Week 12 - hyponatraemia, nephrotic syndrome, obesity, obstructive sleep apnea Flashcards

1
Q

what are the normal sodium levels

A

135-145mmol/L

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2
Q

what are the types of hyponatraemia

A

Hypovolaemic
Euvolaemic
Hypervolaemic
Iso-osmolar
Hypertonic

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3
Q

what is hypovolaemic hyponatraemia due to

A

typically due to excess sodium loss

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4
Q

how is SIADH related to hyponatraemia

A

persistent release of ADH leading to water retention

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5
Q

what kind of hormonal insufficiency leads to hyponatraaemia

A

Addison’s
Hypothyroidism
Pregnancy – HCG ‘sets’ osmostat lower by 5 mmol/L

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6
Q

why do we correct sodium level slowly

A

to avoid central pontine myelinolysis

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7
Q

what are the common interventions for hyponatraemia

A

Fluid restriction to 800mls daily (or at minimum to less than urine output) – Used for oedematous states (heart and liver failure), SIADH, primary polydipsia and advanced renal failure

Cease any implicated medications

Isotonic or hypertonic (3%) saline – if true volume depletion (removes stimulus for ADH release) or adrenal insufficiency (replaces Na+ lost from kidneys)

ADH antagonist

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8
Q

when does nephrotic syndrome occur

A

when the basement membrane in the glomerulus becomes highly permeable to protein, allowing proteins to leak form the blood into the urine.

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9
Q

in who is nephrotic syndrome most common

A

in children between the ages of 2 and 5

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10
Q

how does nephrotic syndrome usually present

A

with frothy urine, generalised oedema, and pallor

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11
Q

what is the classic triad of nephrotic syndrome

A

Low serum albumin
High urine protein content (>3+ protein on urine dipstick)
Oedema

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12
Q

what are the three other features that occur in patients with nephrotic syndrome

A

Deranged lipid profile, with high levels of cholesterol, triglycerides and low density lipoproteins

High blood pressure

Hyper-coagulability, with an increased tendency to form blood clots

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13
Q

what are most cases of nephrotic syndrome due to

A

> 80% of cases are due to glomerulonephrotis

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14
Q

what happens in this syndrome

A

there is damage to the podocytes.

It was once thought that this allowed albumin to leak out into the tubule, thus causing proteinuria and hypoalbuminemia, and leading to reduced plasma oncontic pressure and peripheral oedema. The damage to the podocytes was thought not to be significant enough to allow RBC’s through the gaps thereby rendering haematuria unlikely. Recently, this theory has come under scrutiny as it has been discovered that the aforementioned situation does not cause a change in oncotic pressure, confirming the presence of an alternative pathology causative of oedema.

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15
Q

what are the primary causes of nephrotic syndrome that are diagnoses of exclusion that are only made if secondary causes cannot be found

A

Minimal change disease (MCD)

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

Membranous nephropathy

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16
Q

what are the secondary causes - note that these fall into the same three cateogries as the primary causes

A

Membranous nephropathy (MN) – Hep B, SLE, diabetes M, sarcoidosis, syphilis, malignancy

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis –HIV, obesity, diabetes M, hypertensive nephrosclerosis

Minimal change disease –drugs, malignancy, particularly Hodgkin’s lymphoma

17
Q

what does nephrotic syndrome increase the risks of

A

increased susceptibility to infection - partly due to loss of immunoglobulin in the urine

also increases the risk of thromboembolism and hyperlipidaemia

18
Q

what are the investigations for nephrotic syndrome

A

same carried out in glomerulonephritis

check cholesterol as part of confirming the presence of hyperlipidaemia

19
Q

why do you order a renal biopsy for adults

A

because in children, the main cause is minimal change GN, and steroids are first line treatment.

therefore, in children biopsy is necessary only if pharmaceutical intervention fails to improve the situation

20
Q

what is the management of nephrotic syndrome usually based on

A

involves treatment of the underlying condition which is usually GN

therefore, fluid management and salt intake restriction are priorities

21
Q

what medications is the patient usually given in nephrotic syndrome

A

furosemide along with an ACE inhibitor and/or angiotensin II receptor antagonist

prophylatic heparin is given if the patient is immobile.

22
Q

what is hyperlipidaemia treated with

A

a statin

23
Q

describe the hypercoagulant state seen in nephrotic syndrome and how this presents and is treated

A

can be a risk factor for renal vein thrombosis

it presents as loin pain, haematuria, palpable kidney and sudden deterioration in kidney function

this should be investigated with Doppler USS, MRI or renal angiography

24
Q

what does diagnosis of PCOS require

A

Diagnosis requires 2 of the below (and thus can be clinical – without the need for investigations):
- Signs of hisutism
- Oligomenorrhoea (<9 periods per year)
- >12 peripheral ovarian follicles OR ovarian volume >10mls on USS

25
Q

what is the first line medication approved for weight loss

A

ortlistat

reduces the absorption of fat by inhibiting pancreatic and gastric lipases

26
Q

which drug is thought to suppress hunger

A

phentermine (duromine and metermine)

27
Q

what is obstructive sleep apnoea caused by

A

a collapse of the pharyngeal airway

28
Q

what is OSA characterised by

A

episodes of apnoea during sleep, where the person stops breathing periodically for up to a few minutes

29
Q

what are the risk factors for obstructive sleep apnoea

A

Middle age
Male
Obesity
Alcohol
Smoking

30
Q

what are the features of obstructive sleep apnoea

A

Episodes of apnoea during sleep (reported by their partner)
Snoring
Morning headache
Waking up unrefreshed from sleep
Daytime sleepiness
Concentration problems
Reduced oxygen saturation during sleep

31
Q

what can severe episodes of obstructive sleep apnoea cause

A

Severe cases can cause hypertension, heart failure and can increase the risk of myocardial infarction and stroke.

32
Q

what is the Epworth Sleepiness Scale used to do

A

used to assess symptoms of sleepiness associated with obstructive sleep apnoea

33
Q

what is the top tip for OSCEs and OSA

A

TOM TIP: If interviewing someone you suspect has obstructive sleep apnoea, ask about daytime sleepiness and occupation. Daytime sleepiness is a crucial feature that should make you suspect obstructive sleep apnoea. Patients that need to be fully alert for work, for example, heavy goods vehicle operators, require an urgent referral and may need amended work duties whilst awaiting assessment and treatment.

34
Q

what is the management of patients with obstructive sleep apnoea

A

require referral to an ENT specialist to perform sleep studies.

this involves the patient sleeping in a labarotory whilst staff monitor their oxygen saturation, heart rate, respiratory rate and breathing to establish any episodes of apnoea and the extent of their snoring

35
Q

what is the first step of management in OSA

A

to correct reversible risk factors by advising them to stop drinking alcohol, smoking or lose weight

36
Q

what is the second step in management of OSA

A

to use CPAP machine that provides continuous pressure to maintain the patency of the airwau

37
Q

is surgery an option in obstructive sleep apnoea

A

yes.

this involves quite significant surgical reconstruction of the soft palate and jaw.

the most common procedure is a uvulopalatopharyngoplasty (UPPP).

38
Q
A