Week 1 objectives Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of Addressing Officers policy?

A

To provide personnel with direction in the proper procedures when addressing, or being addressed by officers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What should any response be followed with when speaking to an officer?

A

Officer rank or sir/ ma’am

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When the ________ is present with other Chief Officers, the other Chief Officers will be addressed as “Chief” and the correct rank followed by their last name (e.g. Assistant Chief Smith, Battalion Chief Doe).

A
  • Fire Chief
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

_____________________ issues may be submitted directly to the Human Resources Department according to current City Policy.

A

Equal Employment Opportunity (EEO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Issues that may be considered a __________ will be addressed according to the current IAFF Collective Bargaining Agreement – “Grievance and Arbitration Procedures, Article ___.”

A
  • grievance

- 33

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the Chain of Command at WPBFR?

A

Please draw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How many “personel shall always” are there in the Code of Conduct?

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How many “personel shall never” are there in the Code of Conduct?

A

24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How many “other conduct violations” are there in the Code of Conduct.

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

All issued ____ and _______ will be marked with the personnel’s _____________ for identification purposes.

A

PPE, Bunker gear

equipment number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where may memorial stickers be worn on the helmet?

A

under the brim only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Each helmet will have documentation acknowledging the serial number and have the following stickers attached at the time of purchase, what are they?

A
  1. Date of manufacture
  2. Serial number
  3. Underwriters Laboratory listing helmet meets NFPA 1971 standards
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What NFPA Standard must independently purchased technical rescue helmets meet?

A

NFPA 1951

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where must helmets independently purchased helmets be submitted for inspection and recorded?

A

Training division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is recorded by the training division about a indepedently purchased helmet?

A

The serial number and expiration date

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When bunker gear needs to be sent to an independent service provider (ISP) for advanced cleaning and/or repair, personnel shall complete a ________________________.

A
  • Bunker Gear Cleaning and Repair Form.
17
Q

Bunker gear that will be authorized to be sent to an ISP for cleaning includes:

A
  • Contaminated gear (oil, fuel, biohazard, chemicals, etc.)
  • Yearly scheduled cleaning; to be coordinated through the Battalion Chiefs and the Logistics Captain c.
  • Extremely heavy exposure to products of incomplete combustion
18
Q

How often is PPE/ Bunker gear inspected? Who is it inspected by?

A

Semi Annually, company officers will visually inspect each of their firefighter’s PPE during the first week of every January and June.

19
Q

How many years is it for PPE/Bunker gear to be placed out of service?

A

10 years according to its date of manufacture.

20
Q

The term indicating a search has been completed and no victims have been located.

A

All clear

21
Q

An expansion of the incident command function primarily designed to manage a very large incident that has multiple incident management teams assigned.

A

Area Command

22
Q

Indicates that a unit has arrived at a location.

A

Arrival

23
Q

A pre-determined response agreement between agencies

A

Automatic Aid

24
Q

Indicates that a unit is able to respond to an incident.

A

Available

25
Q

Red passport made of rigid plastic. It is attached to the dash of the apparatus and left there as an emergency backup or replacement. It is used as a second method of identifying a company if a company has gone to work at the incident before transferring their primary passport to Command.

A

Back up passport

26
Q

A remote resource pool of units at a designated location.

A

Base

27
Q

Chief Officer responsible for a given geographical area.

A

Battallion Chief

28
Q

BNICE

A

Biological, Nuclear, Incendiary, Chemical, or Explosive materials threats to first responders

29
Q

That organizational level having functional, geographical, or jurisdictional responsibility for major parts of the incident operations. This level is organizationally between Sections and Division/Groups in the Operations Section. They are identified by the use of Roman Numerals, by function, or jurisdictional name.

A

Branch

30
Q

A unit which is capable of traversing rough terrain and carries its own water supply. This unit is best suited for ground cover fires in wooded areas or areas with poor access.

A

Brush truck

31
Q

A situational report consisting of the current Conditions, Actions, and Needs of the incident. This can be used for several reports including, Arrival, Roof, Division/Group, and Branches.

A

C.A.N report

32
Q

Location where patients are collected, triaged, and provided with initial medical care. This area should be thoroughly cleared for secondary WMD devices and monitored for vapor clouds before moving patients or public safety personnel and equipment into the area.

A

Casualty Collection Point (CCP)

33
Q

Quiet response with no emergency lights and/or sirens.

A

Code 1

34
Q

An emergency response that utilizes emergency lights and sirens.

A

Code 3

35
Q

The area outside the warm zone (decontamination zone) where no hazards exist to victims or other personnel and where vehicle staging and treatment areas are located

A

cold zone