Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NURS 4165 > week 1- interpreting ECGs > Flashcards

week 1- interpreting ECGs Flashcards

basic ECG review/antiarrhythmic drugs

1
Q

What is the primary function of an ECG?

A

The primary function of an ECG is to record the heart’s electrical activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How does the ECG contribute to understanding cardiac function?

A

The ECG provides insights into the heart’s electrical rhythms and helps interpret their significance within the patient’s overall clinical status.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the basic components of cardiac output?

A

The basic components of cardiac output are preload, contractility, and afterload.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the significance of the PR interval on an ECG?

A

The PR interval represents the time from the onset of atrial depolarization to the beginning of ventricular depolarization. A normal PR interval ranges from 0.12 to 0.20 seconds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How should the QRS complex appear on a normal ECG?

A

The QRS complex should be tall and narrow, representing ventricular depolarization. It should be described and measured for abnormal configurations, such as being wide and bizarre. (0.08-0.10)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the normal range for a QT interval?

A

The QT interval normally varies with gender, age, and heart rate but should generally be less than half of the RR interval for heart rates below 100 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the difference between atrial flutter and atrial fibrillation?

A

Atrial flutter is characterized by saw-tooth waves and may have a regular or irregular ventricular response, whereas atrial fibrillation is identified by irregular ventricular responses and fibrillatory waves without a clear P wave.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does the presence of premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) affect cardiac function?

A

PVCs can disrupt the regular rhythm of the heart, potentially leading to decreased cardiac output and increasing the risk of more severe arrhythmias.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does the T wave on an ECG represent?

A

The T wave represents ventricular repolarization or recovery. It normally appears upright and rounded but can be abnormal in shape or direction in certain conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does the QRS wace on an ECG represent

A

Ventricular depolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What role does the SA node play in cardiac conduction?

A

The SA node is the heart’s natural pacemaker, initiating electrical impulses that regulate heart rhythm and spread through the conduction system to coordinate heartbeats.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does the ECG waveform help in diagnosing ventricular rhythms?

A

The ECG waveform provides crucial information on ventricular depolarization and repolarization, allowing for the identification of ventricular rhythms like PVCs or ventricular tachycardia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why is it important to assess the patient’s overall clinical status when interpreting an ECG?

A

Assessing the patient’s clinical status helps determine the significance of ECG findings and guides appropriate interventions based on their stability and overall condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does cardiac output relate to heart rate and stroke volume?

A

Cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume. It measures the amount of blood the left ventricle pumps into the aorta per minute.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the noraml pathway of cardiac conduction

A

Electrical excitation begins at the SA node, spreads through the atrial tracks, pauses at the AV node, and then travels down the bundle branches to the Purkinje fibers

17
Q

How does parasympathetic stimulation affect heart rate?

A

Parasympathetic stimulation, via acetylcholine acting on muscarinic M2-receptors, decreases heart rate.

18
Q

What neurotransmitters are involved in sympathetic stimulation of the heart?

A

Norepinephrine and epinephrine.

19
Q

What are the effects of sympathetic stimulation on the heart?

A

Increased heart rate, faster AV node conduction, increased contractility, and faster relaxation after contraction.

20
Q

What is the primary effect of antiarrhythmic drugs?

A

They either suppress abnormal firing of pacemaker cells or depress transmission of impulses in tissues that conduct too rapidly or participate in reentry.

21
Q

Proarrhythmic effects

A

which may worsen existing arrhythmias or create new ones.

22
Q

What class of antiarrhythmic drugs includes beta blockers?

A

Class II

23
Q

How do beta blockers affect arrhythmias?

A

They block norepinephrine and epinephrine, which can reduce heart rate and improve ventricular fibrillation threshold.

24
Q

What is a distinguishing feature of cardio-selective beta-blockers?

A

They selectively block beta-1 receptors, e.g., metoprolol.

25
Q

What is the usual maintenance oral dose for metoprolol?

A

25-100 mg PO every 12 hours.

26
Q

What are common adverse effects of metoprolol?

A

Bradycardia, hypotension, vertigo, headaches, fatigue.

27
Q

What is the mechanism of action of sotalol?

A

It is a nonselective beta-blocker with potassium channel blocker properties that delay ventricular repolarization.

28
Q

What is the primary action of calcium channel blockers?

A

They disrupt the movement of calcium through L-type calcium channels.

29
Q

What are the two subclasses of non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers?

A

Phenylalkylamine (e.g., verapamil) and benzothiazepine (e.g., diltiazem).

30
Q

What is the mechanism of action of verapamil?

A

It inhibits transmembrane influx of calcium ions, affecting sinus and AV nodal depolarization.

31
Q

What is the primary indication for diltiazem?

A

Atrial flutter/fibrillation (rate control) and prevention of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia.

32
Q

What is the mechanism of action of digoxin?

A

It inhibits Na-K ATPase, increasing intracellular calcium, thereby increasing inotropy and reducing conduction velocity at the AV node.

33
Q

What are key nursing considerations when administering antiarrhythmic drugs?

A

Monitor ECG, B/P, HR, electrolytes, kidney and liver function; watch for drug interactions and adverse effects.

34
Q

What is the antidote for beta-blocker overdose?

A

Glucagon; cardiac pacing is a second-line treatment if glucagon fails.

NURS 4165 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions