Week 10 - GU Flashcards

1
Q

What is the primary function of the renal system?

A

Maintains homeostasis by regulating fluid and electrolytes, regulating acid–base balance, removing waste, producing RBC production hormone, bone metabolism, and controlling blood pressure.

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2
Q

What does RAAS stand for?

A

Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System.

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3
Q

What is the daily blood filtration volume by the kidneys?

A

Approximately 180L of blood.

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4
Q

What percentage of filtered blood volume is excreted as urine?

A

About 1%.

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5
Q

What is the nephron responsible for?

A

Formation of urine through glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption, and tubular secretion.

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6
Q

What substances are filtered by the kidneys?

A
  • Hydrogen ions (H+)
  • Urea
  • Creatinine
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7
Q

What does aldosterone do in the renal system?

A

Increases sodium and water reabsorption and decreases urine volume

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8
Q

What stimulates the secretion of Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)?

A

Increase in osmotic pressure of ECF and decrease in volume of ECF.

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9
Q

What is pyelonephritis?

A

A bacterial kidney infection that typically begins as a urinary tract infection (UTI).
- can be acute or chronic
- r/t the ascent of bacteria from the bladder to the kidneys
- mostly affects children and older adults

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10
Q

What are common symptoms of urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

A
  • Pain on urination
  • Foul-smelling, cloudy urine
  • Frequent urge to urinate
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11
Q

What are the types of urinary tract calculi?

A
  • Calcium
  • Struvite
  • Uric acid
  • Cystine
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12
Q

What is the most common type of renal stone?

A

Calcium.

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13
Q

What are the age-related considerations for the renal system?

A
  • Decrease in size and weight of kidneys
  • Decrease in filtration capacity
  • Increased urinary incontinence
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14
Q

Fill in the blank: The kidneys filter out ________ and produce urine.

A

[waste products]

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15
Q

True or False: The bladder’s walls stretch to store urine.

A

True.

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16
Q

What is the role of the ureters?

A

Carry urine from the kidneys to the bladder.

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17
Q

What is the significance of measuring BUN and creatinine?

A

Helps evaluate renal function.

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18
Q

What does urinalysis help detect?

A
  • Color
  • Clarity and odor
  • Presence of protein, glucose, ketones
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19
Q

What is nephrolithiasis?

A

The presence of calculi in the kidneys.

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20
Q

What are some risk factors for urinary tract calculi?

A
  • Dehydration
  • High sodium intake
  • Obesity
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21
Q

What is the function of urine culture in diagnostics?

A

Determines the presence of bacteria and the strain of pathogen.

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22
Q

What is the primary metabolite derived from dietary protein?

A

Urea.

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23
Q

What is the main purpose of lithotripsy?

A

To break down kidney stones using sound or shock waves to crush stones
- stent may be inserted into affected urter after procedure to maintain patancy after lithotripsy procedures

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24
Q

What are common clinical manifestations of pyelonephritis?

A
  • Flank pain
  • Fever
  • Chills
  • Vomiting
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25
Q

Fill in the blank: The glomerulus allows ________ and waste products to pass through.

A

[fluid]

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26
Q

What can cause urinary obstructions?

A

Intrinsic and extrinsic factors, such as tumors or neurological issues.

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27
Q

What is the function of the renal pelvis?

A

Collects urine from the kidneys before it enters the ureters.

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28
Q

True or False: Healthy kidneys filter creatinine and other waste products from the blood.

A

True.

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29
Q

What is the typical treatment for small kidney stones?

A

Watchful waiting and increased fluid intake.

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30
Q

What is the first step in the empirical treatment of a urinary tract infection (UTI)?

A

Broad spectrum antibiotic with aminoglycosides

Followed by treatment according to sensitivity from culture and sensitivity (C&S) results.

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31
Q

What are common antibiotics used for UTIs after initial empirical treatment?

A
  • Trimethoprim
  • Sulphamethoxazole
  • Fluoroquinolones

These antibiotics are chosen based on the sensitivity results from urine culture.

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32
Q

What are the nursing diagnoses for chronic pyelonephritis?

A
  • Impaired urinary elimination
  • Pain

These diagnoses guide the nursing care plan for patients with chronic pyelonephritis.

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33
Q

What are the goals for planning care in chronic pyelonephritis?

A
  • Pain relief
  • Normal body temperature
  • Normal renal function
  • No relapse

These goals help in evaluating the effectiveness of the nursing interventions.

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34
Q

What educational interventions are important for managing chronic pyelonephritis?

A
  • Education on bladder emptying
  • Perineal wiping
  • Avoiding perineal irritants
  • Avoid unnecessary urinary instrumentation and catheterization
  • Education on sexual activity and urination

These interventions aim to reduce the risk of infection and promote bladder health.

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35
Q

What is the most common pathogen responsible for UTIs?

A

E. coli

E. coli is a common bacterium that can cause urinary tract infections.

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36
Q

How are UTIs classified?

A
  • Uncomplicated
  • Complicated

Complicated UTIs are related to obstruction, stones, instrumentation, catheters, or existing disease.

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37
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of a UTI?

A
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Anorexia
  • Chills
  • Malaise
  • Urinary frequency
  • Hesitancy
  • Nocturia
  • Suprapubic/flank pain
  • Pressure in the bladder
  • Costovertebral tenderness
  • Bladder spasms
  • Dysuria
  • Burning

These symptoms can vary and may indicate the presence of a UTI.

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38
Q

What are some risk factors for developing UTIs?

A
  • Urological instrumentation
  • Sexual intercourse
  • Bacteria from vagina/perineum
  • Spinal cord injuries or nerve damage
  • Obstruction (calculi, enlarged prostate)
  • Diabetes or immune system issues

These factors increase the likelihood of developing a urinary tract infection.

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39
Q

What older adult considerations are important regarding UTIs?

A
  • Higher incidence of chronic illness
  • Frequent antibiotic use
  • Acute confusion or delirium
  • Possible cognitive impairment
  • Immobility
  • Decrease in bladder tone
  • Incontinence
  • Nonspecific symptoms (altered sensorium, lethargy, anorexia, low-grade fever, N/V, falls)

Older adults may present differently when experiencing a UTI, making clinical judgment critical.

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40
Q

What diagnostic tests are used for UTIs?

A
  • Urinalysis (dipstick)
  • Clean catch urine sample
  • Nitrates (indicator of bacteriuria)
  • WBCs
  • Leucocyte esterase
  • Urine C&S
  • CBC/electrolytes
  • IVP/CT (if obstruction is considered)

These tests help confirm the diagnosis and assess for complications.

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41
Q

What are the pharmacological treatments for UTIs?

A
  • Cephalosporins
  • Penicillins
  • Bactrim/Septra
  • Ciprofloxacin
  • Levofloxacin
  • Analgesics
  • Anti-inflammatories

These medications are commonly prescribed for treating urinary tract infections.

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42
Q

What non-pharmacological management strategies can help with UTIs?

A
  • Cranberry supplements or juice

Cranberry products may help prevent UTIs by preventing bacterial adhesion to the urinary tract.

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43
Q

What are the goals for planning care in UTI management?

A
  • Pain relief
  • Normal body temperature
  • Normal renal function
  • No recurrent infection

Education on completing the full course of antibiotics is crucial to prevent recurrence.

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44
Q

What interventions should be included in the care plan for UTI management?

A
  • Education on bladder emptying every 2-4 hours
  • Perineal wiping
  • Avoiding perineal irritants
  • Avoid unnecessary urinary instrumentation and catheterization
  • Education on sexual activity and urination
  • Education on hydration

These interventions are aimed at reducing the risk of infection and promoting health.

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45
Q

What are common reasons for reduced renal function?

A
  • Dialysis

Reduced renal function can lead to increased risks for various complications, including UTIs.

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46
Q

What systems in the urinary tract help prevent infection?

A
  • One-way valves at ureter-bladder junction
  • Urination washes microbes out of the body

These mechanisms are crucial for maintaining urinary tract health.

47
Q

What is the primary reproductive organ in the male reproductive system

A

Testes
1. production and transportation of sperm
2. Deposit of sperm in the female reproductive tract
3. Secretion of hormones

48
Q

What are the primary reproductive organ in the female system

A

Ovaries
1. Production of ovaries (eggs)
2. Protection and facilitation of fetus during gestation
3. Secretion of hormones

49
Q

Ejaculatory path of sperm (SEVEn UP)

A

Seminiferous tubules
Epididymis
Vas deferents
Ejaculatory ducts
N
Urethra
Penis

50
Q

Hormonal regulation in males

A
  • regulated by hormones such as testosterone, luteinizing Hormone (LH) , follicle stimulating hormones (FSH)
51
Q

Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

A
  • type of benign obstructive uropathy
  • enlarged prostate can partially obstruct the urethra causing urinary changes (nocturnal is the most common symptom)
    -1/2 of all men 50+ years have some signs of BPM
  • risk factors are smoking, aging, obesity, sedentary lifestyle, diabetes, family hx
52
Q

Dutasteride (avodart) (5a reductase inhibitor)

A
  • reduces the size of the prostate gland
    -5a reductase (ase= an enzyme) normally converts testosterone to dihydroxytestosterone (DHT) which is the main androgen r/t prostate growth
  • S/E: decreased libido, decreased volume of ejaculate, erectile dysfunction
53
Q

Tamsulosin (Flo max) [a1-adrenergic receptor antagonist “alpha blocker”]

A
  • relaxes the smooth muscles in the prostate
  • block alpha 1 recpetors (SNS) which are located in the smooth muscle of the blood vessels, bladder and prostate
  • alpha blockers are also used to treat HTN
  • S/E: postural hypotension, dizziness, fatigue, nasal congestion
54
Q

Function of female reproductive organs

A
  • primary function of female reproductive organs include ovulation, fertilization and childbirth
  • uterus provides an environment for embryo implantation and development throughout pregnancy
55
Q

Hormonal regulation in females

A
  • involves the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries
    -produces hormones like estrogen, progesterone, luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
    -estrogens are a group of hormones (estradiol, estrone, and estriol) that are primarily produced in fertile years, menopause and pregnancy respectively
56
Q

Common disorders affecting FRS

A
  • PCOS
  • endometriosis
  • uterine fibroids
  • breast health and menopause are prioritized
57
Q

Female changes —> largely r/t estrogen reduction

A

Breast changes
- decreased subcutaneous fat and skin turgor, increased fibrous tissue (r/t less glandular tissue)
Vulvar changes
- decreased skin turgor
Vaginal changes
- atrophy of tissue, decreased muscle tone, alkaline ph (normally the PH of the vagina is acidic)
Urethral changes
- decreased muscle tone
Uterine changes
- decreased thickness of myometrium
Ovarian changes
- atrophy, with decreased ovarian function

58
Q

Male changes —> largely r/t testosterone reduction

A

Penile changes
- decreased subcutaneous fat and skin turgor
Testicular changes
- muscle atrophy
- loss of firmness
Prostate changes
- benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
Breast changes
- enlargement of tissue (gynecomstia is abnormal enlargement)
- enlargement of this sue

59
Q

Common serum (blood) studies (GU)

A
  • serum human chorionic gonadtropin (HCG)
  • serum testosterone
  • serum prolactin
  • serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA_ indicating pathology of the prostate (not necessarily prostate cancer)
  • serum progesterone
  • serum estradiol
  • serum follicular stimulating hormone
  • venereal diseases (STI)
  • C&S (vaginal, urethral, cervical, and sperm)
  • C&S (vaginal, urethralm cervical, or sperm)
60
Q

Common urine studies

A
  • urine human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
  • urine testosterone (24 hour urine collection)
  • urine follicular stimulating hormone (FSH) (24 hour collection)
61
Q

Common reproductive imaging

A

mammography (x-ray of breast tissue)
- women aged 50-69 screened Q2 years
Ultrasound (includes abdominal, trans vaginal, transrectal)
-CT
-MRI

62
Q

Estrogen reduction in s&s in menopause

A
  • vasomotor (hot flashes, night waves)
  • GU (incontinence, atrophic vaginitis, vaginal dryness leading to painful sex)
  • MSK (increased risk of fractures and osteoporosis)
  • CVS (decreased HDLs and increased LDLs, increased CAD risk)
    -Integ (breast tissue changes, decreased collagen content of the skin, redistribution of fat around abdomen)
  • Psych (sleep changes, decreased REM sleep, emotional lability)
63
Q

Low risk menopausal hormone therapy

A
  • recent menopause
  • normal weight
  • normal blood pressure
  • physically active
  • 10 year ASCVD
  • low risk for breast cancer
64
Q

Intermediate risk of menopausal Hormone therapy

A
  • diabetes
    -smoking
  • HTN
  • obesity
  • sedentary/limited movement
  • autoimmune disease
  • hyperlipidemia
  • metabolic syndrome
  • 10 years ASCVD risk
  • greater than or equal to 5-10% risk
  • high risk for breast cancer
65
Q

High risk menopausal hormone therapy

A
  • congenital heart diseases
  • ASCVD/CAD/PAD
  • venous thrombosis or pulmonary embolism
  • stroke/ TIA or MI
  • breast cancer
  • 10 years ASCVD risk greater than or equal to 10%
66
Q

A wet bed: A

A

Acid base balance
- ph homeostasis by regulating ph of the blood plasma
-Reabsorb bicarbonate from urine
- excrete hydrogen ions into the urine

67
Q

A wet bed: W

A

Water removal
- maintains the body’s fluid balance
- controls how much is leaving the body against the amount entering

68
Q

A wet bed: E

A

Erthropoesis
- hormone erythropoietin is produced
- carried to bone marrow where it stimulates production of RBC

69
Q

A wet bed: T

A

Toxin removal
- remove waste and excess water collected by, carried in, the blood
- automatically removed the right amount of sodium/minerals from the blood

70
Q

A wet bed: B

A

BP control
- makes renin and angiotensin
- these regulate how much sodium and fluid and body keeps
- how well the blood vessels contract/expand
- this regulates the water and width of the arteries

71
Q

A wet bed: E

A

Electrolyte imbalance
help control electrolyte concentrations by:
- filtering some electrolytes to blood and excreting excess

72
Q

A wet bed: D

A

Vitamin D activation
- keep bones strong by producing the hormone calcitrol
- this hormone maintain the right levels of calcium and phosphate in the blood

73
Q

Aldosterone

A
  • produced by the adrenal cortex
  • increased aldosterone secretion decreases urine volume by stimulating kidney tubules to reabosrb
    —> sodium (primary), water (secondary)
  • also helps control the secretion of potassium by the distal tubules
74
Q

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

A

produced in the hypothalamus and secreted by the posterior pituitary gland into the blood stimulated by
- increase in the osmotic pressure of ECF (increased plasma concentration)
- decrease in the volume of ECF (hypervolemia)
-ADH causes water to be reabsrbed back onto the blood
- causes decreased urine volume

75
Q

Kidney Filtration

A

3 things the kidney needs to filter
1. Hydrogen ions (H+)
- H+ balance = pH balance or acid-base balance
2. Urea Nitrogen
- liver produces ammonia, which contains nitrogen, combines with other waste to create urea
3. Creatinine
- a waste product produced by muscle metabolism and to a smaller extent by eating meat

76
Q

Urgency

A

A sudden, compelling and often difficult to deter desire to urinate

77
Q

Polyuria

A
  • excessive urination
  • greater than 2.5 or 3L in over 24 hours
78
Q

Pyuria

A
  • the presence of white blood cells in urine
79
Q

Protienuria

A
  • the presence of excessive protein in the urine, which often indicates kidney damage
80
Q

Oliguria

A

Decreased urine output, usually defines as less than 400mL per day or less than 20mL per hour
- often a sign of kidney disfunction

81
Q

Incontinence

A

The involuntary leakage of urine, not directly caused by the kidneys but kidney function can play a role in overall health of urinary system

82
Q

Nocturia

A
  • the need to wake up at night to urinate
  • can be a sign of kidney disease
83
Q

Hesitancy

A

Difficulty starting or maintaining a urine stream

84
Q

Hematuria

A

The presence of blood in the urine
- can be a sign of kidney issues

85
Q

Frequency

A

The frequency of urination, specifically increased or abnormally frequent urination

86
Q

Nocturnal Enuresis

A
  • bed wetting at night
  • can be associated with with kidneys, particularly in cases where the kidneys are producing too much urine at night
87
Q

Dysuria

A

Painful urination
- most commonly associated with infections or inflammation of the urinary tract

88
Q

Anuria

A

A condition where the kidneys stop producing urine, resulting in a urine output of less than 100mL in 24 hours
* severe medical emergency

89
Q

BUN (Blood urea nitrogen)

A
  • helps evaluate renal function or the presence of dehydration
90
Q

Creatinine

A

Helps evaluate renal function
- increase possible renal insufficiency or possible decrease nephron function

91
Q

BUN: creatinine ratio

A
  • used together to measure kidney function
  • useful in differential diagnosis of acute or chronic renal disease
92
Q

BUN

A

A waste product formed after your body uses the protein it needs to
- normal: 7-20mg/dL

93
Q

Serum creatinine

A

A waste product in the blood created by the metabolism of muscle cells
Normal: 1.2mg/dL for women, 1.4mg/dL men

94
Q

Creatinine clearance

A

A measure of how much of the waste product creatinine is in your blood
Normal: greater than 90ml/min

95
Q

Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

A

Measure of how well the kidneys are processing waste
- normal: 90ml/min. Less than 15 indicates kidney failure

96
Q

Micro-albumin urine test

A

A measure of microscopic amounts of protein in the urine, may be an early sign of kidney disease
Normal: less than 30mg/L
- 30mg/L - 300 is called microalbiminuria
- greater than 300ml/L is called macroalbimuria

97
Q

Urine protein test

A

A measure of protein in the urine
- normal: negative

98
Q

Diagnostic evaluation for renal function

A
  • X-ray, MRI, CT KUB
  • U/S
  • nuclear scans
  • urography
    -retrograde pyelography
  • cystography
  • renal angiography
  • urologic endoscopic procedures
  • biopsy
  • urodynamic tests
  • uroflowmetryt
99
Q

Urinary obstructions

A
  • anything that blocks or impedes the flow of urine
    may be congenital or acquired
  • intrinsic (within the urinary tract)
    —> anomalies, tumours, benign growths
  • Extrinsic (outside) the urinary tract
  • functional
    —> neurological/psychigenic
  • spinal cord injuries
100
Q

calcium stones (calcium oxalate, calcium phosphate)

A
  • associated with high concentrations of calcium in blood or urine
  • genetic link
  • most common
101
Q

Uric acid stones

A
  • associated with high concentrations of Uric acid in urine
  • genetic link
  • more common in males
  • associated with gout
102
Q

Sturvite stones

A
  • associated with uti caused by bacteria proteus
  • stones are very large
103
Q

Stag horn stones

A
  • in renal pelvis and calyces
104
Q

Cystine stones

A
  • associated with genetic defect
  • least common
105
Q

Risk factors for urinary tract calculi

A

Metabolic
- increased urine levels of calcium, oxaluric, Uric, citric acid
Climate
- warm climates, increased fluid loss, low urine, increase sodium in urine
Diet
- large intake protein, low fluid intake, excessive tea/fruit juice
Genetic
- family hx of gout, renal acidosis , cystinuria
Lifestyle
- send in tray lifestyle, immobility

106
Q

Diagnostics for urinary tract calculi

A
  • urinalysis
  • urine culture
  • urine pH
  • blood BUN, creatinine
  • IVP
  • retrograde pyelogram
  • U/S
  • cystoscopy
  • retrieval and analysis of stone
107
Q

S&S of pylenophritis

A
  • lower urinary tract symptoms, flank pain, costovertebral tenderness , fatigue, chills, fever, committing
108
Q

Risk factors for Pyelonephritis

A
  • bacterial UTI
  • HTN
  • vesicouteral reflex
  • urinary tract obstruction
  • immunospression
110
Q

Diuretic action: Spironolactone, triamterene

A
  • late distal convoluted tubule
  • collecting duct (distal nephron)
111
Q

Diuretic action: thiazides

A
  • early distal convoluted tubule
112
Q

Diuretic action: furosemide

A

Thick segment - ascending limb of henles loop

114
Q

Diuretic action: mannitol

A
  • proximal convoluted tubule