Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Differential Diagnosis > Week 2 > Flashcards

Week 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Who has the highest rates of depression?

A

18-24 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who has the lowest rates of depression?

A

Those > 65 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What gender has higher rates of depression?

A

Women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If you attained less than a high school education are you at a higher or lower risk of depression?

A

Higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the key exam items when it comes to looking for depression?

A

Acute pain that persists for more than 6-8 weeks

PHQ-2 and PHQ-9

DSM-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the criteria for the DSM-5 when ruling in depression?

A

Individual must be experiencing 5 or more symptoms during the same 2 week period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the main groups at risk for suicide?

A

Non-Hispanic American Indian/ Alaska native people

Non-Hispanic white people

Veterans

People living in rural areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What should you do as a PT if you suspect that someone is thinking about suicide?

A

Do not leave them alone until you give them a warm hand off where they will be taken care of

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where are the most common areas to experience a fracture?

A

Distal radius, proximal femur, ankle, proximal humerus, and metacarpals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the mean age for fragility fractures?

A

> 63 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the pathological reasons for fractures?

A

Osteoporosis, bone cancer, radiation, or corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What may lead someone to believe they have experienced a stress fracture?

A

They engage in a new strenuous or repetitive activity, changed running surfaces, and malnutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Who is high energy trauma fractures more common in?

A

Males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is high energy trauma?

A

More force than a bone can take

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a stress fracture?

A

Repetitive mechanical loading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the key exam items for fracture?

A

Pain on weight bearing or with percussion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the risk factors of cauda equina syndrome?

A

Tumors

Disc herniation

Female

Obesity

Age 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the pathogenesis of cauda equina syndrome?

A

Damage to cauda equina (usually due to disc protrusion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the key exam items for cauda equina syndrome?

A

Saddle anesthesia

Change in bladder/bowel function

Sexual dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What population experiences 10-40% of upper cervical instability?

A

Down syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What population experiences 7-14% of upper cervical instability?

A

RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the risk factors of upper cervical instability?

A

Trauma

Inflammatory causes (RA or ankylosing spondylitis)

Down syndrome or EDS

Surgical/medical problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the key exam items for upper cervical instability?

A

Intolerance to prolonged static posture

Special tests (sharp-purser, transverse and alar ligaments)

Movements that are not smooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are key exam items for cervical myelopathy?

A

Numbness in UE

Incoordination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the pathogenesis of cancer?
Multi step process (proliferation, survival, invasion, and metastasis)
26
What are the key exam items of cancer?
Unexplained weight loss or gain Age over 60 Previous history of cancer A sore that does not heal for 6 weeks
27
What is the pathogenesis of AAA?
Trauma/weightlifting Congenital vascular disease Infection Atherosclerosis
28
What are the risk factors of AAA?
Age > 60 Men History of smoking History of dyslipidemia and coronary heart disease
29
Where does pain usually occur in someone experiencing an MI?
Down the arms and up into the throat, neck, back, shoulder, or jaw
30
What is the Virchow triad that indicates DVT?
Venous stasis Activation of blood coagulation Vein damage
31
What percentage of DVT patients are asymptomatic?
50%
32
What are the key exam items of DVT?
Wells criteria Unilateral leg pain or swelling Warmth or discoloration
33
What is the pathogenesis of pulmonary embolism?
Clot breaks loose and travels through the bloodstream to the pulmonary circulation
34
Where does a pulmonary embolism most often come from?
LE DVT
35
What is the most common age for appendicitis?
10-20 years old
36
What is the pathogenesis of appendicitis?
Inflammation of the appendix (rupture may occur leading to peritonitis)
37
What is the pathogenesis of infectious disease?
Entry into the body, multiplication and spread, development of tissue damage, and production of immune response
38
What is the pathogenesis of diabetes mellitus?
Hyperglycemia resulting from abnormalities in either insulin secretion or insulin action (or both)
39
What is type 1 diabetes?
Autoimmune destruction of the pancreatic beta cells
40
What is type 2 diabetes?
Insulin resistance and insulin deficiency
41
What is gestational diabetes?
Onset during 2nd or 3rd trimester of pregnancy
42
What is a medical test used for DVT?
D-dimer
43
What is a medical test used for diabetes?
A1C test
44
What is retroperitoneal?
GI bleed associated with trauma
45
Who is more likely to have a GI bleed?
Men 2x more likely
46
What are physical exam findings of an acute GI bleed?
Drop in BP Little to no urination Rapid pulse Unconsciousness
47
What are physical exam findings with a chronic GI bleed?
Anemia Occult bleeding
48
What are specific infectious agents?
Viruses Bacteria Fungi Parasites Prions
49
What is a virus?
Subcellular organism made up of RNA or DNA covered with proteins (high mutation rates)
50
What will not work on viruses?
Antibiotics
51
What are most viruses?
Self limiting
52
What is bacteria?
Single-celled microorganism with well defined cell walls that can grow independently
53
How is bacteria treated?
Antibiotics
54
What is fungi?
Single-celled or multicellular organism
55
What are the two forms of fungi?
True pathogen (effects healthy people) Opportunistic pathogen (effects immunocompromised people)
56
What is a common fungus causing thrush, diaper rash, or athletes foot?
Yeast
57
What is a parasite?
Organism that lives on or in the host and gets it food at the expense of the host
58
How does a parasite infect a host?
Through the mouth or skin
59
What is a prion?
Infectious agent composed entirely of proteins that can fold in multiple ways leading to a disease similar to a virus
60
How does someone usually get a prion?
Animal to human
61
What are examples of direct contact?
Person to person Bites from animals or insects Mother to unborn child
62
What are examples of indirect contact?
Contact with contaminated surface Travel through the air
63
What are the big five diseases that have the greatest impact on mortality?
Pneumonia Diarrhea HIV/AIDS Tuberculosis Malaria
64
What is sepsis?
Life threatening complication of infection occurring when the immune reaction to infection triggers inflammatory responses throughout the body
65
Who is most at risk for sepsis?
Older adults and immunocompromised
66
What are the three stages of sepsis?
Sepsis Severe sepsis Septic shock
67
What are the signs of sepsis?
(Must have 2 symptoms) Body temp > 101 HR > 90 bpm RR > 20 breaths/min
68
What are the signs of severe sepsis?
(Must have one symptom) Decreased urine output Mental status change Decreased SBP < 84mmHg Difficulty breathing Abnormal heart pumping function Abdominal pain
69
What are signs of septic shock?
When someone has all signs of severe sepsis plus hypotension
70
What are antibiotic resistant infections?
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) (IV vancomycin and antibiotics) Vancomycin-resistant Enterococci infection (treatment options limited) Multi-drug resistant Acinetobacter baumannii (found in ICU environments)
71
Where are the common sites for Healthcare-associated infections?
Urinary tract Surgical wounds Joints Lower respiratory tract
72
What are common signs of infectious disease in the older adult?
Mental status change and Brady/tachycardia
73
What are common signs of infectious disease in young children?
Irritability, inconsolability, and generalized symptoms not related to illness
74
What may a skin rash or red streaks indicate?
Cellulitis
75
What are some screening tests to check for infectious disease in the CNS?
Kernig sign and Brudzinski sign
76
What are the referred pain areas for a GI infection?
Lumbosacral area Lower abdomen Mid thoracic R shoulder
77
What are the referred pain areas for a genitourinary infection?
L shoulder Low back Lower abdominal Suprapubic
78
What are the referred pain areas for an infection in the upper respiratory tract?
L shoulder Mid thoracic Mid chest
79
What rule should you go by in order to decide if you should proceed with PT in someone with an infectious disease?
Neck check (symptoms above the neck and good to go) Below and stop

Differential Diagnosis (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions