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Immunology and Virology > Week 11 > Flashcards

Week 11 Flashcards

1
Q

There are two ‘branches’ to the immune system - what are they?

A

Innate and adaptive

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2
Q

Compare innate and adaptive immunity

A

INNATE - non-specific, fast, includes myeloid cells, chemical barriers and physical barriers
ADAPTIVE - specific, slower, immunological memory

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3
Q

Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils and mast cells are all what?

A

Granulocytes

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4
Q

Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are all what?

A

Polymorphonuclear cells (PMNs)

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5
Q

What does PMN stand for?

A

Polymorphonuclear cell

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6
Q

Which myeloid cells are PMNs?

A

Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils

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7
Q

Which myeloid cells are granulocytes?

A

Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils and mast cells

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8
Q

Myeloid cells are all part of ____ immunity

A

Innate immunity

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9
Q

NK cells are part of ____ immunity

A

Innate

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10
Q

B and T cells are part of _____ immunity

A

Adaptive

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11
Q

What are PMNs?

A

Polymorphonuclear cells have multiple lobes

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12
Q

What are granulocytes?

A

Granulocytes contain granules in their cytoplasm

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13
Q

What is an example of a physical barrier in innate immunity?

A

Epithelium, cilia, skin, nails, mucosa

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14
Q

What is an example of a chemical barrier in innate immunity?

A

Lysozymes, low pH of stomach

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15
Q

How does neutrophilic phagocytosis kill pathogens?

A

Cytoplasmic granules - fuses to form phagolysosome and lowers pH to kill some (≈2%)
Oxidative burst - the cell takes up ++ pathogens, eventually releases ++ ROS such as H2O2, killing itself and the pathogens inside it

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16
Q

What is oxidative burst?

A

A way neutrophils can kill pathogens
Engulfs via phagocytosis, eventually once full with pathogens releases ++ ROS such as H2O2 and kills itself w/ the pathogens inside it

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17
Q

Out of the three PMNs, which is most common?

A

Neutrophils (eosinophils and basophils less common in comparison)

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18
Q

Name three key features of eosinophils

A

Stains pink w/ eosin
Phagocytic
Known for targeting parasite (has specific receptors for this)
Larger than neutrophils

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19
Q

Name three key features of basophils

A

Stains blue with haematoxylin
Non-phagocytic
Helps with parasite
Causes inflammation in asthma and allergic response

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20
Q

Are eosinophils phagocytic?

A

Yes, eosinophils are phagocytic

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21
Q

Are basophils phagocytic?

A

No, basophils are not phagocytic

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22
Q

Are mast cells phagocytic?

A

No, mast cells are not phagocytic

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23
Q

What is the most prominent type of leukocyte?

A

Neutrophil

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24
Q

What are the primary lymphoid organs?

A

In adaptive immunity, where the immune cells originate and develop

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25
Q

What are the secondary lymphoid organs?

A

In adaptive immunity, the sites of immune response

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26
Q

In terms of the different immune response, where do DCs fit in?

A

Play a key role in bridging the gap between innate and adaptive immunity by presenting Ag to B and T cells

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27
Q

Monocytes are only found in _____

A

blood

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28
Q

Macrophages are only found in _____

A

tissue

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29
Q

DCs and macrophages come from which cell type?

A

Monocytes

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30
Q

What happens when a DC first engulfs a pathogen by phagocytosis?

A

Destroys the pathogen, breaking down into small amino acid chains
Travels to the lymph node
Presents these AA chains as an Ag on its surface, allowing a T cell w/ the specific binding site to bind
Connects innate and adaptive

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31
Q

Are DCs phagocytic?

A

Yes, DCs are phagocytic when they are young and immature

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32
Q

Are macrophages APCs?

A

Macrophages are APCs

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33
Q

How is a T cell primed?

A

Binds specifically to an APC displaying an Ag on a MHC

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34
Q

What is the MHC?

A

What’s used to present the Ag to T cells, allowing them to become primed

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35
Q

Do B cells need Ags to be bound to an MHC?

A

No, B cells don’t need Ag to be bound to a MHC

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36
Q

Are B cells capable of Ag presentation?

A

Yes, B cells are capable of Ag presentation

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37
Q

Are B cells capable of phagocytosis?

A

Yes, B cells are capable of phagocytosis

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38
Q

B cells present Ag to T cells via which MHC molecule?

A

B cells present Ag to T cells via MHC II

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39
Q

Binding of a T cell to an Ag presenting B cell allows what for the Bc ell?

A

The B cell to mature into a plasma cell

As a plasma cell it can release Abs (secreted form of BCR)

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40
Q

How do NK cells kill target cells?

A

Release cytotoxic granules directly into the cell, which bind to phospholipids and create pores, or
cause apoptosis

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41
Q

Humoral immunity involves which type of cells?

A

B cells (plasma cells, Ab release)

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42
Q

Cell mediated immunity involves which type of cells?

A

T cells

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43
Q

Only DCs can prime naive T cells for maturation - true of false?

A

FALSE. Any APC can prime naive T cells, but it is usually DCs

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44
Q

What are the two main types of T cell?

A

CD4+ and CD8+

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45
Q

What does CD (as in CD8, CD4) stand for?

A

Cluster of differentiation

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46
Q

Which CD molecule do all T cells have?

A

CD3

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47
Q

T helper cells are positive for which CD molecule?

A

CD4+

48
Q

Cytotoxic T cells are positive for which CD molecule?

A

CD8+

49
Q

CD4+ cells need Ags to be presented on which MHC molecule?

A

CD4+ T cells need Ags to be presented on MHC II

50
Q

CD8+ cells need Ags to be presented on which MHC molecule?

A

CD8+ cells need Ags to be presented on MHC I

51
Q

Which CD molecule is the best defining molecule on ir in a B cell?

A

CD19

52
Q

As well as engulfing and killing microorganisms, phagocytic cells also release what?

A

Release pro-inflammatory mediators to recruit neutrophils and other cells to the infection site

53
Q

What are 3 pro-inflammatory mediators released by phagocytic cells to recruit more cells

A 
IL-1β
IL-6
CXCL8
TNF⍺
IL-12
54
Q

What are the two types of granules neutrophils contain?

A

Primary/azurophilic granules (MPO)

Secondary/specific granules (lactoferrin)

55
Q

Name two effects of pro-inflammatory cytokines have on the body

A

Fever
Vasodilation
Oedema
Pain

56
Q

What are the three professional APCs?

A

DCs
Macrophages
B cells

57
Q

Ags presented on MHC II can interact with which type of T cell?

A

CD4+

58
Q

Ags presented on MHC I can interact with which type of T cell?

A

CD8+

59
Q

In terms of binding, T cells need what two things for activation?

A

Ag presentation via MHC for binding w/ TCR

B7 co-stimulator to bind w/ CD28

60
Q

What is the role of CD28?

A

Binds to B7 co-stimulator on APC to deliver key signals leading to T cell activation

61
Q

What is the key function of Th1 CD4+ cells?

A

Activate macrophages, help them to suppress intracellular infections

62
Q

What is the key function of Th17 CD4+ cells?

A

Enhance neutrophil response to fungal and extracellular bacterial infections

63
Q

What is the key function of Th2 CD4+ cells?

A

Activate cellular and Ab response to parasites

64
Q

What is the key function of Tfh CD4+ cells?

A

Activate B cells
Switch isotype
Maturation of Ab response (increase Ab affinity)

65
Q

What is the key function of Treg CD4+ cells?

A

Suppress other effector T cells

66
Q

IL-12 and IFN-γ induce CD4+ cells into which functional state?

A

Th1

67
Q

IL-6, TGF-β and IL-23 induce CD4+ cells into which functional state?

A

Th17

68
Q

IL-4, IL-2 and IL-33 induce CD4+ cells into which functional state?

A

Th2

69
Q

IL-6, IL-21 and ICOSL induce CD4+ cells into which functional state?

A

Tfh

70
Q

TGF-β and IL-2 induce CD4+ cells into which functional state?

A

Treg

71
Q

What is antigen processing?

A

Metabolic process that digests proteins into smaller peptides through the use of the proteasome

72
Q

What is the proteasome?

A

A large protease complex involved in protein degradation (and Ag processing)

73
Q

___ can be used induced constitutive proteasome to become an immunoproteasome

A

interferon

74
Q

On which chromosome is MHC located?

A

chromosome 6

75
Q

What are the 3 class I genes in humans?

A

HLA-A
HLA-B
HLA-C

76
Q

What are HLA-E and HLA-G able to do?

A

Form ligands w/ NK cells

77
Q

What are the 3 pairs of class II genes in humans?

A

HLA-DR
HLA-DP
HLA-DQ

78
Q

What are HLA-DM and HLA-DO able to do?

A

Supervise peptide loading of DP, DQ and DR (= MHC class II-like molecules)

79
Q

CD8 predominantly deals with which sort of pathogen?

A

Viruses

80
Q

Why do almost all cells express MHC I?

A

Viruses can infect any nucleated cell. CD8 (which binds to MHC I) deals with virus infected cells

81
Q

Almost all cells express MHC class II - true or false?

A

FALSE. MHC II molecules are mostly found on professional APCs

82
Q

The expression of both class I and class II molecules is regulated by ___

A

cytokines

83
Q

Which cytokine(s) increase class I?

A

IFN-⍺ and IFN-β

84
Q

IFN-⍺ and IFN-β increase which MHC class?

A

MHC I

85
Q

IFN-γ increases which MHC class?

A

It increases both

86
Q

Ag presented by MHC class I are ___

A

endogenous (synthesised by the cells that present them)

87
Q

Ag presented by MHC class II are ____

A

exogenous (not generated within the cytosol, mainly from the endocytic pathway via autophagy)

88
Q

Endogenous Ags are presented by which MHC class?

A

MHC I

89
Q

Exogenous Ags are presented by which MHC class?

A

MHC II

90
Q

How do MHC II molecules acquire Ag?

A

Exogenously, mainly from the endocytic pathway through a process known as autophagy

91
Q

Describe the key points and effects of MHC II deficiency

A 
Inherited autosomal recessive, faulty TF. Interferon doesn't induce class II molecules. Pts = deficient in CD4+ and have hypogammaglobulinaemia. T cells also respond to non-specific stimuli
HSCT = treatment of choice
92
Q

Describe the key points of MHC I deficiency

A

Inherited recessive. Lack of class I leads to insuff. maturation and so profound deficiency of CD8+.
May have mutations of TAP1 and TAP2
May suffer from repeated respiratory infections

93
Q

As well as class II and class II-like molecules, the class II region also contains genes for _____

A

TAP1 and TAP2 peptide transporters

94
Q

What do TAP1 and TAP2 do?

A

They are peptide transporters. They translocate peptides into the ER until they bind MHC I molecules and are delivered to the cell surface

95
Q

Where are TAP1 and TAP2 genes found?

A

In the MHC class II region on chromosome 6

96
Q

Which cytokines induce CD4+ cells into Th1 functional state?

A

IL-12

IFN-γ

97
Q

Which cytokines induce CD4+ cells into Th2 functional state?

A

IL-4
IL-2
IL-33

98
Q

Which cytokines induce CD4+ cells into Th17 functional state?

A

IL-6
TGF-β
IL-23

99
Q

Which cytokines induce CD4+ cells into Tfh functional state?

A

IL-6
IL-21
ICOSL

100
Q

Which cytokines induce CD4+ cells into Treg functional state?

A

TGF-β

IL-2

101
Q

What is the defining TF for Th1?

A

T-bet

102
Q

What is the defining TF for Th2?

A

GATA3

103
Q

What is the defining TF for Th17?

A

ROR-γ

104
Q

What is the defining TF for Tfh?

A

Bcl6

105
Q

What is the defining TF for Treg?

A

FoxP3

106
Q

What are the major cytokines released by Th1?

A

IFN-γ
IL-2
TNF
(minor = LT, GM-CSF, IL-3)

107
Q

What are the major cytokines released by Th2?

A 
IL-4
IL-5
IL-6
IL-13
(minor IL-10, IL-3, GM-CSF)
108
Q

What are the major cytokines released by Th17?

A

IL-17A
IL-21
IL-22
(minor IL-17F, TNF)

109
Q

What are the major cytokines released by Tfh?

A

IL-4
IL-21
CD40L

110
Q

What are the major cytokines released by Treg?

A

IL-10
TGF-β
IL-35

111
Q

IFN-γ, IL-2 and TNF are the major cytokines released by which CD4+ effector cell?

A

Th1

112
Q

IL-4, IL-5, IL-6 and IL-13 are the major cytokines released by which CD4+ effector cell?

A

Th2

113
Q

IL-17A, IL-21 and IL-22 are the major cytokines released by which CD4+ effector cell?

A

Th17

114
Q

IL-4, IL-21 and CD40L are the major cytokines released by which CD4+ effector cell?

A

Tfh

115
Q

IL-10, TGF-β and IL-35 are the major cytokines released by which CD4+ effector cell?

A

Treg

Immunology and Virology (6 decks)

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