Week 1 - Surgical history taking & MSK Flashcards

1
Q

What are 4 symptoms of inflammation in rheumatic diseases?

A

Stiffness = the earlier it occurs and the longer it takes to limber up are significant factors of severity of inflammation
Gelling = stiffness after rest  it is caused when the fluid leaks from blood vessels surrounding an inactive joint and waterlogs the cartilage in the joint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 5 cardinal features of inflammation?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

List 9 Common Rheumatic Diseases?
& 8 Specific but very common ones?

A

RA reducing in prevalence whilst gout increasing in prevalence.
Myopathy associated with statins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Fibromylagia?
- Sex?
- Secondary to which diseases?
- Sx?

A

Fibromyalgia – the ability of the individual to deal with pain = subjective.
Fibromyalgia often seen with depression/anxiety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

List some of the tender points in fibromyalgia?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the clinical features of Osteoarthritis - Which joints are involved?

A

Tends to spare MCP joints
Vs. RA = soft tissue swelling
Not a uniform loss of cartilage = patchy
Osteophytes/bone spurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most common type of inflammatory arthritis overall? (men vs. women?)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which newly presenting patients should you consider a diagnosis of Rheumatoid Arthritis in?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

4 ways to classify rheumatoid arthritis?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

1 extra-articular manifestation of Rheumatoid arthritis and an associated syndrome?

A

Rheumatoid nodules or ‘grains of rice’
Sjogren’s syndrome can be associated with RA - dry mucous membranes – eyes & mouth & dyspareunia (no vaginal lubrication) & pancreas  ensure not on any anticholinergic drugs and no history of head and neck radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Inclusion body myositis? 6 Clinical features?

A

An inflammatory myopathy characterized by slowly progressive weakness of both the proximal and distal muscle groups. Typically seen in men over the age of 50. Muscle biopsy shows endomysial inflammation and characteristic intramuscular vacuoles that resemble inclusion bodies of aggregated proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the 3 Orthopaedic Soft Tissues?

A
  • Muscle
  • Tendon
  • Ligaments
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Skeletal muscle?
5 Skeletal muscle attachments?

A

5 Skeletal muscle attachments
1. Deep fascia
2. Intermuscular septa
3. Interosseous membranes
4. Ligaments
5. Bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does Unipennate mean? Example?

A

If all the fascicles are on the same side of the tendon, the pennate muscle is called unipennate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a Bipennate muscle? Example?

A

A type of pennate muscle wherein the muscle fibers or fascicles are in opposite sides of the central tendon. Muscles that have fibers on two sides of a tendon are considered bipennate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Example of a multipennate muscle?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a parallel muscle? Example?

A

Parallel muscles have fibres that, as the name suggests, run parallel to each other and are sometimes called strap muscles. They are normally long muscles which cause large movements, and are not very strong but have good endurance. Examples include Sartorius and Sternocleidomastoid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a tendon? Blood supply?

A

Blood supply
- paratendon = good
- tendon = poor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are ligaments?

A

Blood supply to ligaments is good

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the types of muscle injuries? Where do they often occur?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Clinical Features of Compartment Syndrome? 6 Ps?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Compartment Syndrome
- Early Treatment?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Compartment Syndrome
- Early Treatment?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Compartment Syndrome - Late treatment?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Treatment for muscle injuries?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

List some common causes of acute abdominal pain?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

List some less common causes of acute abdominal pain?

A
28
Q

List 7 gynaecological causes of acute abdominal pain?

A
29
Q

What are the biochemical changes you would expect in a patient who has been vomiting as a result of malignant pyloric stenosis?

A

Vomiting produces dehydration, metabolic alkalosis, and hypokalemia. One to two liters of stomach secretions containing up to 150 MEq of hydrogen and sodium ion per liter and an isoelectric quantity of chloride ion are produced each day.
Hypokalaemia, metabolic alkalosis
or uraemia.

30
Q

What is Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis? Epidemiology?

A

Epidemiology
* Incidence: 0.5–5:1000 live births (considered to be the most common cause of gastric outlet obstruction in infants)
* Sex: ♂ > ♀ (∼ 5:1)
* More common in firstborn children
* The incidence is higher in white populations.

31
Q

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis - Aetiology?

A
32
Q

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis - Clinical features?

A
33
Q

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis - Diagnostics?

A
34
Q

Rotator Cuff Tears
- Aetiology? (3)
- 4 Clinical Features?

A

Aetiology
1. Chronic degenerative tear is seen in individuals aged > 50 years.
2. Acute injury is seen mostly in athletes (e.g., infraspinatus tear in baseball pitchers).
3. Inflammation: a potential complication of rotator cuff tendinitis

Clinical features
1. Most commonly affects the supraspinatus tendon
2. Acute rupture: acute severe pain and loss of strength
3. Degenerative rupture: chronic pain; loss of strength is less pronounced
4. Restricted range of motion (depending on the muscle involved)

35
Q

Rotator Cuff Tears
- Diagnosis? (3)
- Treatment?

A

Diagnostics
Clinical diagnosis (see “Diagnostics” above)
X-ray: superior displacement of the humeral head (high-riding humeral head)
Ultrasound and then possibly MRI to determine the location and extent of the rupture
Treatment
Treatment of degenerative tears is often conservative, especially in older and/or sedentary patients (see “Conservative treatment” above).
Surgical repair of the rotator cuff is recommended in patients with traumatic rupture, especially those who are physically active or who do not respond to conservative treatment.

36
Q

List 5 Common Shoulder Conditions?

A

Common Shoulder Conditions
1. Impingement
2. Rotator Cuff Tears
3. Frozen Shoulder (Adhesive Capsulitis)
4. Instability
5. Arthritis

37
Q

Subacromial impingement syndrome
- Definition?
- 3 Clinical Features?
- 3 Stages?
- 2 Complications?

A

Definition: a clinical syndrome caused by compression of tissues around the glenohumeral joint (e.g., rotator cuff tendons, subacromial bursa) during shoulder abduction

Clinical features: Symptoms are most commonly due to supraspinatus injury or subacromial bursitis.
1. Pain on movement that is worsened by overhead activities
2. Painful arc and movement restriction depending on the muscle involved
3. Nocturnal exacerbation of pain, especially when lying on the affected shoulder.

Stages
1. Degeneration
2. Fibrosis of the bursa
3. Rupture of the rotator cuff, intermittent bursitis, and pseudoparalysis of the arm

Complications
1. Rotator cuff tendinitis
2. Rotator cuff tear

38
Q

Frozen shoulder (adhesive capsulitis)
- Definition?
- Epidemiology?
- Aetiology: 5 conditions associated with?
- 4 Clinical Features?
- 3 Stages?
- Prognosis?
- Complications?

A

Definition: inflammation and fibrosis of the joint capsule leading to contracture of the shoulder joint

Epidemiology
- ♀ > ♂
- Onset > 40 years of age (peak incidence 56 years of age)

Etiology: associated with diabetes mellitus, thyroid disorders (esp. hypothyroidism), shoulder injuries (e.g., rotator cuff tear, proximal humerus fracture), and prolonged immobilization

Clinical features
1. Typically affects the nondominant shoulder
2. Dull shoulder pain
3. Stiffness
4. Severe restriction of both active and passive range of motion of the glenohumeral joint in all planes, especially: External rotation & Passive abduction (restricted to < 90°)

39
Q

Shoulder dislocation
- Epidemiology?
- Aetiology?
- Classification?

A

Epidemiology
- Most common joint dislocation
- Sex: ♂ > ♀
- Peak incidence: 20–29 years

Classification
1. > 95% anterior (subcoracoid) and/or anterior-inferior (subglenoid)
2. ∼ 4% posterior
3. ∼ 1% inferior

40
Q

Clinical features of shoulder dislocation?

A
41
Q

3 Diagnostics - Shoulder dislocation?

A
42
Q

Treatment for Shoulder Dislocation? (3)

A

The primary aim of treatment is to reposition the humeral head into the glenoid cavity and restore full range of motion. This may be achieved by either closed reduction or surgical repair.

43
Q

7 Complications of Shoulder joint dislocation?

A
44
Q

3 Shoulder pathologies that cause Pain & Loss of external rotation?

A
  1. Adhesive capsulitis
  2. Osteoarthritis
  3. Posterior dislocation
45
Q

List 3 factors that can affect the quality of a CT image?

A
  1. Number of detectors (64, 128, 312 slices)
  2. Compliance of patient (movement)
  3. Patient factors (tissue attenuation)
46
Q

5 Imaging goals of MRI?
Different sequence types & uses?

A
  1. Extent of disease
  2. Anatomical detail
  3. Bone marrow assessment (haematological spread)
  4. Signal abnormalities (cartilage involvement)
  5. Contrast enhancement (abscess, neoplasm characterisation)
47
Q

5 Factors affecting MRI quality?

A
  1. Maximise signal to noise ratio (SNR)
  2. Compliance of patient (movement)
  3. Patient factors (tissue attenuation)
  4. Use of dedicated coils
  5. Chemical shift (water, fat boundaries)
48
Q

What is this?

A

= T2 Fat Sat: No fracture but water (oedema) in the bone = loading injury = bone bruising

49
Q

How good are MRIs at detecting different types of MSK pathologies?

A
  • Generally limited use for fractures
  • Great for soft tissue injuries (eg. ACL rupture, shoulder tendon injury, tendonitis)
  • Great for neoplastic lesions (bone or soft tissue)
  • Great for osteomyelitis, soft tissue abscess
50
Q

4 Types of Nuclear med scans?
Example of a therapeutic use?

A

Nuclear Medicine
1. Bone scan
2. Positron Emission Tomography (PET)
3. Single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)
4. Combination with CT and MRI

  • Radioactive material
  • Measure uptake
  • Diagnostic & therapeutic uses (eg. radioactive iodine treatment for thyroid cancers)
51
Q

What is a Lisfranc fracture?

A

Midfoot fracture (Lisfranc fracture): a tarsometatarsal fracture; may involve damage to the cartilage of the midfoot joints

52
Q

How do we diagnose fractures?
Information to include in description? (6)

A

Fractures - Diagnosis
- Clinical
- Initial diagnostic imaging review - xray
- If uncertain but suspicious, follow up in 10-14 days and reimage?
- If concerned or follow up imaging is unequivocal, further imaging with CT, MRI or Bone scan could be considered

53
Q

Describe this fracture.

A

= Comminuted, intra-articular fracture of the humeral head that is also dislocated and involves the greater tubercle (management affected as tendon attachment point affected).

54
Q

What is the name for inflammation of the:
- Joint?
- Tendon?
- Tendon sheath?
- Muscle?

Primary imaging modality? If unequivocal?

A

Inflammation
- Joint = Synovitis
- Tendon = Tendonitis
- Tendon sheath = Tenosynovitis
- Muscle = Myositis

Primary imaging modality = Ultrasound
If unequivocal = MRI

55
Q

Order of imaging investigations for Bone neoplasms?
7 Things to include when describing bone neoplasm on imaging?

A
  1. Radiograph
  2. CT - extent of bony involvement
  3. MRI - soft tissue involvement
56
Q

What is Osteopoikilosis?

A

Osteopoikilosis is a benign, autosomal dominant sclerosing dysplasia of bone characterized by the presence of numerous bone islands in the skeleton.

57
Q

What is a Barium enema?
3 Appropriate uses?

A

A diagnostic procedure in which x-rays of the colon and rectum are taken after rectal administration of a contrast agent. Double contrast barium enema (DCBE) technique is a method of imaging the colon with fluoroscopy. “Double contrast” refers to imaging with the positive contrast of barium sulfate contrast medium (rarely water-soluble iodinated contrast) as well as with the negative contrast of gas (CO2 preferable). An exam with only a positive contrast agent is considered a single contrast barium enema.

58
Q

Barium Enema
- 5 Indications?
- 5 Contraindications?
- Single vs Double contrast technique?

A

The double contrast technique is preferred over the single contrast technique when one wants a better visualisation of the mucosa. In the past it had been used for colon cancer (e.g. polyp) screening, especially as a follow-up for failed colonoscopies, but CT colonography has effectively replaced it for that role.
Single contrast barium enema is usually sufficient for fistula or postoperative leak evaluation.

59
Q

What 5 pathologies or abnormalities might a radiologist be looking for when interpreting a barium enema study?

A
60
Q

What is an Esophageal barium swallow study?

A
  • Esophageal barium swallow, also known as esophagogram, is a contrast-enhanced X-ray modality for visualizing the esophagus. It allows for the anatomy and function of the esophagus to be examined and is used in the evaluation of dysphagia, odynophagia, and regurgitation of undigested food particles. Along with esophageal manometry, it is the diagnostic modality of choice for evaluation of esophageal motility disorders.
  • Barium swallow is a dedicated test of the pharynx, oesophagus, and proximal stomach, and may be performed as a single or double contrast study. The study is often “modified” to suit the history and symptoms of the individual patient, but it is often useful to evaluate the entire pathway from the lips to the gastric fundus.
  • Upper GI endoscopy (UGIE or OGD) has largely replaced the barium swallow for the assessment of peptic ulcer disease and the evaluation of haematemesis.
61
Q

8 Indications/Appropriate uses for Barium Swallow Study?

A
  1. high or low dysphagia
  2. gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD)
  3. assessment of a hiatus hernia
  4. generalised epigastric pain
  5. globus pharyngeus
  6. persistent vomiting
  7. assessment of fistula
  8. inability to pass the endoscope during an upper GI endoscopy
62
Q

3 Contraindications to Barium Swallow Study?
- Interpretation? (4)

A
  1. Suspected esophageal perforation.
  2. Severe dysphagia (risk of aspiration)
  3. Pregnancy
63
Q

What is an Ultrasound?

A
64
Q

List 9 Advantages of Ultrasound?

A
65
Q

List 5 Disadvantages of Ultrasound?

A
66
Q

List 8 Uses of Ultrasound in the Perioperative setting?

A