
Heart murmur from mitral regurg

190
Q

How do you dx myocarditis and what is seen on lab? Tx

A

Diagnosis- echo, ecg, cath

Lab- increased troponin, CKMB, antibodies to pathogen

Treat underlying cause- 50% die in 5 years

191
Q

What causes pericarditis

A

Usually idiopathic and secondary- drugs, RF, post MI, malignancy

If primary- then usually viral

192
Q

What is the difference btn serous and fibrinous pericarditis and purulent and hemmorhagic and Caseous

A

Serous- related to rheumatic fever, clear fluid

Fibrinous- clear fluid with fibrous exudate, seen after MI with Dressler’s syndrome
ASSOCIATED WITH PERICARDIAL FRICTION RUB

Purulent- infectious organism in pericardial space, lympathic or other cause, exudate is pus, red granular surface, leads to constrictive pericarditis

hemmorhagic- malignancy, TB clotting disorder, sx

Caseous- TB

193
Q

Important pericarditis findings

A

Tachy fever, chest pain relieved leaning forward, friction rub not disappear with breath hold, remote heart sound, decreased CO, neck vein distention on inspiration, hypotension in pulsus paradoxus- GREATER than 10mm decrease in systemic blood pressure with inspiration, troponin may be elevated

194
Q

What do you see with chronic pericarditis?

A

Soldier’s plaque- white benign plaque of epicardium
or
Adhesive medistinalpericarditis
or
Constritictive pericarditis- thick fibrous obliteration of pericardial sac

195
Q

what is the problem with pericardial effusion

A

pericardial and intraplueral pressures rise

pericardial= less diastolic filling R>L

Slow and larger from myxedema may be benign and small and fast can be fatal from trauma

196
Q

what is the most common cause of constrictive pericarditis in the world?

A

Tuberculous pericarditis

197
Q

what are forms of pericardial effusion and their causes

A

chylous- thoracic duct obtructed
cholesteral effusion- myxedema, RA, TB
hemmorhagic- TB tumorr infection bleeding disorder, sx

198
Q

What is a pericardial tamponade?

A

hemodynamic compromise resulting from a rapid increase in pericardial pressure, rapidly developing with significant volume, impairs diastolic filling, RA and RV collapse on echo
CO falls- compression from blood in pericardium