Week 1 HTN, Dyslipidemia, Obesity, Metabolic Syndrome Flashcards
Which medications are associated with weight gain? (Select all that apply)
A. Antibiotics
B. Antidepressants
C. Anticonvulsants
D. Insulin analogs
E. Antihistamines
B. Antidepressants
C. Anticonvulsants
D. Insulin Analogs
E. Antihistamines
High intensity statin (lowers LDL-C > 50%)
Rosuvastatin 20mg
Low intensity statin (lowers LDL- C < 30%)
Pravastatin 20mg
Moderate intensity statin (lowers LDL-C by 30-50 %
Atorvastatin 20mg
A patient who is taking a statin drug to treat dyslipidemia has begun a diet and exercise program. The patient reports new onset of muscle pain several weeks after beginning therapy. What is the initial action by the provider?
A. Discontinue the statin drug immediately
B. Obtain a creatine kinase level
C. Prescribe acetaminophen or ibuprofen
D. Recommend reducing exercise intensity
B. Obtain a creatine kinase level
A potential serious side effect of statin drugs is drug-induced myopathy. Patients who report new-onset muscle pain should have creatine kinase levels evaluated. If this is elevated, the drug should be stopped, and renal function should be evaluated. It is not safe to assume that the muscle pain is related to the exercise until CK levels are determined.
A 13-year-old Native American female has a body mass index (BMI) at the 90th percentile for age. The primary care pediatric nurse practitioner notes the presence of a hyperpigmented velvet-like rash in skin folds. The child denies polydipsia (abnormally great thirst), polyphagia (excessive eating), and polyuria (excessive urination). The nurse practitioner will take what action?
A. Counsel the child to lose weight to prevent type 2 diabetes
B. Diagnose type 2 diabetes if the child has a random glucose of 180 mg/dL
C. Order a fasting blood sample for a metabolic screen for type 2 diabetes
D. Refer the child to a pediatric endocrinologist
C. Order a fasting blood sample for a metabolic screen for type 2 diabetes
This child has three risk factors for type 2 diabetes: Native American ethnicity, overweight, and acanthosis nigricans (a skin condition that causes a dark discoloration in body folds and creases). The PNP should perform metabolic screening on a fasting blood sample to diagnose this. Lifestyle changes may be necessary to control the disease if diagnosed, but this child may already have the disease, and management options aren’t clear until the diagnosis is made. Diagnosis is based on a random glucose >200 mg/dL. It is not necessary to refer this child until a diagnosis is made.
Elevated blood pressure in response to stress (especially in the doctor’s office) is called “white-coat hypertension.”
Which of the following statements is true about white-coat hypertension?
(select all)
A. As long as the majority of blood pressure readings are normal, the patient does not require treatment because there is no increased risk of adverse cardiac outcomes.
B. Patients with white-coat hypertension have an intermediate risk for adverse outcomes when compared with patients with normal blood pressure and those with chronically elevated blood pressure.
C. White-coat hypertension is more common in young patients.
D. Patients with white-coat hypertension have an elevated left ventricular mass when compared to patients with normal blood pressures.
Both B & D
B. Patients with white-coat hypertension have an intermediate risk for adverse outcomes when compared with patients with normal blood pressure and those with chronically elevated blood pressure.
D. Patients with white-coat hypertension have an elevated left ventricular mass when compared to patients with normal blood pressures.
Patients with white coat hypertension have outcomes that are intermediate between normotensive and hypertensive patients. In addition, they have an elevated left ventricular mass. Surprisingly, white coat hypertension is more common in the elderly.
A 35-year-old male presents to the office with upper respiratory symptoms. He is taking no medications except for a bit of pseudoephedrine for his cold. You notice when looking at his vital signs that his blood pressure is 180/106 mm Hg. Repeat measurement confirms that the blood pressure is elevated at 175/105 mm Hg.
A. Start a chronic antihypertensive since he is at risk for a stroke within the next couple of days with a blood pressure at this level.
B. Administer clonidine in the office to reduce the blood pressure to a safe level of about 150/100 mm Hg.
C. Watch the patient over the next two weeks and get additional blood pressure readings before deciding what to do and instruct him to discontinue pseudoephedrine.
D. Schedule the patient for outpatient labs and electro-cardiogram.
E. Fire the patient from your practice. He’s messing up your quality measures.
C. Watch the patient over the next two weeks and get additional blood pressure readings before deciding what to do and instruct him to discontinue pseudoephedrine.
The diagnosis of hypertension requires two elevated blood pressures on two different occasions. This patient’s elevated blood pressure could be situational, related to decongestants and current illness (though decongestants only increase systolic blood pressure by 2–3 mm Hg if at all). Neither “A” nor “B” is correct because a blood pressure of 175/105 mm Hg does not pose a risk of acute stroke, and the pressure need not be lowered acutely unless there is evidence of end-organ injury (e.g., angina, heart failure, hypertensive encephalopathy). “D” is incorrect because you cannot definitively establish that this patient has hypertension based on only one in office blood pressure measurement. As for “E”…really? Is this why we went into medicine?
The ambulatory blood pressure monitor reveals that the patient’s blood pressure is >140/90 mm Hg more than 40% of the time, indicating that he is indeed hypertensive.
The initial evaluation of the hypertension includes the following:
A. History, physical, CBC, urinalysis, glucose, BUN, creatinine, electrolytes, ECG, and lipids
B. History, physical, CBC, uric acid, glucose, BUN, creatinine, electrolytes, and lipids
C. History, physical, CBC, urinalysis, glucose, BUN, creatinine, electrolytes, ECG, lipids, and echocardiography
D. History, physical, and labs only as indicated by history and physical
A. History, physical, CBC, urinalysis, glucose, BUN, creatinine, electrolytes, ECG, and lipids
History, physical, CBC, urinalysis, glucose, BUN, creatinine, electrolytes, ECG, and lipids are the generally agreed-upon initial workup of the hypertensive patient. “C” includes echocardiography, which is not recommended as part of the routine evaluation but may be indicated if signs of cardiac disease are present.
You start a 35-year-old male on chlorthalidone for hypertension, but his blood pressure does not respond at a dose of 12.5 mg/day (have your patients cut the 25-mg tabs in half). His blood pressure on follow-up is 148/96 mm Hg.
A. Push his chlorthalidone to 25 mg daily before starting another medication
B. Stop the chlorthalidone and start another medication
C. Rely on exercise and diet to normalize the blood pressure
D. Start a second drug , before, you have maximized the dose of the first drug
E. Start a workup for secondary causes of hypertension
F. A or D
F. A or D
A. Push his chlorthalidone to 25 mg daily before starting another medication
D. Start a second drug , before, you have maximized the dose of the first drug
Per the JNC 8 guidelines, both “A” and “D” are acceptable strategies; you could push up the dose of a first drug or add a second drug. There is a lack of randomized controlled trials to guide these recommendations. JNC 8 urges us to tailor therapy based on individual circumstances, clinician and patient preference, and drug tolerability. Low-dose chlorthalidone (12.5 mg) provides the greatest blood pressure reduction per mg of drug, and there is little clinical benefit of utilizing >25 mg daily of HCTZ or chlorthalidone. Higher doses are associated with increased adverse effects with minimal clinical gain in hypertension management. “B” is incorrect because a patient with this level of blood pressure elevation will generally require more than one drug to achieve a normalized blood pressure. “C” is incorrect because the majority of patients are unable to maintain an adequate diet or exercise regimen to effectively treat blood pressure. Exercise and dietary change are certainly laudable goals and should be encouraged in all patients. However, they are not likely to normalize blood pressure in most hypertensive patients. “D” is also correct as it represents one of the acceptable JNC 8 guideline strategies to dose antihypertensive drugs. “E” is incorrect since this patient has not yet proven to be resistant to treatment.
The patient returns to your office with blood pressures measured six times over a period of two weeks at a local pharmacy. Only three of the six readings suggest that the patient is hypertensive. The patient states that the elevated blood pressures were while he was under stress at work.
A. Start an antihypertensive
B. Send the patient for a 24-hour ambulatory blood pressure measurement
C. Don’t worry about the blood pressure since half of the readings were within a normal range
D. Get a nephrology consult to help in decision making
B. Send the patient for a 24-hour ambulatory blood pressure measurement
One way to determine if a patient with contradictory readings is hypertensive is to perform 24-hour ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. This can be useful in patients who have elevated blood pressures in the office but not at home or vice versa. It can also be used if you do not trust the blood pressure readings taken outside of your office. “A” is incorrect since we have not yet established that this patient is hypertensive. “C” is incorrect since we have not yet established that this patient is not hypertensive. “D” is incorrect because you are smarter than that and should be able to work through this kind of case yourself!
All of the following drugs are associated with weight gain and an increased risk of obesity except:
A. Gabapentin/Pregabalin
B. Topiramate
C. Valproic acid
D. Olanzapine
E. Glipizide
B. Topiramate
Topiramate may actually help patients lose weight. In fact, it is one of the components of the weight loss drug Qsymia® (phentermine/topiramate).
Regarding definition and classification of obesity, which of the following is true?
A. Obesity is defined as BMI ≥25 kg/m, 2
B. Severe obesity is defined as BMI >30 kg/m, 2
C. Underweight is defined as BMI <20 kg/m, 2
D. Obesity is defined as BMI ≥30 kg/m, 2
E. Malnourished supermodel status is defined as BMI <30 kg/m2
D. Obesity is defined as BMI ≥30 kg/m, 2
The calculation for BMI is as follows:
BMI(kg/m2) = weight(kg)/[height(m)]2.
A patient wonders which popular diet she should use to lose weight.
You let her know that the most effective popular diet is:
A. Low carbohydrate (Atkins diet)
B. Low fat (Ornish diet)
C. Low glycemic load diet (Zone diet)
D. High protein (Paleo diet)
E. No one particular diet is more effective than others for weight loss. The key to success is choosing a diet that you can maintain.
E. No one particular diet is more effective than others for weight loss. The key to success is choosing a diet that you can maintain.
Any diet you can stick to seems to work. There does not seem to be any advantage to one diet over another for weight loss (except for making the proprietors wealthy). For example, Weight Watchers may have a bit better success because of peer pressure, weekly meetings, and motivational techniques (BMJ. 2011;343:d6500). But any diet that you can maintain long-term will work. Of note, the common belief that maintaining a 3,500 calorie weekly deficit will result in 1 lb (0.45 kg) of weight loss per week is a myth. But reducing calorie intake by 100 calories per day may lead to a gradual weight loss of approximately 10 lb over 1 to 3 years (Am Fam Physician. 2015;91(9):634–638).
As your patient is not meeting with an ounce of success (literally), you engage in a discussion about weight loss pharmacotherapy.
A. Levothyroxine (Synthroid, Levoxyl)
B. Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
C. Orlistat, (Xenical, Alli)
D. Paroxetine (Paxil)
C. Orlistat, (Xenical, Alli)
Drug therapy is considered appropriate as an add-on to lifestyle management for people with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 or greater, or a BMI of 27 kg/m2 or more who already have a comorbid condition such as diabetes, hypertension, or hyperlipidemia. Of the choices listed, only orlistat is indicated by the FDA to treat obesity (more below). “A” and “B” are incorrect. Although patients treated with these medications might lose weight as a side effect, obesity alone is not an indication for levothyroxine or methylphenidate. Paroxetine (“D”) may be associated with weight gain and is not indicated for obesity.
After collecting a history and physical, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the evaluation of weight gain in a 30 year-old obese female?
A. Refer for a sleep study
B. Check urinary free cortisol level
C. Draw blood for thyroid-stimulating hormone level
D. Evaluation for adrenal adenoma causing Cushing disease
E. Cast your gaze down, realizing that affecting behavior change is difficult
C. Draw blood for thyroid-stimulating hormone level
Because of her obesity, this patient is also at risk for sleep apnea, diabetes, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia. These concerns will need to be addressed. However, her chief complaint is weight gain, which could certainly be due to an underlying disease. Although in most overweight patients a cause for weight gain is not found, the physician is obligated to search for potentially treatable causes of weight gain, including hypothyroidism. The symptoms of hypothyroidism are often nonspecific and include weight gain and fatigue. That said, an exhaustive search for underlying causes of obesity is not required for the vast majority of patients. History, exam, and limited laboratory evaluation should be sufficient for most patients.
A new patient presents for his annual examination and has some questions about cardiovascular disease risk. He also wants to chat about his favorite sports team (Iowa Hawkeyes, we hope), but you gently steer him back to the matter at hand.
The following are all considered cardiac risk factors when calculating cardiac risk and the need for statins per the ACC/AHA calculator (http://www.cvriskcalculator.com), except:
A. Age
B. A relative with early heart disease
C. Smoking
D. Hypertension
E. Gender
B. A relative with early heart disease
The ACC/AHA calculator includes the following risk factors for CAD: age, gender, “race,” total cholesterol, HDL cholesterol, systolic and diastolic BP, diabetes, smoking and whether or not one is being treated for hypertension. Unlike many Caribbean resort destinations, the calculator is not all-inclusive. Many known risk factors for heart disease (e.g., family history, obesity) are not taken into account. The risk calculator is a tool; you must continue to apply clinical judgment. Also, the calculator, as well as the entire guideline, is not meant to be used to manage all forms of dyslipidemias. Remember from earlier in this chapter that peripheral vascular disease is considered a CAD equivalent.
You obtain laboratory tests. The patient has normal electrolytes and the following cholesterol panel: Total cholesterol 175 mg/dL, LDL 110 mg/dL, HDL 35 mg/dL, and triglycerides 150 mg/dL. He is a 55-year-old African-American male, nonsmoker, and nondiabetic who takes no medications. His systolic blood pressure is 132/85 mm Hg. You plug all his data into the ASCVD risk calculator and generate a 10-year ASCVD risk of 7.5%.
Given the ASCVD risk you calculated, and being consistent with the 2018 ACC/AHA guideline, you recommend:
A. No changes, keep calm and carry on
B. A treadmill stress test
C. A high fiber diet
D. Low-intensity statin therapy (e.g., simvastatin 10 mg daily)
E. Moderate-intensity statin therapy (e.g., atorvastatin 10–20 mg daily)
E. Moderate-intensity statin therapy (e.g., atorvastatin 10–20 mg daily)
Did you think this patient was a candidate for moderate statin therapy prior to this guideline? If not, you are not alone. The 2018 ACC/AHA guideline has changed the way we determine risk, expanding the use of statins. Patients whose 10-year ASCVD risk is 7.5% or greater should be on moderate-to-high-intensity statin therapy. As noted above, we have dueling guidelines. Of course, you should discuss the pros and cons with every patient.
Your astute patient appears to be goal-oriented and asks you what his target LDL should be. You reply:
A. “Targets are so 2012. The goal is to get you on a moderate-to-high-intensity statin. There is no specific LDL goal number.”
B. “Your target LDL is <100 mg/dL.”
C. “Your target LDL is about 70 mg/dL.”
D. “Your target LDL is simply as low as we can get without causing rhabdomyolysis…well, maybe just a little rhabdo would be OK.”
A. “Targets are so 2012. The goal is to get you on a moderate-to-high-intensity statin. There is no specific LDL goal number.”
The 2018 ACC/AHA guideline does not recommend treating to specific LDL targets. Instead, appropriate statin therapy should be selected based on risk category as previously indicated. Your goal is to get the patient to a maximal dose of statin and not a specific LDL. That said, the LDL should be reduced by 50% even if that is a starting point of 400 mg/dL and the patient ends up at 200 mg/dL.
According to the 2018 ACC/AHA Blood Cholesterol Guideline, all of the following automatically qualify as patients who would benefit from statin therapy except:
A. A patient with known cardiovascular disease
B. A 40-year-old patient with an LDL of 200 mg/dL
C. A 55-year-old diabetic patient with an LDL of 130 mg/dL
D. A 55-year-old nondiabetic patient without known cardiovascular disease whose 10-year ASCVD risk is calculated as 10%
E. A 35-year-old smoker with hypertension
E. A 35-year-old smoker with hypertension
The 35-year-old patient might be a candidate for a statin (HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor) but is not an automatic candidate based on the information given. All other options describe patients who would benefit from statin therapy according to the 2018 ACC/AHA guideline. The 2018 ACC/AHA guideline relies on a risk calculator for primary prevention. See Table 2-11 for a summary of the 2018 cholesterol guidelines. It is important to note that while the ACC/AHA guideline recommends moderate-to-high-intensity statin therapy starting at a 10-year ASCVD risk score of 7.5%, the USPSTF recommends low-to-moderate dose statin therapy at an ASCVD risk score of 10%. We cannot know for sure what answer the ABFM would use for the test, but they usually side with the USPSTF.
RF for CAD
First-degree male relative with CAD or sudden death at age < 55 or first-degree female relative with CAD or sudden death at age < 65
Smoking
HDL < 40 mg/dL (HDL > 60 mg/dL is considered protective)
Diabetes
Hypertension (>140/90) or on antihypertensives
Age: males >45, females >55
Elevated LDL
What does the USPSTF recommend in terms of screening for lipid disorders?
A. Screen all adults annually starting at age 25
B. Screen men age 35 years and older
C. Screen women age 45 years and older
D. Universal screening of all patients age 40 to 75
D. Universal screening of all patients age 40 to 75
USPSTF updated its lipid testing recommendations in 2016. Here is a summary:
Screen patients 40 to 75 years of age without CAD. Treatment is suggested for those 40 to 75 years of age with elevated lipids and one other risk factor for CAD (risk factors for this purpose include (LDL-C > 130 mg/dL or HDL-C < 40 mg/dL), diabetes, hypertension, and smoking) and >10% ten-year risk of having a cardiac event based on the ACA calculator.
Use low-to-moderate dose statins. For those with a risk of 7.5% to 10%, discuss pros and cons with the patient—which of course you do with all patients anyway (JAMA. 2016;316(19):1997–2007). Note that the benefit of lipid treatment outweighs the risk of diabetes (which can be seen with statins).
The patient then asks you about something he read about “crap.” A light bulb goes off and you realize he wants to know about C-reactive protein (CRP).
Which of the following best represents the role of CRP in cardiac disease in 2015?
A. CRP should be measured in all patients in whom cardiac disease is suspected
B. CRP should be measured only in patients with intermediate cardiac risk factors (e.g., those with a 10-year risk of CAD of 10–20%)
C. CRP should be measured in patients with known heart disease in order to monitor inflammation and risk
D. CRP should be measured in low-risk (<10% risk of CAD in next 10 years) patients who have no known cardiac disease. An elevated CRP suggests that these patients should be treated with a lipid-lowering therapy
E. CRP has not been shown to be useful and does not contribute significantly to cardiac risk stratification
E. CRP has not been shown to be useful and does not contribute significantly to cardiac risk stratification
Although, high-sensitivity CRP (hsCRP) was initially thought to be a possible biomarker for cardiac risk assessment, it has been shown to be of marginal benefit. The use of hsCRP led to minimal reclassification of patients (a maximum of 11% of intermediate patients were reclassified in one study). The Class IIa recommendation to use hsCRP was published by the AHA in 2003, prior to further studies that have questioned its usefulness.
You advise your patient to start atorvastatin 20 mg daily. You check baseline transaminases, which are normal. When your patient returns 3 months later and sees your partner (because you took a “vacation” to study for the board examination), she checks his lipids and transaminases out of habit. If only you had been there! You know that the FDA no longer recommends periodic liver enzyme testing while on a statin. Statin-related hepatotoxicity is an idiosyncratic reaction that is extremely rare and completely unpredictable, so there is no point in routinely checking transaminases. Well, your partner didn’t get the memo, and you return to find your patient’s ALT and AST have both doubled while on atorvastatin and are now almost twice the upper limit of normal for your lab.
When you find transaminases are twice the upper limit of normal while on a statin, the proper response is to:
A
Stop the statin because of the elevated liver enzymes
B Start a different statin since this is not a “class effect”
C
Continue the statin and consider other causes for the elevated liver enzymes
D
Add cholestyramine to help ease the burden on the liver
E
Refer for liver biopsy to rule out other causes of elevated liver enzymes
C
Continue the statin and consider other causes for the elevated liver enzymes
Statins can be continued as long as the elevation of liver enzymes is less than three times the upper limit of normal. Never assume that this is a drug effect if there is a reason to believe that the patient could have another disease, such as hepatitis C.
You are compelled to perform the requisite history and physical examination to assess for other causes of liver disease. In the course of your investigations, other labs and imaging may be in order. However, liver biopsy (“E”) would be taking your fiduciary duty to the extreme. “A” is incorrect since the levels are only two times the upper limit of normal. “B” is incorrect for two reasons. First, there is no need to act to change the drug at this point. Second, elevated liver enzymes are a class effect. “D” is incorrect because you do not need to add another drug at this time, and cholestyramine will do nothing to “ease the burden on the liver,” whatever that means.
After a thorough history, examination, appropriate lab and imaging tests, you determine that the liver enzyme elevation was due to fatty infiltration. A month later the enzymes have come down to the upper limits of normal. When you see your patient back, he complains of pain and tenderness in his legs, shoulders and back. He also reports generalized fatigue and weakness.
What is the most appropriate next step in the evaluation and management of this complaint?
A
Stop his atorvastatin and replace it with rosuvastatin
B
Double the dose of atorvastatin
C
Check liver enzymes
D
Check creatine phosphokinase (CPK) level
E
Start coenzyme-Q10 (ubiquinone)
D
Check creatine phosphokinase (CPK) level
This patient is presenting with symptoms that may be attributable to statin-induced myopathy. Statins have been associated with myalgia and rhabdomyolysis. Prior to making any decisions about therapy, the next step would be to confirm your suspicions by checking the CPK level. If this patient has statin-induced muscle symptoms, he is unlikely to improve by switching to rosuvastatin (“A”); hence, increasing the statin dose (“B”) is the wrong thing to do. While it may be reasonable to check liver enzymes (“C”) due to his complaint of fatigue, myopathy is more likely, given his constellation of symptoms. Of course, in your real medical practice, you could order liver enzymes and CPK, but an examination is not real life! Finally, “E” is incorrect. Coenzyme Q10 has not been shown to prevent or treat statin-related myopathy (Mayo Clin Proc. 2015;90:24). But vitamin D may be useful in patients who are deficient.
You check a CPK level, and it is … normal. Darn. You thought you had this mystery wrapped up.
From this normal CPK, you can conclude that:
A
He does not have statin-induced myopathy since the CPK is within normal limits
B
His fatigue and aches are a manifestation of depression and sleep disturbance
C
You can safely increase the dose of his statin
D
He still may have statin-induced myopathy despite a normal CPK
E
Your lab has a serious quality control issue
D
He still may have statin-induced myopathy despite a normal CPK
He still may have statin-induced myopathy despite a normal CPK, so “A” is incorrect. There are several crossover trials that demonstrate myopathy in patients with normal muscle enzymes. The mechanism is thought to be a mitochondrial dysfunction. “B” is incorrect, and the reverse may actually be true (myopathy causing poor sleep and anhedonia). “C” is incorrect because he may indeed have a myopathy, and a trial off one or both drugs is warranted. Remember that gemfibrozil (and less so fenofibrate), which you might prescribe for hypertriglyceridemia, interact with statins to increase the risk of statin-induced myopathy/rhabdomyolysis. Remember also that there is no evidence that treating with gemfibrozil or fenofibrate improves cardiovascular outcomes.
You stop his atorvastatin. A few weeks later, he returns and feels great! You consider starting a different agent to treat his lipids.
Which of the following is classified as a bile acid sequestrant?
A
Ezetimibe
B
Colestipol
C
Colesevelam
D
B and C
E
All of the above
D
B and C: Colestipol & Colesevelam
Ezetimibe (Zetia) is not a bile acid sequestrant but rather reduces cholesterol absorption by blocking at the brush border of the small intestine. This is a mechanism that is different from any of the other lipid-lowering agents. It is relatively safe but expensive and less potent than the statins. You could also try pravastatin and fluvastatin, which are less likely to cause myopathy.
Side effects of ezetimibe include which of the following?
A
Diarrhea
B
Arthralgia
C
Angioedema
D
Liver enzyme elevation
E
All of the above
E
All of the above
“C” deserves special mention. As with ACE inhibitors, angioedema has been reported with the use of ezetimibe during post-marketing research. The rate of occurrence is not known. However, it can be life-threatening although no deaths have been reported to date. All of the other side effects are known to occur at a rate greater than with placebo.
Your patient is now OK taking maximal dose of a statin, but he has questions about a “cholesterol shot” his friend is taking. Apparently, his friend’s LDL is 300—kind of high. You assume that he is talking about a PCSK9 (proprotein convertase subtilisin kexin type 9) inhibitor, which prevents the binding and the degrading of LDL receptors (thus, there are more LDL receptors to uptake LDL from the blood).
The indications for the use of a PCSK9 inhibitor (Praluent® [alirocumab] and Repatha® [evolocumab]) in a patient on statins includes which of the following?
A
Ongoing angina regardless of the percent decrease of LDL on a maximal dose of a statin
B
Less than a 50% reduction from baseline of LDL after maximal dose statin + ezetimibe
C
An absolute LDL of >190 mg/dL after maximal dose statin regardless of the starting LDL
D
A cardiovascular event while on a maximal dose statin plus a bile acid sequestrant
B
Less than a 50% reduction from baseline of LDL after maximal dose statin + ezetimibe
Indications for the use of a PCSK9 inhibitor include the following: (1) Failure to reduce the baseline LDL by 50% on a maximal dose of a statin andezetimibe, or (2) a patient who has a cardiovascular event while on a statin plusezetimibeand an LDL of ≥50 mg/dL (not a bile acid sequestrant as in “D”), or a very high LDL secondary to familial hypercholesterolemia. These drugs are expensive (>$10,000/year), and prevent one cardiovascular even for every 74 patients treated for 2 years.
A 15-year-old pale Caucasian female returns for her annual well-child check and sports physical. She is well-known to your clinic, and over the years she has steadily gained weight. Her parents and a younger sibling are overweight, and now she has become obese by measure of the pediatric BMI percentages. In recent years, you have become more diligent with watching the BMI on her growth curve. She is aware of her weight problem yet has not voiced any plan for attempting weight loss.
What defines “obesity” in adolescence?
A. A BMI in the 85th to 94th percentile for age-sex-and-height-specific measures
B. A BMI ≥95th percentile for age-sex-and-height-specific measures
C. The child has the appearance of being heavy
D. The child complains of being fat or overweight
E. BMI >35 kg/m2
B. A BMI ≥95th percentile for age-sex-and-height-specific measures
A BMI at or above the 95th percentile is considered “obese.” A BMI in the range of 85th to 94th percentiles is considered “overweight.” The use of BMI allows for an objective measure, and although not perfect, can give a picture on the growth curve to patients and parents where they stand relative to age-sex-and-height-related norms. Strict BMI numbers (as in “E”) are not applicable to children and adolescents. A subjective concern about weight (“D”) is important but does not necessarily always warrant further evaluation.
Her obesity is discussed openly during the office visit. As expected, she is ashamed and embarrassed about her weight gain. She admits to not knowing what to do and she asks if anything can be done to quickly lose weight.
Which of these medications would you recommend now as a first-line therapy for weight loss?
A. Topiramate (Topamax)
B. Bupropion (Wellbutrin)
C. Orlistat, (Xenical)
D. Metformin (Glucophage)
E. None of the above
E. None of the above
No medication is approved for children or adolescents as a first-line therapy. Antidepressants are not helpful if used primarily for weight loss. If there is comorbid depression, which is more common in obese children, a “weight loss” or “weight neutral” antidepressant may be appropriate. Antiepileptic medications have not proven helpful. Metformin has been used for weight loss in children but is not approved by FDA and has only small effect on weight with unclear clinical significance. Orlistat is approved for children age 12 and older; however, the benefits are limited to 2 to 3 kg of weight loss. Side effects are often intolerable and include loose, oily stools and stool urgency (just mention the phrase “fecal incontinence” to a teenager and see how far you get). Experts agree that orlistat is only appropriate for adolescents with comorbidities caused by obesity. Obesity (“bariatric”)surgery (especially Roux-en-Y and gastric sleeve) is being performed more often on adolescents and is effective at reversing metabolic changes (insulin resistance, hypertryglyceridemia, etc.). It also improves sleep apnea and depression and improves quality of life.
Her BMI is now at the 97th percentile, having jumped from the 86th percentile last year. What additional workup should be considered?
A. Fasting plasma glucose level or hemoglobin A1c
B. Fasting lipids
C. Renal function testing with BUN and creatinine
D. Liver function testing with ALT
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
Expert opinion suggests that once a child reaches a BMI at the 85th to 94th percentiles, a lipid panel and a fasting glucose or A1c should be obtained to evaluate for hyperlipidemia and early onset type 2 diabetes. When the BMI reaches the 95th percentile, renal function and blood pressure should be monitored, and liver function should be checked (for fatty liver). Fatty liver disease is possible at an early age and is reversible if weight loss can be achieved. Close attention to family history is essential. If family members are obese or have obesity-related comorbidities, early intervention and evaluation are even more crucial. For females who have started menses, it is important to assess for any changes in menstrual patterns.
Which of the following is NOT a recommended early childhood intervention to prevent and/or treat obesity?
A. Encouraging breastfeeding
B. Decreasing screen time of electronic devices
C. Planning fewer family meals
D. Restricting calories from sweets and fast foods
E. Improving efforts for exercise and outdoor activity
C. Planning fewer family meals
Helping with food preparation and sitting down as a family for meals can lead to consumption of more nutritious and lower caloric dense foods. Breastfeeding can lead to protection against obesity even into the teenage years. Formal recommendations suggest limiting TV, tablet, phone, computer use, and video games to less than 2 hours per day with minimal screen time for children under age 2. Fast food, sweets, and desserts need to be limited to small servings or few servings per week. Finally, at least 60 minutes of exercise should be encouraged every day—doing a variety of activities will keep children more engaged and interested.
During the examination of the patient, you notice acne, some coarse facial hair, and dark skin pigmentation around the base of her neck.
What is another finding you may expect to see with further questions and tests?
A. Normal menses
B. Low free testosterone level
C. Low DHEA sulfate (DHEA-S)
D. Hypoglycemia
E. Abnormal hypothalamic–pituitary axis hormones
E. Abnormal hypothalamic–pituitary axis hormones
While the earliest clinical manifestation is irregular menses, she is showing other signs of possible polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). This can be associated with elevated prolactin, low TSH, and a marked elevation of FSH relative to luteinizing hormone (LH). PCOS can be associated with early menarche, dysmenorrhea, and amenorrhea. A pregnancy test should be done in any case of amenorrhea. PCOS is also associated with elevations of testosterone, DHEA-S, and androstenedione. If there are other significant physical examination findings such as elevated blood pressure, purple striae, and a “buffalo hump,” consider testing for Cushing syndrome. See chapter 15 for more on PCOS.
A 13-year-old Native American female has a body mass index (BMI) at the 90th percentile for age. The primary care pediatric nurse practitioner notes the presence of a hyperpigmented velvet-like rash in skin folds. The child denies polydipsia, polyphagia, and polyuria. The nurse practitioner will take what action?
A. Counsel the child to lose weight to prevent type 2 diabetes
B. Diagnose type 2 diabetes if the child has a random glucose of 180 mg/dL
C. Order a fasting blood sample for a metabolic screen for type 2 diabetes
D. Refer the child to a pediatric endocrinologist
C. Order a fasting blood sample for a metabolic screen for type 2 diabetes
This child has three risk factors for type 2 diabetes: Native American ethnicity, overweight, and acanthosis nigricans. The PNP should perform metabolic screening on a fasting blood sample to diagnose this. Lifestyle changes may be necessary to control the disease if diagnosed, but this child may already have the disease, and management options aren’t clear until the diagnosis is made. Diagnosis is based on a random glucose >200 mg/dL. It is not necessary to refer this child until a diagnosis is made.
A 6-year-old child has a systolic blood pressure between the 95th and 99th percentile for age, sex, and height, and a diastolic blood pressure between the 90th and the 95th percentile on three separate clinic visits. This child’s blood pressure is placed in which classification?
A. Normotensive
B. Pre-hypertensive
C. Stage 1 hypertensive
D. Stage 2 hypertensive
C. Stage 1 hypertensive
Stage 1 hypertensive pressure ranges from the 95th percentile or from 120/80 mm Hg to 5 mm Hg above the 99th percentile for age, sex, and height for either systolic or diastolic pressure. Normotensive pressure is below the 90th percentile. Pre-hypertensive pressure is between the 90th and 95th percentiles. Stage 2 hypertensive pressure is greater than the 99th percentile.
A 12-year-old child whose weight and body mass index (BMI) are in the 75th percentile has a diastolic blood pressure that is between the 95th and 99th percentiles for age, sex, and height on three separate occasions. Which test will be prescribed for this child initially?
A. Complete blood count
B. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
C. Renal function
D. Urinalysis and electrolytes
C. Renal function
Since the majority of children with stage 1 or 2 hypertension have renal or renovascular causes for elevated BP, renal function and plasma renin tests should be performed. Children under 10 years of age with stage 2 hypertension should have more aggressive laboratory evaluation, including CBC, ESR, UA, and electrolytes.
A 12-year-old child whose body mass index (BMI) is greater than the 95th percentile has a blood pressure at the 98th percentile for age, sex, and height. After lifestyle changes that include diet and exercise, the child’s BMI drops to the 90th percentile, but the blood pressure remains the same. What is the primary care pediatric nurse practitioner’s next step in treating this child?
A. Continued close monitoring of blood pressure
B. Ordering an echocardiogram
C. Prescribing an ACE inhibitor medication
D. Referral to a nephrologist or cardiologist
D. Referral to a nephrologist or cardiologist
Children who have persistent BP elevation after lifestyle changes are made should be referred to a nephrologist or cardiologist who has experience using antihypertensive agents in children. The specialist orders necessary tests and medications, not the primary care provider.
Liver function tests should be monitored routinely every 4 months in the client on maintenance therapy with all hypolipidemic drugs EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. Bile acid sequestrants
b. Hydroxymethylglutaryl-coenzyme A reductase inhibitors
c. Nicotinic acid
d. Fibric acid derivatives
a. Bile acid sequestrants
A 67-year-old patient with newly diagnosed hypertension is a smoker with diabetes mellitus. Which of the following medications has the potential to cause the development of bronchial asthma and inhibit gluconeogenesis?
a. ACE inhibitors
b. Beta-blockers
c. Calcium channel blockers
d. Diuretics
b. Beta-blockers
A provider wants to run initial testing to determine target organ damage and other risk factors in a patient diagnosed with hypertension. Which tests should be included?
a. Chest xray, electrocardiogram, urinalysis, complete blood count, chemistry profile, lipid profile, and TSH level.
b. Renal arteriogram
c. Plasma renin activity and 24-hour urinary sodium
d. Echocardiogram
a. Chest xray, electrocardiogram, urinalysis, complete blood count, chemistry profile, lipid profile, and TSH level.
Many patients need two or more agents to help control hypertension. If a patient has a SBP >160 and/or DBP > 100, and has a PMH relevant for uncontrolled essential HTN, DM, what is the best initial combination therapy?
a. Lasix and a beta-blocker
b. Thiazide diuretic and an ACE inhibitor
c. Nitrate and a beta blocker
d. Thiazide and a calcium channel blocker
b. Thiazide diuretic and an ACE inhibitor
Which antihypertensive medications are the most effective in treating hypertension in African Americans and older adults?
a. Diuretics
b. ACE inhibitors
c. Beta blockers
d. Alpha-adrenergic blockers
a. Diuretics
What are the recommendations when treating high triglycerides?
a. Aggressively treat with fenofibrates
b. Treatment should be with combination therapy with a statin and fenofibrate
c. Focus on lifestyle changes as initial therapy
d. Use a bile acid sequestrant.
c. Focus on lifestyle changes as initial therapy
Normal BP
<120/80
Elevated BP
SBP 120- 129
AND
DBP < 80
reassess BP in 3- 6 mo
Stage 1 HTN
SBP 130- 139
OR
DBP 80-89
Stage 2 HTN
SBP > 140
OR
DBP >/= 90
HTN dx
Average of TWO or more properly measured, seated BP recordings on TWO separate occasions
Common factors associated with elevated BP
-Pain
-Excess dietary intake of sodium (even for patients who don’t add salt to their
food—recall that many canned/processed foods are high in sodium
-Alcohol consumption (especially when the use is chronic or heavy)
-Tobacco use
-Stress
-Anxiety (such as with white coat hypertension)
-Use of decongestants (in many cough/cold preparations which can be obtained over the
counter, including pseudoephedrine, phenylephrine, and oxymetazoline)
-Some herbal supplements
-Many commonly used drugs (such as NSAIDs, sympathomimetics, oral contraceptive
pills, illicit drugs, etc)
-Obesity
-Obstructive sleep apnea
-Black licorice (the ”real stuff” from the root of Glycyrrhiza glabra which
contains glycyrrhizinic and glycyrrhetinic acid) can also cause an elevation in blood pressure (and hypokalemia) by indirectly antagonizing the aldosterone receptors in the kidney
HTN non-pharmacological management
Lifestyle modifications:
- diet (low sodium & DASH diet - high in fruits, veggies, low-fat dairy, reduced saturated and total fat) sodium intake < 2400mg/day
- exercise: moderate-vigorous activity 3-4 days a week ~ 40 mins
- weight loss
- moderate alcohol consumption (men 2 drinks/day women 1 drink/day)
- smoking cessation
- control BG & lipids
Initial workup for HTN dx
fasting blood glucose CBC lipid profile serum Cr w/ eGFR serum NA, K, Ca TSH US ECG
optional: echocardiogram, uric acid, urinary ACR ratio
ADA recommendations for DM screening
Adults of any age who are overweight/obese (BMI > 25; > 23 Asians)
AND another RF:
- First-degree relative with diabetes
- High-risk race/ethnicity (e.g., African American, Latino, Native American, Asian
American, Pacific Islander)
- History of CVD
- Hypertension (>140/90 mmHg or on therapy for hypertension)
- HDL cholesterol level <35 mg/dL (0.90 mmol/L) and/or a triglyceride level >250 mg/dL
(2.82 mmol/L)
- Women with polycystic ovary syndrome
- Physical inactivity
- Other clinical conditions associated with insulin resistance (e.g., severe obesity,
acanthosis nigricans)
Patients with prediabetes (A1C >5.7% [39 mmol/mol], IGT, or IFG) should be tested yearly.
Women who were diagnosed with GDM should have lifelong testing at least every 3 years.
For all other patients, testing should begin at age 35 years.
If results are normal, testing should be repeated at a minimum of 3-year intervals, with
consideration of more frequent testing depending on initial results and risk status.
People with HIV
ADA recommendations for DM screening in children
Risk-based screening for type 2 diabetes or prediabetes in
asymptomatic children and adolescents in a clinical setting:
Screening should be considered in youth who have overweight (>85th percentile) or
obesity (>95th percentile) AND who have one or more additional risk factors:
- Maternal history of diabetes or GDM during the child’s gestation
- Family history of type 2 diabetes in first- or second-degree relative
- Race/ethnicity (Native American, African American, Latino, Asian American, Pacific
Islander) - Signs of insulin resistance or conditions associated with insulin resistance (acanthosis
nigricans, hypertension, dyslipidemia, polycystic ovary syndrome, or small-for gestational-age birth weight)
