Week 11: Cancer Flashcards

1
Q

What is the role of Hedgehog signalling in development?

A
  • Hh signalling regulates the morphogenesis of tissues and organs
  • The Hh signalling pathway has 3 ligands:
    1. Sonic hedegehog (Shh): expressed in many tissues- the primary ligand
    2. Indian hedgehog (Ihh): bone
    3. Desert hedgehog (Dhh): male sexual development
  • Each ligand activates the same pathway after binding to the receptor
  • Roles of Shh signalling in development are:
    1. Limb development
    2. Neural tube differentiation
    3. Facial morphogenesis
    4. Hair and feather development
    5. Forming the midline of the body
  • Shh is a morphogen
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2
Q

What are the two major receptors of hedgehog ligands?

A
  1. Patched (Ptch) receptor:
    - A 12-pass membrane receptor
    - Represses the Hh pathway (when unbound by ligand)
    - A tumour suppressor gene
  2. Smoothened (Smo) receptor:
    - A 7 pass membrane receptor
    - Activates the Hh pathway
    - A protooncogene
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3
Q

How does Hh signalling work when a ligand is bound?

A
  1. When Shh binds to the patched receptor
  2. Ptch stops repressing smoothened receptor which undergoes a conformational change and activates
  3. Activated Smo regulated the activity of a family of TFs known as glioma-associaated TFs (Gli)
  4. Activation of Gli by Smo allows them to translocate to the nucleus and transcribe a variety of Hh target genes, including:
    - Gli1 (when levels of Gli1 are high, there is activation of the Hh pathway)
    - Ptch (enables negative feedback of Hh pathway)
    - Cyclin D (promotes cellular proliferation)
    - VEGF (promotes angiogenesis)
  5. When ligand is bound SUFU is also inactive so the Gli 1-3 TFs are not converted to GliR
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4
Q

How does Hh signalling work when no ligand is bound?

A
  1. When no Shh ligand is bound to Patched, Ptch is able to repress the function of smoothened
  2. Inactivation of Smo results is the complete inactivation of the downstream signalling pathway
  3. SUFU is active when no ligand is bound and contributes to the processing of Gli (1-3) into a repressor of transcription (GliR)
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5
Q

How does Hh signalling change the distribution of receptors on the cilia?

A
  • Cilia are microtubule based protrusions of the plasma membrane
  • Cilia form at G1 and resorb prior to mitosis
  • There is dynamic movement of signalling molecules at the cilia with the intraflagellar transport of Ptch, Smo and Gli
  • Membrane bound receptors also move into the cilia from the somatic plasma membrane (also through interaction with IFT proteins)
  • In the absence of Shh ligand:
  • Ptch is localied to the primary ciliium membrane and repressed Smo which is outside the cilium membrane on the somatic plasma membrane
  • In the presence of Shh ligand, The Shh ligand binds the Ptch receptor which prevents the inhibition of Smo
  • This causes Ptch to leave the cilium and Smo to enter the cilia membrane from the somatic plasma membrane
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6
Q

What are the positive regulators of Shh signalling?

A
  • Ligand binding (Shh)
  • Smoothened receptor
  • Gli activator
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7
Q

What are the negative regulators of Shh signalling?

A
  • Patched receptor activity when unbound
  • Suppressor of fused (SUFU)
  • Gli repressor
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8
Q

What are the 3 types of Hh signalling dependent cancers?

A

Type 1:

  • Loss of function of Ptch1 or gain of function of Smo
  • Ligand independent

Type 2:

  • Autocrine model
  • All tumour cells and cancer stem cells respond to the Hh ligand produced by the cancer cells
  • Ligand dependent

Type 3:

  • Paracrine model
  • Tumour cells secrete Hh ligand and stromal cells respond and produce growth factors etc. so support tumour growth such as VEGF
  • Ligand dependent
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9
Q

What is medulloblastoma?

A
  • The most common malignant brain tumour in children (median age 5 years)
  • Cancer of the cerebellum
  • Often disseminates throughout the CNS early in disease
  • There are 4 subtypes of medulloblastoma:
    1. Wnt
    2. SHH
    3. Group 3
    4. Group 4
  • Shh medulloblastoma is derived from granule cell precursors in the cerebellum
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10
Q

Describe the development of the cerebellum and how it relates to the cell of origin of Shh medulloblastoma:

A
  1. Granule cell precursors (GCPs) undergo massive cell proliferation early in post natal life
  2. Purkinje cells secrete Shh ligand which stimulates the proliferation of the GCPs in the external granular layer
  3. GCPs from the external granular layer migrate as they differentiate into neurons and then settle in the Internal granular layer
  4. The Granule neurons in the internal granular layer are the only neuronal cell type in the cerebellum
  • Granule neurons are the cell of origin of Shh medulloblastomas
  • Ligand dependent medulloblastomas are associated with an increase in Purkinje cell secretion of Shh or hypersensitivity to the Shh
  • Ligand independent medulloblastomas are associated with mutations in Ptch of Smo receptors of GPCs which results in the hyperactiviton of the Hh signalling pathway in these cells (resulting in increased proliferation of GPCs in the EPL and reduced migration and differentiation into neurons)
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11
Q

What genetic events are common in the development of medulloblastoma?

A
  1. Loss of function mutations in Ptch1 (TSG)
  2. Gain of function mutations in Smo (oncogene)
  3. Loss of function mutations in SUFU (TSG)
  4. Gain of function mutations in Gli (which keep is contiuitively active) (Oncogene)
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12
Q

Explain the molecular basis of cancer predisposition syndrome:

A
  • Some people inherit one mutated allele of a tumour suppressor gene so they are heterozygotes
  • Over months to years, the second allele of the tumour suppressor gene mutates resulting in a loss of heterozygosity
  • This can lead to the development of cancer
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13
Q

How does ligand-dependent Hedgehog signalling cause cancer?

A

Hh-dependent tumours may be ligand dependent and driven by:

  1. Overexpression of the ligand Shh
    - This causes hyperactivation of the Hh signalling pathway
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14
Q

How does ligand-independent Hedgehog signalling cause cancer?

A
  1. Loss of one Patched allele (heterozygous): reduces repression of smoothened
    - Most common
  2. Activating mutations in Smoothened: Smo is no longer inhibited by Patched so there is increased signalling
    - Most common
  3. Loss of SUFU of inactivating mutations in SUFU: Promotes Gli activation and Hh target gene transcription
    - Unusual
  4. Overexpression of GliA: renders GliA constiuitively active and thus promotes Hh signal transduction and target gene transcription
    - Moderately common
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15
Q

What genetic changes are often observed in Medulloblastoma?

A
  1. Heterozygous loss of Ptch causes medulloblastoma
  2. Oncogenic gain of function mutation of SmoM2 resulting in it consituitively being active and expressed on primary cilium
    - More aggressive mutation
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16
Q

What are the treatment options of medulloblastoma?

A

Traditionally:

  • Aggressive surgery, radiotherapy and chemotherapy
  • Has a 50% 5 year cure rate
  • Treatment often results in significant endocrinological issues however

New treatment options:
- Targeted therapeutics such as inhibitors of the Hh pathway
E.g. inhibitors of Smo, inhibitors of Gli and inhibitors of microtubule assembly (to prevent the formation of primary cilia)
- As Hh signalling has a critical role in many developmental processes- use of Hh signalling inhibitors in children is a concern
- There has been success with trialled Smo inhibitors however relapse of disese tends to occur due to drug resistant mutations

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17
Q

Describe traditional chemotherapy:

A
  • Not selective for cancer cells over fast-normal dividing cells e.g. crypt cells in GI tract
  • All of the mechanisms essentially target cell division and thus
  • Traditional mechanisms of action of chemotherapeutic drugs are:
    1. Antimetabolites:
  • Block enzyme required for DNA synthesis or induce DNA damage
    2. Alkylating agents:
  • Bind via an alkyl group to DNA resulting in crosslinking which causes DNA strand breaking and apoptosis
    3. Antimicrotuble agents:
  • Either stabilise or prevent the assembly of microtubules which blocks cell division
    4. Topoisomerase inhibitors:
  • Block DNA unwinding and thus blocks DNA replication and transcription
    5. Cytotoxic antibiotics:
  • Intercalate and generate free radicals that damage DNA
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18
Q

What are the best targets of targeted cancer therapies?

A
  • Protein kinases are molecules that transfer a phosphate group from ATP to a serine, theronine or tyrosine residue on a substrate protein
  • Many oncogenes are deregulated protein kinases that have increased activity due to gene translocation, amplification, mutation or overexpression
  • The reaction involves the transient binding of protein kinase enzymes to both the ATP and the substrate protein
    E.g. Bcr-Abl translocation resulting in CML
    E.g. erbB2/HER2 amplification in breast cancer
    E.g. EGFR in NSCLC
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19
Q

Describe the structure of protein kinases and how it changes upon activation:

A
  1. Kinase domain
  2. Active site that binds ATP
  • In inactive kinases, the activation loops blocks the ATP and substate binding cleft
  • Upon kinase receptor activation e.g. by binding of a ligand) the tyrosine phosphorylation of the activation loops leads to a major conformational change
  • This allows ATP and substrate access to the binding clefts and allows phosphorylation of the substrate protein to occur
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20
Q

What types of protein kinase inhibitors are there?

A

Type 1:

  • Binds to the ATP pocket when it is in active conformation (DFG in)
  • ATP competitive

Type 2:

  • Binds to the ATP pocket when it is inactive (GFP out)
  • Locks the active site into the inactive conformation so it can not be activated

Type 3:

  • Bind outside of the ATP binding pocket
  • Harder to develop but potentially more selective
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21
Q

How does the Philadelphia translocation cause the development of chronic myeloid lukemia?

A
  • The Philadelphia chromosome arises due to a reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 9 (has Abl) and 22 (has Bcr)
  • It results in the formation of a small chromosome that is essentially chromosome 22 (with Bcr) fused to Abl (from chromosome 9)
  • The gene fusion of Bcr to the N-terminus of Abl blocks the attachment of the fatty acid that exerts a negative regulatory effect on the action of Abl tyrosine kinase
  • The Bcr protein tends to aggregate meaning the fusion Bcr-Abl proteins will oligomerise and activate as well as be aberrantly localised (be mainly in cytoplasm)
  • Bcr-Abl activates signalling pathways that alter cell adhesion and promote cell proliferation (via activation of Ras/Raf/Erk pathway) and survival (via PI3K/Ajt signalling)
  • The Bcr-Abl fusion protein is an oncogenic mutation that the CML cells require to proliferate
22
Q

How does Glivec work?

A
  • Glivec is a small molecule drug that inhibits the kinase activity of recombinant Abl found in Bcr-Abl fusion proteins which are in CML cells
  • It is therefore able to block the proliferation of Bcr-Abl expressing cells
  • It has dramatically improved patient outcomes for CML (5 year survival rate up to 89%)
  • Most chronic phase patients treated with Glivec eventually relapse however
23
Q

What is CML?

A
  • CML is a malignant clonal disorder of haematopoietic stem cells
  • Initially the disease presents in the chronic phase with increased numbers of committted myeloid progenitor cells which differentiate to generate high numbers of mature granulocytes
  • After 4-6 years (traditionally) the disease would process from the chronic phase to the acute phase to the fatal blast crisis phase
  • Within the fatal blast crisis stage the HSCs fail to differentiate and the immature cells (termed blasts) proliferate rapidly
24
Q

How does Glivec resistance in CML patients occur?

A

Drug resistance to Glivec occurs due to:

  1. Mutation of the Abl kinase domain (50%)
  2. Bcr-Abl gene amplification
  3. Increased expression of other tyrosine kinases
  4. Altered expression of drug transporter proteins
  5. Mutations of the gatekeeper residue T315I to isoleucine that blocks drug access
  6. Other mutations in regions such as the ATP binding domain and activation loops
25
Q

What therapies are used in patients with Glivec resistance?

A
  • There are 3 drugs that are able to bind more strongly to unmutated Bcr-Abl and inhibit most mutant forms, except T315E
  • Ponatinib is a type 2 inhibitor that avoids steric clashes with isoleucine in T315I mutants so can inhibit the mutant
26
Q

What is EGFR?

A
  • EGFR (epidermal growth factor receptor) is a cell surface tyrosine kinase receptor
  • It has an extracellular domain that binds EGF which causes dimerisation of the receptor, activation of the intracellular tyrosine kinase domain and phosphorylation and activation of downstream signalling pathways e.g. Ra/Erk
  • EGFR expression is increased in a large amount of human cancers and is associated with cancer progression and poor prognosis
  • It is targeted in EGFR+ NSCLC
27
Q

How is EGFR inhibited?

A
  • Using drugs such as the small molecule erlotinib
  • Erlonitib binds in the cavity of the EGFR kinase domain and inhibits kinase activity
  • Causes a reduction in tumour growth
  • It is an approved therapy for patients with NSCLC that have failed chemotherapy
  • Patients that respond best have point mutations and deletions in the EGFR kinase domain such as L858R in the activation loop
  • The presence of EGFR mutations is positively correlated with clinical response to NSCLC
28
Q

Why do females, non-smokers, people of Asian descent and those with adenocarcinomas respond best to EGFR inhibitors?

A
  • These people are more likely to have mutations in the EGFR in their cancers
  • Mutations in EGFR include deletions in exon 19 and exon 21 L858R substitution
  • Mutations enhance the EGFR activation and also lower affinity of the receptor ATP which favours binding of the inhibitor drug
  • This makes the cancer much more responsive to these inhibitor drugs
29
Q

How does resistance to EGFR tryrosine kinase inhibitor drugs occur?

A
  • After initial responses (especially seen in patients with EGFR mutations), patients usually exhibit disease progression after 9-12 months
  • This is most commonly due to a secondary mutation T790M which is a gatekeeper residue of the kinase domain which increases the affinity for ATP above that of the inhibitor drugs
  • Other mechanisms of resistance include amplificaiton of overexpression of RTK MET (and other tyrosine kinases not effected by EGFR inhibitor drugs)
30
Q

How is EGFR TKI resistance overcome?

A
  • The most common mechanism of resistance if the gatekeeper T790M mutation
  • New drugs are being developed that bind EGFR T790M selectively over wildtype EGFR which are irreversible binders
31
Q

What are mechanisms of acquired resistance to kinase inhibitors?

A
  1. Mutations that block drug binding
  2. Upregulation of a different kinase
  3. Downregulation of phosphatase
32
Q

What are mechanisms of intrinsic resistance to kinase inhibitors?

A
  • This is when cells do not respond to drugs in the first place:
    1. The kinase targeted is redundant
    2. Mutation of downstream kinases such as F-Ras
33
Q

What is a cancer biomarker?

- What are the 4 types?

A
  • A cancer biomarker is a distinct biochemical, genetic or molecular characteristic or substance that is an indicator of a particular biological condition or process
  • They can be:
  1. Diagnostic:
    - Used to identify cancer type and/or classify subtype
    E.g. Prostate specific antigen (PSA), Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), HPV (uterine/cervical cancer, PML-RARA- lukemia subtype
  2. Pharmacodynamic:
    - Can be used to guide dose selection of drugs in early stage development
    E.g. assessing phosphorylation of a target cancer by an oncogenic kinase when a kinase inhibitor is administered
  3. Prognositc:
    - Used to determine likely outcomes of the disease e.g. likelihood of disease progression and patient survival
    - Can guide whether more aggressive treatment is needed
  4. Predictive:
    - Used to guide the choice of specific drug/treatment regimes based on molecular genotype/phenotype
    E.g. Presence of EGFR mutations in NSCLC determines if patients receive EGFR TKI drugs
34
Q

What type of biomarker is Estrogen Receptor?

A
  • Estrogen receptor (ER) is a prognostic and predictive biomarker for breast cancer
  • Prognostic: ER+ breast cancers have better prognosis
  • Predictive: ER+ breast cancers respond to hormonal therapy such as tamoxifin
35
Q

What type of biomarker is HER2?

A
  • HER2 receptor is a prognostic and predictive biomarker
  • Prognostic: HER2+ breast cancer is associated with a poor outcome
  • Predictive: HER2+ breast cancer can be treated with herceptin
36
Q

What is Mammaprint?

A
  • Mammaprint is a test of prognostic biomarkers of breast cancer
  • Uses mRNA extracted from tumours and slides with oligonucleotides against all the different genes are hybridised wih the mRNA
  • Provides a means of assessing the expression of 70 genes in breast cancers via microarray analysis of tissue
  • The results from MammaPrint determine if a caner is Low risk or High risk of metastasis, this guides how aggressive the treatment given is
37
Q

What is Oncotype DX?

A
  • Analysis of 16 cancer genes by aRT-PCR expression
  • Is prognostic and predictive
  • Prognostic: estimates the risk of recurrence of early state ER+ breast cancer
  • Predictive: estimates how likely the patient it so benefit from chemotherapy after surgery
38
Q

What is MammaStat?

A
  • A five antibody test of ER+, tamoxifin treated breast cancer
  • Investiages 5 genes
  • Prognostic: can estimate risk of the cancer recurring within 1-0 years
  • Predictive: can be used to estimate how likely patients will be to respond to certain treatments such as hormonal treatments
39
Q

What does KRAS/BRAF Testing in Colorectal cancer show?

A
  • This is predictive marker
  • Patients with mutations in KRAS/Braf are less likely to respond to anti-EGFR antibody drug (Cetuximab) as their signalling may be receptor independent
40
Q

What is the benefit of clinical trial design encorporating predictive biomarkers?

A
  • Effectiveness of therapies is assessed in Phase III RCTs
  • Using predictive biomarkers to stratify the participant population enables the detection of small patient subgroups that respond to treatment, that would not be evidence if an unstratified patient population was tested
  • The predictive biomarkers associated with the efficacy of a particular therapeutic are also called companion biomarkers
41
Q

How are human cancers subclassified according to molecular biomarkers?

A
  • Advances in genetic techniques such as microarrays and next-gen sequencing has allowed for the molecular subclassification of cancers
  • The best example is the subclassification of breast cancers into 5 subtypes:
    1. HER2
    2. Luminal B
    3. Basal
    4. Normal breast-like
    5. Luminal A
42
Q

Describe the differences between breast cancer subgroups:

A
  1. Expression of ER
    - ER+ types: Luminal A and Luminal B
    - ER- types: HER2, Basal Subtype and Normal breast-like
  2. Patient Prognosis:
    - ER+ subtypes have the best prognosis, Luminal A then Luminal B
    - HER2 and Basal subgroups have the worst
  3. Cell of origin:
    - Luminal A and Luminal B arise from highly differentiated luminal cells
    - HER2 subtype arises from late luminal progenitor cells (involves the HER2 gene)
    - Basal subtype arises from luminal progenitor cells and can involve a BCR1 mutation
  4. Mutation types:
    - Luminal A breast cancers often have activating mutations in PI3K
    - Basal subtype breast cancers have mutations in p53 commonly
43
Q

Why is the prognosis for basal breast cancers so poor?

A
  • These cancers are triple negative (lack ER, PR and HER2)
  • High expression of proliferation-related genes
  • p53 mutations common
  • BRCA-1 cancers are generally basal
  • Lack targeted therapies and prognostic markers for stratification
  • The only current treatment is chemotherapy
44
Q

How can new therapeutic targets be found for the treatment of ‘non-druggable’ cancers such as Basal breast cancer?

A
  • Currently drug discovery and classification is based on genomic and transcriptome approaches
  • Global profiling of phosphorylation events may be a means of identifying new therapeutic targets
  • Global mapping of tyrosine phosphorylation events by mass spectroscopy could show what P-Tyr are expressed at high levels in basal breast cancer
  • This could potentially develop new therapeutic targets
  • Srs family tyrosine kinases govern cellular signalling in basal breast cancer, using multikinase inhibitors against the SFKs may be effective
45
Q

What are biotype subclassifications of cancer?

A
  • This classification system ignore organ/morphology of the cancer and instead focuses on molecular phenotype
    E.g. HER-2-dependent cancers that can be treated with trastuzumab- this would include a proportion of breast and gastric cancers
46
Q

What is monoclonal antibody therapy?

A
  • The therapy uses monoclonal antibodies to bind to cell surface proteins on cancer cells or to proteins that promote cancer growth/metastasis

Outcomes:

  • Block the activity and/or function of the protein antigen
  • Stimulate cancer cell death (ADCC)
  • Delivery of toxin or radioisotope (radioimmunotherapy)
47
Q

How do therapeutic mAbs target cancer cells for death?

A
  1. ADCC (antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity)
    - Antibody binds to tumour antigen with its variable region
    - Immune cells such as granulocytes and monocytes can recognise the Fc region of the antibody and initiate the death of the opsonised cell
  2. CMC/CDC (complement mediated/dependent cytotoxicity)
    - Antibody binds to tumour antigen with its variable region
    - Complement proteins recognise the Fc regions and leads to the activation of the complement system and the assembly of the MAC which can destroy the cancer cell
48
Q

What monoclonal antibodies are approved for treatment of cancer?

A
  • Trastuzumab (Herceptin) is a humanised monoclonal antibody that targets HER2 in breast cancers
49
Q

What is the HER2 receptor?

A
  • A member of the EGFR family which consists of HER1, HER2, HER3 and HER4
  • HER1-4 are composed of 3 domains, extracellular: binds ligand, transmembrane: anchors and intracellular/kinase domain: contains tyrosine kinase domain
  • HER1/2/4 exhibit tyrosine kinase activity
  • HER2 does NOT bind ligands, it is activated through heterodimerisation with HER1/3/4
  • HER2 extracellular domain adopts a conformation resembling a ligand-activated state which allows heterodimerisation in the absence of ligand
  • If HER2 sheds its extracellular domain it will be constiuitively active
  • HER2 activates multiple pathways including MAP kinase and PI3 kinase
  • HER2 promotes cell growth, survival, cell cycle progression and angiogensis
50
Q

How is HER2 mutated in some breast cancers?

A
  • HER2 can be mutated so it is oncogenic via:
    1. HER2 is amplified (multiple HER2 genes)
    2. HER2 is overexpressed (many HER2 receptors/proteins)
51
Q

What action does herceptin (Trastuzumab) have on HER2?

A
  1. Binds the extracellular domain of HER2
  2. Blocks HER2 dimerisation
  3. Blocks HER2 tyrosine kinase activity
  4. Blocks HER2 extracellular domain shedding
  5. Promotes HER2 degradation
  • Results in reduced downstream MAP/PI3-kinase signalling, inhibits proliferation and angiogenesis and promotes apoptosis
52
Q

How does Hereceptin resistance occur?

A
  • Expression of truncated p95HER2 which lacks the extracellular domain
  • Increased signalling by other HERs
  • Hyperactivation of MAP-K or PI3-K via mutation of other pathway components