Week 12: Pharmacology of the Reproductive Systems Flashcards

1
Q

A nurse is educating a patient about contraception. Which method also provides protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs)?
A) Combination oral contraceptives
B) Progestin-only pills
C) Barrier methods
D) Intrauterine devices

A

Correct Answer:
C) Barrier methods
Rationale: Barrier methods, such as condoms, are the only contraceptive methods that also protect against STIs.

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2
Q

A male patient with BPH is prescribed tamsulosin, an alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist. What drug interaction should the nurse monitor for?
A) Warfarin
B) Antihypertensives
C) Proton pump inhibitors
D) NSAIDs

A

Correct Answer: B) Antihypertensives
Rationale: Tamsulosin can potentiate the effects of antihypertensives, increasing the risk of hypotension.

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3
Q

A patient is starting extended-cycle oral contraceptives (91-day cycle). What is an expected outcome of this regimen?
A) Regular monthly withdrawal bleeding
B) Fewer menstrual periods per year
C) Increased incidence of breakthrough bleeding
D) Reduced contraceptive effectiveness

A

Correct Answer: B) Fewer menstrual periods per year
Rationale: Extended-cycle OCs result in fewer withdrawal bleeding episodes, typically only four per year.

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4
Q

A patient using a transdermal contraceptive patch is concerned about forgetting to replace it on time. What should the nurse advise?
A) “You should apply a new patch immediately and use back-up contraception for 7 days.”
B) “It’s fine to wait until your next scheduled patch change.”
C) “Remove the current patch, leave it off for 24 hours, and apply a new one.”
D) “Apply two patches simultaneously to catch up on the dose.”

A

Correct Answer: A) “You should apply a new patch immediately and use back-up contraception for 7 days.”
Rationale: If a patch is forgotten, a new one should be applied immediately, and additional contraception should be used to maintain effectiveness.

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5
Q

Which of the following is a primary action of progesterone during pregnancy?
A) Stimulating follicular development
B) Maintaining the uterine lining for implantation
C) Triggering ovulation
D) Suppressing lactation until delivery

A

Correct Answer: B) Maintaining the uterine lining for implantation
Rationale: Progesterone supports the uterine lining, which is essential for implantation and pregnancy maintenance.

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6
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient taking progestin-only contraceptives. What adverse effect is most likely to occur?
A) Thromboembolic events
B) Irregular menstrual bleeding
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) Increased risk of endometrial cancer

A

Correct Answer: B) Irregular menstrual bleeding
Rationale: Progestin-only contraceptives commonly cause irregular menstrual bleeding, particularly during the first months of use.

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7
Q

A patient taking finasteride for BPH is concerned about a decrease in libido. What is the nurse’s best response?
A) “This is a rare side effect and will likely not affect you.”
B) “This is a common side effect of finasteride and may improve over time.”
C) “Decreased libido indicates an allergic reaction to the medication.”
D) “You should stop the medication immediately and call your provider.”

A

Correct Answer: B) “This is a common side effect of finasteride and may improve over time.”
Rationale: Finasteride commonly causes decreased libido, but this side effect often lessens with continued use

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8
Q

A patient taking combination oral contraceptives reports she takes St. John’s Wort for mood regulation. What should the nurse include in the teaching?
A) “St. John’s Wort may reduce the effectiveness of your contraceptive.”
B) “St. John’s Wort will increase the risk of side effects from your contraceptive.”
C) “You should stop taking St. John’s Wort immediately.”
D) “St. John’s Wort does not interact with contraceptives.”

A

Correct Answer: A) “St. John’s Wort may reduce the effectiveness of your contraceptive.”
Rationale: St. John’s Wort is a cytochrome P450 inducer and can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives by accelerating their metabolism.

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9
Q

A nurse is teaching a patient about the adverse effects of estrogen therapy. Which patient statement requires further clarification?
A) “This medication may increase my risk of blood clots.”
B) “I might experience nausea and headaches while on this medication.”
C) “Estrogen therapy can reduce my risk of breast cancer.”
D) “I need to notify my provider if I experience leg pain or swelling.”

A

Correct Answer: C) “Estrogen therapy can reduce my risk of breast cancer.”
Rationale: Estrogen therapy can increase the risk of breast cancer, especially in patients with a personal or family history of hormone-sensitive cancers.

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10
Q

A patient asks the nurse why estrogen and progestin are combined in oral contraceptives. The nurse explains:
A) “The combination prevents ovulation more effectively.”
B) “The progestin increases estrogen levels to enhance contraceptive effects.”
C) “The combination prevents menstrual periods entirely.”
D) “The estrogen balances the effects of progestin on cervical mucus.”

A

Correct Answer: A) “The combination prevents ovulation more effectively.”
Rationale: Estrogen and progestin work synergistically to suppress ovulation by inhibiting the release of FSH and LH.

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11
Q

A patient reports breakthrough bleeding while using oral contraceptives. The nurse knows this may be caused by:
A) Estrogen deficiency.
B) Excessive progesterone.
C) Increased testosterone levels.
D) Consistent use of contraceptives.

A

Correct Answer: A) Estrogen deficiency.
Rationale: Breakthrough bleeding is often due to an insufficient dose of estrogen in oral contraceptives.

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12
Q

A nurse is caring for a male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) who is prescribed an alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist. Which instruction should the nurse include in the patient teaching?
A) “Take this medication on an empty stomach.”
B) “This medication will shrink your prostate.”
C) “Change positions slowly to prevent dizziness.”
D) “You can stop taking this medication once symptoms improve.”

A

Correct Answer: C) “Change positions slowly to prevent dizziness.”
Rationale: Alpha-1 adrenergic antagonists can cause orthostatic hypotension, so patients should be advised to rise slowly to prevent dizziness.

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13
Q

A nurse is preparing to teach a patient about the menstrual cycle. Which hormone is responsible for triggering ovulation?
A) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
B) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
C) Progesterone
D) Estrogen

A

Correct Answer: B) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Rationale: A surge in LH mid-cycle triggers ovulation, causing the release of an ovum from the follicle.

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14
Q

A patient with a history of gallbladder disease is prescribed oral combination contraceptives. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A) Administer the medication as prescribed.
B) Educate the patient on using additional contraceptive methods.
C) Inform the provider about the patient’s medical history.
D) Instruct the patient to take the medication on an empty stomach.

A

Correct Answer: C) Inform the provider about the patient’s medical history.
Rationale: Combination oral contraceptives can exacerbate gallbladder disease, so the nurse should notify the provider for further evaluation.

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15
Q

A nurse is educating a patient about long-acting reversible contraceptives (LARCs). Which statement by the patient indicates correct understanding?
A) “I will need to take this contraceptive every day at the same time.”
B) “LARCs include options like intrauterine devices and subdermal implants.”
C) “LARCs are only effective for up to 6 months.”
D) “I need to stop using LARCs when I turn 30.”

A

Correct Answer: B) “LARCs include options like intrauterine devices and subdermal implants.”
Rationale: Long-acting reversible contraceptives include intrauterine devices (IUDs) and subdermal implants, which provide extended contraception without daily adherence.

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16
Q

We see an increase in this hormone from the corpus luteum during the second phase of the menstrual cycle.

A) FSH
B) Estrogen
C)Progestin

A

The correct answer is: C) Progesterone.

Explanation:
During the luteal phase (the second phase of the menstrual cycle), the corpus luteum forms from the follicle after ovulation and secretes progesterone. This hormone helps prepare the uterine lining for potential implantation of a fertilized egg.

While estrogen is also produced in smaller amounts during this phase, the key hormone responsible for maintaining the luteal phase is progesterone. FSH (Follicle-Stimulating Hormone) levels decline after ovulation.

17
Q

This form of long-acting birth control causes a chemical change in the female body that is toxic to sperm:
A) Progestin-coated IUD
B) Copper IUD
C) Depot SC injection
D) Implanted subdermal progestin

How long is it effective for?

A

B) Copper IUD

Rationale:
A copper IUD can be effective for up to 10 years depending on the specific type and brand, making it one of the longest-lasting forms of reversible contraception.

18
Q

A nurse is educating a patient on the role of estrogen in the female body. Which of the following is NOT a function of estrogen?
A. Supporting bone mass by reducing resorption
B. Promoting endometrial proliferation
C. Increasing testosterone production
D. Supporting development of female reproductive organs

A

Answer: C. Increasing testosterone production
Rationale:

C (Correct): Estrogen does not increase testosterone; testosterone is converted into estrogen in specific tissues.
A: Estrogen supports bone mass by reducing bone resorption.
B: Estrogen supports the endometrial lining during the menstrual cycle.
D: Estrogen plays a critical role in the development of female reproductive organs.

19
Q

What is the mechanism of action of combination oral contraceptives (OCs)?
A. Prevents ovulation by suppressing FSH and LH release
B. Thickens cervical mucus, making sperm penetration difficult
C. Modifies the endometrium to make implantation unfavorable
D. All of the above

A

Answer: D. All of the above
Rationale:

D (Correct): Combination OCs have multiple mechanisms, including suppressing ovulation, thickening cervical mucus, and altering the endometrial lining.
A: Estrogen suppresses FSH, and progestin prevents the LH surge, inhibiting ovulation.
B: Progestin thickens cervical mucus, creating a barrier for sperm.
C: The endometrium becomes less hospitable for implantation.

20
Q

A patient with a history of smoking and aged 38 is prescribed combination oral contraceptives. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Educate the patient on the risks of thromboembolism
B. Advise the patient to quit smoking
C. Switch the patient to progestin-only pills
D. Encourage the use of barrier contraception

A

Answer: C. Switch the patient to progestin-only pills
Rationale:

C (Correct): Combination OCs are contraindicated for smokers over the age of 35 due to increased thromboembolism risk.
A: While education is important, switching the medication is the priority.
B: Quitting smoking is beneficial but does not resolve the immediate contraindication.
D: Barrier methods may be suggested but are not the primary action for managing risks.

21
Q

A patient taking finasteride for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) asks how the medication works. The nurse explains:
A. “It blocks alpha-1 receptors to relax prostate muscles.”
B. “It shrinks the prostate by reducing dihydrotestosterone (DHT) levels.”
C. “It inhibits testosterone production.”
D. “It dissolves prostate tissues over time.”

A

Answer: B. “It shrinks the prostate by reducing dihydrotestosterone (DHT) levels.”
Rationale:

B (Correct): Finasteride inhibits 5-alpha-reductase, reducing DHT, which shrinks prostate tissue.
A: Alpha-1 blockers relax smooth muscle but do not shrink the prostate.
C: Finasteride reduces DHT, not testosterone production.
D: Finasteride does not dissolve tissues but causes regression of epithelium.

22
Q

Which adverse effect is associated with progestin-only oral contraceptives?
A. Increased thromboembolism risk
B. Breast tenderness
C. Irregular bleeding
D. Severe hypertension

A

Answer: C. Irregular bleeding
Rationale:

C (Correct): Progestin-only OCs commonly cause irregular bleeding.
A: Thromboembolism risk is lower with progestin-only OCs.
B: While breast tenderness can occur, it is less common with progestin-only OCs.
D: Severe hypertension is not associated with progestin-only pills.

23
Q

A nurse explains the menstrual cycle to a patient. Which event occurs during the luteal phase?
A. Follicle maturation
B. Ovulation
C. Formation of the corpus luteum
D. Shedding of the endometrium

A

Answer: C. Formation of the corpus luteum
Rationale:

C (Correct): During the luteal phase, the ruptured follicle becomes the corpus luteum.
A: Follicle maturation occurs in the follicular phase.
B: Ovulation marks the transition from the follicular to luteal phase.
D: Shedding of the endometrium occurs if implantation does not happen.

24
Q

Which of the following patients should NOT receive estrogen therapy?
A. A postmenopausal woman with osteoporosis
B. A pregnant woman
C. A patient with acne
D. A young female with hypogonadism

A

Answer: B. A pregnant woman
Rationale:

B (Correct): Estrogen therapy is contraindicated during pregnancy.
A: Estrogen can help with osteoporosis in postmenopausal women.
C: Estrogen therapy can be used for acne.
D: Estrogen supports female maturation in hypogonadism.

25
Q

What is a key adverse effect of depot medroxyprogesterone (Depo-Provera)?
A. Thromboembolism
B. Bone density loss
C. Weight loss
D. Increased libido

A

Answer: B. Bone density loss
Rationale:

B (Correct): Depot injections can cause bone loss with long-term use.
A: Thromboembolism is more associated with estrogen-containing contraceptives.
C: Weight gain, not weight loss, is more common.
D: Progestins generally decrease libido.

26
Q

Which contraceptive method is safest for a breastfeeding mother?
A. Combination oral contraceptives
B. Progestin-only pills
C. Transdermal patch
D. Vaginal ring

A

Answer: B. Progestin-only pills
Rationale:

B (Correct): Progestin-only pills are safer for breastfeeding mothers as they do not suppress milk production.
A, C, and D: These methods contain estrogen, which can reduce milk supply.

27
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient taking an alpha-1 blocker for BPH. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?
A. Hypotension
B. Tachycardia
C. Increased PSA levels
D. UTI symptoms

A

Answer: A. Hypotension
Rationale:

A (Correct): Non-selective alpha-1 blockers can cause hypotension by relaxing smooth muscle in blood vessels.
B: Tachycardia is not a common adverse effect.
C: PSA levels are affected by 5-alpha reductase inhibitors, not alpha-1 blockers.
D: UTI symptoms are unrelated to the medication’s action

28
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action of a copper intrauterine device (IUD)?
A. Thickens cervical mucus to prevent sperm penetration
B. Releases progestin to suppress ovulation
C. Causes a foreign-body reaction toxic to sperm
D. Alters the endometrial lining to inhibit implantation

A

Answer: C. Causes a foreign-body reaction toxic to sperm
Rationale:

C (Correct): The copper IUD causes a foreign-body reaction that produces chemical changes toxic to sperm, preventing fertilization.
A and B: These mechanisms are related to hormonal contraceptives, not copper IUDs.
D: While hormonal IUDs modify the endometrial lining, this is not the primary mechanism of the copper IUD.

29
Q

A nurse is teaching a patient about the adverse effects of progestin-only contraceptives. Which symptom is most commonly associated with this medication?
A. Severe nausea and vomiting
B. Irregular bleeding
C. Hypertension
D. Thromboembolism

A

Answer: B. Irregular bleeding
Rationale:

B (Correct): Irregular bleeding is the most common side effect of progestin-only contraceptives.
A: Severe nausea is more common with estrogen-containing contraceptives.
C: Progestin-only contraceptives have a lower risk of hypertension compared to combination OCs.
D: Thromboembolism risk is minimal with progestin-only methods.

30
Q

A patient taking finasteride for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is concerned about potential side effects. Which adverse effect should the nurse include in teaching?
A. Erectile dysfunction
B. Hypotension
C. Increased PSA levels
D. Breast tenderness

A

Answer: A. Erectile dysfunction
Rationale:

A (Correct): Finasteride can cause decreased libido and erectile dysfunction due to reduced DHT levels.
B: Hypotension is more common with alpha-1 blockers, not finasteride.
C: Finasteride decreases PSA levels; if they don’t drop, further testing for prostate cancer is needed.
D: Breast tenderness is rare but more likely with hormonal contraceptives.

31
Q

A nurse is educating a patient starting combination oral contraceptives. Which condition is an absolute contraindication to this medication?
A. Migraine with aura
B. Type 2 diabetes
C. History of breast cancer
D. Gallbladder disease

A

Answer: C. History of breast cancer
Rationale:

C (Correct): A history of breast cancer is an absolute contraindication because estrogen can promote cancer growth.
A: Migraine with aura is a relative contraindication but not absolute.
B and D: These conditions are considered relative contraindications, depending on the severity.

32
Q

A patient receiving depot medroxyprogesterone injection asks why long-term use is discouraged. What is the nurse’s best response?
A. “It increases the risk of thromboembolism.”
B. “It can cause significant bone loss over time.”
C. “It may lead to permanent infertility.”
D. “It causes severe hypertension.”

A

Answer: B. “It can cause significant bone loss over time.”
Rationale:

B (Correct): Depot medroxyprogesterone injections can cause bone density loss, limiting its use to no more than two years.
A: Thromboembolism risk is not significant with progestin-only contraceptives.
C: Fertility returns after discontinuation.
D: Severe hypertension is not associated with depot injections.

33
Q

The nurse is educating a patient about the adverse effects of estrogen therapy. Which of the following are possible adverse effects? (Select all that apply)
A. Endometrial cancer
B. Thromboembolic events
C. Gallbladder disease
D. Bone density loss
E. Breast cancer

A

Answers: A, B, C, E
Rationale:

A (Correct): Estrogen can increase the risk of endometrial hyperplasia and cancer, particularly when used without progestin.
B (Correct): Estrogen increases coagulation factors, raising the risk of thromboembolic events.
C (Correct): Estrogen therapy is linked to gallbladder disease due to altered bile composition.
D (Incorrect): Estrogen supports bone mass by reducing bone resorption, not causing bone loss.
E (Correct): Estrogen can promote the growth of estrogen-dependent breast cancer but does not cause it directly.

34
Q

A nurse is teaching a patient about the benefits of combination oral contraceptives (OCs). Which of the following are non-contraceptive benefits of combination OCs? (Select all that apply)
A. Decreased risk of ovarian cancer
B. Improved bone density
C. Decreased risk of endometrial cancer
D. Protection against breast cancer
E. Lessened menstrual cramping

A

Answers: A, C, E
Rationale:

A (Correct): Combination OCs reduce the risk of ovarian cancer due to decreased ovulation.
B (Incorrect): Combination OCs do not directly improve bone density; estrogen therapy is more specific for this purpose.
C (Correct): OCs decrease the risk of endometrial cancer by regulating endometrial proliferation.
D (Incorrect): OCs may promote the growth of existing breast cancer; they do not protect against it.
E (Correct): OCs reduce menstrual cramping by stabilizing hormone levels and thinning the endometrium.

35
Q

The nurse is assessing a patient prescribed finasteride for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Which of the following teaching points should the nurse include? (Select all that apply)
A. “This medication may decrease your libido.”
B. “It is safe to donate blood while taking this medication.”
C. “You may notice a decrease in PSA levels.”
D. “Avoid handling this drug if you are pregnant or may become pregnant.”
E. “This medication will immediately relieve your symptoms.”

A

Answers: A, C, D
Rationale:

A (Correct): Decreased libido is a common adverse effect of finasteride.
B (Incorrect): Finasteride is teratogenic, and patients should not donate blood while on this medication to prevent harm to pregnant recipients.
C (Correct): Finasteride decreases PSA levels; if PSA does not decline, further evaluation for prostate cancer is needed.
D (Correct): Pregnant individuals or those trying to conceive should avoid handling finasteride due to its teratogenic effects on male fetuses.
E (Incorrect): Finasteride does not provide immediate relief; it can take months to reduce prostate size and improve symptoms.

36
Q

The nurse is educating a patient about the risks associated with combination oral contraceptives. Which patient conditions would be considered absolute contraindications for these medications? (Select all that apply)
A. History of thromboembolism
B. Smoking at age 40
C. Migraine with aura
D. Type 1 diabetes
E. Known or suspected pregnancy

A

Answers: A, B, E
Rationale:

A (Correct): A history of thromboembolism is an absolute contraindication due to increased clotting risk with estrogen.
B (Correct): Smokers over the age of 35 are at significant risk for thromboembolic events and should not take combination OCs.
C (Incorrect): Migraine with aura is a relative contraindication but not absolute.
D (Incorrect): Diabetes is a relative contraindication unless complicated by severe vascular issues.
E (Correct): Known or suspected pregnancy is an absolute contraindication, as OCs have no role during pregnancy

37
Q

A nurse is explaining the mechanisms of action of progestin-only contraceptives to a patient. Which of the following describe how progestin-only contraceptives work? (Select all that apply)
A. Suppress ovulation
B. Thicken cervical mucus
C. Alter the endometrial lining
D. Increase FSH production
E. Promote endometrial proliferation

A

Answers: A, B, C
Rationale:

A (Correct): Progestin-only contraceptives can suppress ovulation, though not as reliably as combination OCs.
B (Correct): Progestin thickens cervical mucus, creating a barrier to sperm penetration.
C (Correct): Progestin alters the endometrial lining, making it less hospitable for implantation.
D (Incorrect): Progestin suppresses, not increases, FSH production.
E (Incorrect): Progestin thins the endometrial lining rather than promoting its proliferation.