week 1- microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

• What are the types of morphologies of microorganisms?

A

o Coccus - round (cocci = plural); Streps, staphs, Neisseria
o Diplococcus - cocci in pairs (diplococci = plural), Strep. pneumoniae
o Bacillus or rods - parallel sides (bacilli = plural) ; E. coli
o Spirochetes - curved or spiral organisms ; Treponema pallidum

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2
Q

• What is the gram stain used for?

A

o Screens for presence of bacteria
o Provides good info on what abx to use: most bacteria are either G(+) or G(-)
o (+): stain purple, ex: Strep, staph
o (-): stain pink or red; ex: E. coli, Neisseria

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3
Q

• What is the procedure for analyzing human samples for bacteria w microscope?

A

o 1) Apply d/c to glass slide and air dry
o 2) Fix with methyl alcohol
o 3) Report bacteria according to morphology& staining reaction
o 4) Note presence/absence of WBCs

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4
Q

• How does the gram stain work? Procedure?

A
o	Gram (+) have this peptidoglycan wall outside of membrane, retains crystal violet
o	Gram (-) have thin peptidoglycan layer, w outside LPS layer; crystal violet gets decolorized, and stain pink with counterstain
o	Fixation → crystal violet → iodine tx → decolorization →counter stain (safranin)
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5
Q

• What are the types of media for bacteria culture?

A

o Liquid – diffuse growth

o Solid – discrete colonies- can isolate one strain

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6
Q

• What is bacteria culture used for?

A

o Detect STI
o Dx blood, GI, UTI, URI/LRI
o Dx active TB
o Eval & tx infx of wounds & soft tissues
o Determine abx sensitivities: place disc w abx on agar, assess for zone of inhibition

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7
Q

• How are culture specimens collected?

A

o Get before initiation of any antimicrobial tx
o Explain procedure completely to pt
o Follow universal precautions
o Collect according to lab’s requirements
o Label completely: pt name, date & time of collection, source/site of specimen

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8
Q

• What parts of the urinary tract are sterile?

A

o Sterile above urethra
o Urine normally sterile
o Must pass thru contaminated regions during specimen collection (noninvasive)
o Quantitative methods discriminate contamination and colonization from infx
o Urine collected via invasive methods (suprapubic aspiration) should be sterile
o Distal portion of urethra colonized
o Many organisms are same as found in genital tract
o Some transient colonizers are potential pathogens

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9
Q

• What are the resident flora of the urinary tract?

A
o	Same as Genital tract flora- mixture of:
o	Lactobacillus
o	Alpha-hemolytic Streptococcus sp. 
o	Diptheroids
o	Gardnerella vaginalis
o	Yeast
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10
Q

• How is a urine culture obtained?

A

o Obtain “clean catch midstream” sample to avoid contamination from skin & genital tract
o Transfer urine to tube with preservative (48 hrs) to prevent multiplication of bacteria after sample collection (or refrigerate, 24 hrs)
o Lab will process specimen & report “colony count” of isolated organisms:
o 50 colonies, would report as “50,000 bacteria per ml of urine.”
o E. coli is mc bacteria responsible for UTIs

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11
Q

• What are the mc pathogens of the UT?

A

o Community acquired: E. coli mc; Klebsiella sp and other Enterobacteriaceae; Staphylococcus saprophyticus
o Hospital acquired: E. coli, Klebsiella, other Enterobacteriaceae; Pseudomonas aeruginosa
o Enterococci and Staphylococci

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12
Q

• What is a throat culture for?

A

o To determine pharyngitis etio: bacterial, gonococcal, viral, candida
o Perform if “sore throat,” fever of unknown cause, chronic carriers of recurrent infections

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13
Q

• How is a throat culture collected?

A

o Pt tilt head back & open mouth. Depress tongue with wooden blade
o Swab
o 1. Both tonsillar faucies (between palatal glossal arch & palatal pharyngeal arch)
o 2. Posterior pharynx.
o 3. Any areas of inflammation, exudates, or ulcers
o 4. Avoid touching any other part of mouth or tongue

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14
Q

• What are common agar plates used in throat culture?

A

o Routine culture involves blood agar plate to identify mc bacterial pathogen: Group A -hemolytic Strep(pyogenes)
o Candida albicans mb isolated on blood agar, esp in immune suppressed pt
o Chocolate Agar Plate (named for color): Media required to grow: N. gonorrhoeae, N. meningitides, H. influenzae

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15
Q

• How is a Rapid Strep test done?

A

o Head back, open mouth, depress tongue w wood blade
o Swab both tonsillar faucies, posterior pharynx & any areas of inflam, exudates, or ulcers
o Avoid touching any other part of mouth or tongue
o Place swab in test kit, add reagent to extract cell wall Ag
o (+) = pink line dt reaction of extracted Ag w Ab in filter paper

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16
Q

• What are other special considerations for throat culture?

A

o If suspect diphtheria, must notify lab to use special media of tellurite agar.
o Bordetella pertussis, whooping cough: swab nasopharyngeal, inoculate charcoal plate, place in transport media, & send to State lab
o Modern detection is DNA PCR, from swab of back of nose. Result can be obtained in 24-48 hrs

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17
Q

• What is the optimal timing for dx testing for pertussis?

A

o Culture: 0-2 wks after cough onset
o PCR: 0-4 wks
o Serology: 2-12 wks

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18
Q

• How are viral respiratory cultures obtained?

A

o Collect sample from site of infx
o Compare nasal & nasopharyngeal swabs, and nasopharyngeal wash specimens w expanded gold standard in Quidel QuickVue influenza test
o Nasopharyng swab has highest sens and spec

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19
Q

• When and how do you do a lower respiratory culture (sputum)?

A

o If suspect Lung CA or TB; abn CXR, productive cough & negative bronchoscopy; Bronchoscopy & lung bx used more often now.
o First morning sample is best; Instruct patient to elicit sputum via deep cough (first rinse mouth and 3 respirations)
o Expectorate in sterile container: thick mucus, without saliva
o Refrigerate sample: NO preservative
o Interfering Factors: Failure to adequately rinse mouth prior to sample; Saliva submitted instead of sputum

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20
Q

• How does a lab process a sputum culture? Clinical significance?

A

o inoculate sputum onto supportive media to grow
o If pathogens recovered, perform abx sensitivity testing (extra charge).
o Malignancies of trachea, bronchus, lung
o Benign cellular changes dt infx vs exposures
o Potential bacterial pathogens: Staph aureus, Strep pneumonia, Haemophilus influenza, Klebsiella pneumoniae, etc.

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21
Q

• What are the mc labs for TB?

A

o 1. Acid fast (bacilli) smear → AFB
o 2. Cultivation of the organism→ Culture
o 3. Organism Speciation→ DNA probe, rRNA amplification
o most useful body fluid for analysis is sputum:
o Identification of M. tuberculosis in any body fluid or tissue is diagnostic of active TB since active growth always produces dz

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22
Q

• When is acid fast stain or sputum culture indicated?

A
o	Persistent productive cough >3 wks
o	Anorexia
o	Unexplained weight loss
o	Night sweats & Fever
o	Hemoptysis
o	Chest pain
o	Fatigue
o	High risk pts: immunocompromised, alcoholic, recent exposure to TB
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23
Q

• What is the acid fast stain for TB?

A

o “acid-fast” procedure drives stain into lipid rich cell wall (CW is gram stain resistant)
o Collect 3 AM sputums, > 5 ml, consecutive days
o tested w/in 24 hrs
o More rapid but less sensitive than Culture
o Detects 10,000 - 100,000 organisms/mL
o (+)= red tubercle bacilli
o A NEG smear does NOT rule out dz (mb light infxn)
o Positive AFB smears may indicate TB, but does not confirm TB dx, as some AFB’s are NOT M. tuberculosis.
o Monitor tx, should be NEG after 2 months antimicrobial tx.

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24
Q

• How is organism speciation done for TB?

A

o PCR DNA probe: Takes 36-48 hrs, on sputum culture sample
o MTD (direct) Test [Gen-Probe] (FDA approved 1995): Takes 5-6 hours
o Uses rRNA: Amplification techniques with enzymes, one billion fold replication, and chemiluminescent labels; Sens 95.5%, Spec 100%

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25
Q

• What is the TB culture?

A

o Remains gold standard for confirming TB dx
o Culture all specimens, even if smear or NAA negative
o Results in 4–14 d when liquid medium systems used
o Culture monthly until conversion, i.e., 2 consecutive (-) cultures
o Colonies: whitish mounds, bubbly

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26
Q

• When is a blood culture done? Catheter culture?

A

o If suspect Systemic bacterial infx (usu have fever & chills)
o If suspect septicemia, do when patient manifests chills → correlates with “showers” of bacteria in bloodstream
o Catheter Culture: Specimens drawn through IV catheter for catheter sepsis only

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27
Q

• What are the terms for systemic infections?

A

o Sepsis: SIRS response triggered by infx
o Septicemia: sepsis originating from infx in bloodstream
o Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome – systemic immune response, w 2+ criteria: T > 100.4 ˚F or < 96.8 ˚F; HR > 90 bpm; RR > 20; Extreme high/low WBCs

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28
Q

• What are sources of blood infxs?

A
o	Complex wounds (open fractures)
o	Dirty wounds (debris)
o	Burns
o	Puncture wounds
o	Impaled Objects
o	Crush Injuries
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29
Q

• What are the microorganisms mc in bacteremia and septicemia?

A
o	G(-): E coli, Klebsiella sp, Enterobacter sp, Serrati asp, Bacteroides fragilis, Proteus sp, H influenzae, Neisseria sp, Acinetobacter sp, Salmonella sp
o	G(+): Strep pneumonia, Staph aureus, Group A,B,D strep, Strep Viridans, microaerophilic and anaerobic, Staph epidermidis, Clostridia sp, Listeria monocytogenes
o	Misc: Candida sp, Rickettsia sp, others
30
Q

• How is a blood culture done?

A

o Clean skin & culture bottle tops w povidone-iodine
o Adults: Two bottles preferred (one aerobic, one anaerobic); 5-10 ml of blood per bottle
o Pediatric: one bottle, add 1-3 ml blood
o Recommend 2-3 “sets” of blood cultures
o Best from 2-3 different sites
o Collect 30-60 mins apart
o Preliminary report in 24 hours
o 24-48 hrs: for bacterial identification, & abx sensitivity testing
o Correlate potential “skin contaminants” (e.g., Staph epidermidis) with pt sx & hx.
o If microbes are absent after 10 d incubation = (-) and blood is sterile

31
Q

• What is the automated method to analyze blood culture?

A

o Various types of bottles available to isolate many organisms (aerobic, anaerobic, Mycobacteriu)
o detects CO2 production, indicates presence of respiring organisms
o mb False (+) if high WBCs

32
Q

• When is a wound and soft tissue culture done?

A

o if signs of infection: redness, warmth, swelling, pain
o Postop pt with fever of unknown origin; often both aerobic and anaerobic
o Any spontaneous drainage from wound or soft tissue
o Usu dt pus-forming organisms, e.g. staphylococcus
o If cellulitis: mb mult organisms

33
Q

• How is a wound & soft tissue culture collected?

A

o If mod/heavy pus drainage, irrigate w sterile saline to wash away debris
o Disinfect surface to ↓contaminants
o Separate wound margins & insert sterile swab into wound cavity.
o Press & rotate swab severa times to dislodge potential pathogenic bacteria
o Place swab in transport medium
o If suspect anaerobic: sterile needle and syringe to aspirate fluid, O2-free transport medium to preserve

34
Q

• How do you collect an abscess sample for culture?

A

o Pus, best collected when incised and drained
o sterile technique, aspirate or collect from drainage tube up to 5 ml of, in sterile container.
o If no d/c, sterile cotton wool swab to sample from infected site, deep into lesion
o Label, send to lab ASAP

35
Q

• How do you culture an abscess sample?

A

o Streak one blood agar plate, one chocolate, MacConkey and inoculate thioglycollate broth tube
o Gram stain for presence, types of organisms, avail 1 hr after receipt
o Isolation of possible pathogen in 2-3 days
o (-) culture reported 1-2 d after receipt

36
Q

• What are genital cultures?

A

o Group B Strep (Strep agalactiae), E. coli, Listeria monocytogenes, Candida albicans, Neisseria gonorrhoeae
o DNA probe testing (no culture)
o Swab broken off at top of sterile tube, capped, sent to lab

37
Q

• How are genital cultures obtained from males and females?

A

o F: no lubricant on speculum, Visualize cervix,mb swab to remove mucus, sterile swab into endocervical canal & rotate; Inoculate on Thayer-Martin “Jembec” plate for gonorrhea; insert swab in transport tube.
o M: small wire swab into urethera and rotate. Or sterile swab to collect urethral d/c;
o Inoculate Jembec plate for gonorrhea

38
Q

• What is herpes simplex virus infx?

A

o The “silent epidemic”, > 45 million in US, > 1 million new dx /yr
o Rates increasing over past 50 yrs
o Almost 25% in US have HSV2 Abs by age 30
o HSV-1: Mostly oro-labial, but ↑ cause of genital herpes
o HSV-2: Almost entirely genital, > 95% of recurrent genital lesions
o Primary infxs
o Recurrent infxs
o Latency

39
Q

• How is HSV transmitted?

A

o Horizontal: Intimate sexual contact (oral/genital); Aerosol and fomite is rare
o Vertical: Maternal-infant via infx cervico-vaginal secretions, blood or amniotic fluid at birth
o Autoinoculation: From one site to another

40
Q

• What are ssx of primary herpes infx?

A

o Systemic: fever, myalgia, malaise
o mb meningitis, encephalitis, hepatitis
o Local: clusters of small, painful blisters, ulcerate, crust outside mucous membranes
o Itching, dysuria, vaginal d/c, inguinal LA, bleeding from cervicitis
o 20% truly asx, 20% recognized genital herpes, 60% unrecognized w sxs

41
Q

• How is HSV (1 & 2) dx?

A

o “unroof” lesion w scalpel or needle tip, collect exudate, place swab in Viral Transport Medium M4
o PCR: blood, vesicle fluid, CSF, tissue amniotic fluid, etc; 95% sens; More rapid results than culture
o Culture: Can distinguish between 1 and 2; 90% sens in initial outbreak then 50-75%; Not useful in lesions > 5 d old

42
Q

• How are samples for genital HSV collected?

A

o M: from anterior urethra or genital skin lesions
o F: Endocervical canal can be cultured, but genital lesions more sens
o Preg: Cervix cultured weekly 4-6 wks before delivery (not common anymore)

43
Q

• What is HSV serology?

A

o 90% adults (+) for 1; 30% (+) for 2

o Disadvantages: Abs form within weeks of primary infx; Does not differentiate acute from prior infx

44
Q

• When do you perform HSV serology?

A
o	Confirm HSV if questionable hx, suspect, atypical, sxs
o	Recurrent lesions but (-) culture
o	Pt doesn’t believe the clinical dx
o	Anyone requesting an “STD” test
o	Partner has genital herpes
o	Preg w unrecognized genital HSV-2
45
Q

• What is chlamydia?

A

o mc STI in US, 4 mill/yr in U.S.; 50 million worldwide
o Most infx women are asx; F > M, and increasing over past 25 yrs
o Freq assoc w gonorrhea
o = bacterial obligate intracellular organisms, so can NOT be cultured on artificial media

46
Q

• What is the chlamydia PCR DNA Probe or NAAT (preferred) test?

A

o Same swab can be sent for Gonorrhea DNA testing
o Swab source mb endocervical, Urethral, vaginal, pharyngeal or rectal
o Dirty urine (no cleansing prior) mb tested (first morning void preferred)
o Cervix: > 90% sens
o Male Urethra: > 95%
o Urine male and female: > 90%
o Spec: 94-99.5%

47
Q

• What is the chlamydia culture? In neonates?

A

o Indication: required for medicolegal cases only
o Sens 60-80%, Spec 100%
o Babies: Everted inner lid swab for Chlamydia PCR

48
Q

• How do you collect samples for chlamydia DNA probe?

A

o F: one swab to remove cervical mucus; 2nd swab into endocervical canal, rotate for 30 sec, place in Gen-Probe transport kit
o M: Avoid urination 1 hr prior to collection; Insert swab 2-4 cm into urethra & rotate to dislodge cells, place in Gen-Probe transport kit; Urine sample now more common

49
Q

• What is gonorrhea?

A

o Rates peaked in late 1970s
o mb indicated: vag d/c, Pelvic pain – “Chandelier Sign” (CMT), Urethritis or penile d/c, Proctitis, Pharyngitis, High risk for STIs
o Gram stain can help dx in males= g (-) diplococci inside WBCs

50
Q

• How is gonorrhea dx?

A

o Culture tests
o Non-culture tests:
o Amplified tests (NAATs): PCR, Transcription-mediated amplification (TMA), Strand displacement amplification (SDA)
o Non-amplified: DNA probe, Gram stain (dx in M, not in F)

51
Q

• What is the DNA probe test for gonorrhea (nucleic acid amp test, NAAT)?

A

o Reliable alternative to culture (preferred for screening)
o Sample: Men: Urethra or urine; Women: Cervical swab preferred
o Rapid: 30 minutes
o Sens 92-96%, Spec 94-99%

52
Q

• What is the gram stain and culture for gonorrhea?

A

o Stain: Urethral or Cervical Smear, ↑ WBCs, G (-) biscuit-shaped diplococci; False (+) (saprophytic Neisseria)
o C&S: chocolate or Martin-Lewis agar; ~25% cases resistant to at least one abx
o Required for Disseminated Gonococcus testing: blood, throat, and synovia fluid culture

53
Q

• When would you screen for gonorrhea?

A

o Preg: at first prenatal visit if at risk or living high prevalence area; again at 3rd tri if continued risk
o Others: based on local dz prevalence and pt’s risk behaviors

54
Q

• What is syphilis?

A

o Treponema pallidum, can’t be cultured in vitro
o Primary infx main ssx: painless chancre
o Test (+) within 3 wks of developing primary Chancre
o Peak in 1940s

55
Q

• When would you screen for syphilis? What are the tests?

A

o Annually for all MSM
o Syphilis Screening
o VDRL (Venereal Dz Research Lab Test)
o RPR (Rapid Plasma Reagin test)
o “non-treponemal”: RPR, VDRL → (+) 2 wks after infx
o Tests are (+) in almost all 1st and 2nd cases
o HIV Screening (all pts who are (+) for Syphilis): coinfection w Syphilis is common; HIV pts at higher risk of Neurosyphilis
o (-) test w lesions or other strong clinical ssx
o Repeat screening in 2-3 wks

56
Q

• What are the syphilis confirmatory tests?

A

o If VDRL or RPR screen (+) must dx w specific treponemal Ab test:
o 1) FTA-ABS: Fluorescent treponemal Ab absorption
o 2) MHA-TP: Microhemagglutination of Treponema pallidum
o More accurate than screening tests
o (+) ~ 4-6 wks after infx
o If screen (+) But FTA-ABS (-), seek other dzs that can cause false (+) screens

57
Q

• What can cause false (+) RPR or VDRL?

A
o	Malaria
o	Leptospirosis
o	Leprosy
o	Mononucleosis
o	SLE, RA
o	Lymphogranuloma venereum
o	Mycoplasma pneumonia
o	Typhus
o	Cat-scratch fever
o	Hepatitis
o	Periarteritis nodosa
o	Acute viral/bacterial infxn
o	Hypersensitivity reactions
o	Recent vaccinations
58
Q

• How do the syphilis tests change after tx?

A

o RPR/VDRL: → (-) or ↓ to very low titer; ↑↑ in titer = re-infection
o MHA/FTA: remains (+) for life

59
Q

• What is a sexual eval for STIs?

A

o GC/CT Cultures from sites of penetration
o Wet mount and culture for trichomonias
o HIV, hepatitis, and syphilis serology

60
Q

• What is the vag wet mount “wet prep” used for?

A

o Dx: Vulvo-vaginal candidiasis, Bacterial vaginosis (BV), Trichomonas vaginalis
o Normal vaginal flora includes:
o Lactobacillus sp., Gardnerella vaginalis, Candida albicans, Corynebacterium sp. (“diphtheroids”).
o Overgrowth of normal or presence of pathogenic organisms → infx, inflam, d/c, odor, pruritis

61
Q

• How is the wet prep done?

A

o Insert speculum & visualize cervix; sterile swab to collect vag fluid, in test tube w 0.5 ml saline; Keep sample warm at body temp
o Slide eval: drop of specimen mixture on slide; Cover & examine under high power (40x); Report presence of WBCs, RBCs, squamous epithelial cells, Lactobacilli, Candida, Trichomonas, and “clue cells”

62
Q

• What are normal results for a wet prep?

A
o	Vag d/c clear to white
o	WBC: 0-5/hpf
o	RBC: 0-2 to 0-5/hpf (varies by ref)
o	Epithelial cells: 2-4+, depends on technique
o	Bacteria: 2+ described as moderate; lots of lactobacilli normal, few gardnerella
o	Yeast: 0-5 cells/hpf
o	pH: 3.8-4.2
o	whiff (-)
63
Q

• what is bacterial vaginosis?

A

o mc cause vaginitis in premenopausal women
o dt complex change in vaginal flora: ↓lactobacilli, ↑gardnerella vaginalis, mycoplasma hominis, anaerobic G- rods, and peptostreptococci
o ssx: itch, malodorous “fishy” d/c adherent, thin milky white

64
Q

• what are the Amstel criteria for BV?

A

o 1. Homogenous, grayish-whitish d/c
o 2. Vag pH > 4.5
o 3. (+) Whiff test
o 4. Clue cells on wet mount (>/= 20%)
o First three can overlap with trichamonas
o Clue cells are most reliable predictor of BV

65
Q

• What is the whiff test w wet prep?

A

o Whiff: Drop of specimen mixture on glass slide; Add 1 drop 10% KOH & waft air toward nose; G. vaginalis & Trichomonas produce amines that volatilize w KOH → “fishy” odor

66
Q

• What is Candida vulvovaginitis?

A

o ~ 1/3 of vaginitis cases
o Up to 75% premenopausal have at least one episode
o Rare before menarche, but 50% by 25
o Less common in postmenopausal, unless taking estrogen
o Ssx: Vulvar/vaginal pruritis, “Burning” during voiding (externally), Irritation, inflam, erythema, soreness, dyspareunia, thick white clumpy d/c “cottage cheese”
o Wet prep: pH usu </= 4.5; whiff (-); few WBCs; pseudohyphae or spores if non-albicans

67
Q

• What is the KOH test w wet prep?

A

o For yeast
o Apply coverslip; Examine for (1) bacteria streaming off squamous epithelial cells (helps confirm BV)
o (2) for spores or budding yeast/pseudohyphae that may have been obscured (KOH destroys cellular elements)
o sens 70%; (-) in up to 50% of culture (+)/proven yeast infx

68
Q

• what is trichomonas vaginalis?

A

o 3rd mc STI; 170 million/yr; Prevalence < 5-75% (low steady rates over 50 yrs)
o Up to 50% asx
o Ssx: Copious, frothy gray or yellow-greenish d/c, malodorous
o Strawberry cx (cx petechiae)
o Wet prep: pH > 4.5; often (+) whiff; motile flagellated protozoa, many WBCs
o Sequelae: ↑PID, infertility, post surgical infx, HIV transmission, preterm birth

69
Q

• How is trichomonas dx?

A

o Microscopy:
o saline wet mount: 50-60% sens in F, high spec; ~30% sens in M, low spec
o Pap: 50% sens, 90% spec; low PPV in low prevalence pop

70
Q

• What are key points w wet prep for various vaginitis?

A

o Clue cells: Epi. cells covered > 75% w bacteria (G. vaginalis), Will NOT see abn numbers WBCs
o (+) “Whiff Test”: 10% KOH added to slide liberates amines from G. vaginalis and Trichomonas
o Trichomonas vaginalis: Must be actively motile (in fresh samples) for dx
o Candida albicans: Single, Budding or pseudohyphae yeast forms seen

71
Q

• What is the Affirm VP(III) instrument?

A

o Auto detect vaginitis: candida, gardnerella, trichomonas

o DNA probe testing