Week 1: Haemopoiesis and haemostasis

Question 1

Which of the following, using Wright stain, is a feature of normal cells as they mature?
a) Overall size increases
b) Nucleoli become more prominent
c) Cytoplasmic basophilia increases
d) Nuclear chromatin becomes more condensed
e) All of the above

Answer 1

d) Nuclear chromatin becomes more condensed

Question 2

The order of erythropoietic maturation from blast to mature RBC is:
a) Proerythroblast→ polychromatic erythroblast→ polychromatic erythrocyte→ basophilic erythroblast→ orthochromic
erythroblast→ erythrocyte

b) Proerythroblast→ basophilic erythroblast→ polychromatic erythroblast→ orthochromic erythroblast→ polychromatic
erythrocyte→ erythrocyte

c) Proerythroblast→ orthochromic erythroblast→ basophilic erythroblast→ polychromatic erythroblast→polychromatic
erythrocyte→ erythrocyte

d) Proerythroblast→ Polychromatic erythrocyte→ polychromatic erythroblast→ orthochromic erythroblast→ basophilic
erythroblast→ erythrocyte

e) Proerythroblast→ basophilic erythroblast→ polychromatic erythrocyte→ orthochromic erythroblast→ polychromatic
erythroblast→ erythrocyte

Answer 2

b) Proerythroblast→ basophilic erythroblast→ polychromatic erythroblast→ orthochromic erythroblast→ polychromatic
erythrocyte→ erythrocyte

Question 3

During granulopoiesis, specific or secondary granules appear during which stage of maturation?
a) Myeloblast
b) Promyeloblast
c) Myelocyte
d) Metamyelocyte
e) Mature granulocyte

Answer 3

c) Myelocyte

Question 4

Which listing represents the proper cell sequence of neutrophil maturation ?
a) Myeloblast, myelocyte, promyelocyte, metamyelocyte, band neutrophil, segmented neutrophil

b) Myeloblast, metamyelocyte, myelocyte, promyelocyte, segmented neutrophil, band neutrophil

c) Myeloblast, promyelocyte, myelocyte, metamyelocyte, band neutrophil, segmented neutrophil

d) Myeloblast, band neutrophil, promyelocyte, myelocyte, metamyelocyte, segmented neutrophil

e) Myeloblast, promyelocyte, metamyelocyte, myelocyte, band neutrophil, segmented neutrophil

Answer 4

c) Myeloblast, promyelocyte, myelocyte, metamyelocyte, band neutrophil, segmented neutrophil

Question 5

Why does surgical removal of the spleen cause people to have an increased platelet count?
a) The bone marrow makes more platelets when the person has no spleen.
b) The 30% of platelets normally stored in the spleen are freely circulating.
c) Antibodies produced after splenectomy attack platelets.
d) Surgery stimulates platelet growth factors.
e) All of the above

Answer 5

b) The 30% of platelets normally stored in the spleen are freely circulating.

Question 6

Which of the following processes is not part of the secondary haemostatic response?
a) Platelet adhesion
b) Intrinsic coagulation pathway
c) Extrinsic coagulation pathway
d) Tissue factor activation of factor VII
e) Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

Answer 6

a) Platelet adhesion

Question 7

Which protein, secreted by endothelial cells, initiates fibrinolysis?
a) Plasminogen
b) Tissue plasminogen activator
c) Plasminogen activator inhibitor-1
d) D-Dimer
e) Von Willebrand factor

Answer 7

b) Tissue plasminogen activator

Question 8

Which of the following is the body’s initial response to blood vessel damage?
a) Platelet activation
b) Platelet adhesion
c) Vasoconstriction
d) Vasodilation
e) Platelet aggregation

Answer 8

c) Vasoconstriction

Question 9

All of the following are functions of thrombin except:
a) activates factors V and VIII
b) activates plasminogen
c) activates factor XIII
d) initiates platelet aggregation
e) cleaves A and B peptides from fibrinogen

Answer 9

b) activates plasminogen

Question 10

Oral anticoagulation with warfarin is based on;
a) activating plasminogen.
b) activating plasmin.
c) combining with antithrombin.
d) vitamin K antagonism.
e) inhibition of cyclooxygenase

Answer 10

d) vitamin K antagonism.

Question 11

Non-elevated plasma D dimer levels are useful for ruling out:
a) deep venous thrombosis (DVT)
b) von Willebrand disease (vWD)
c) protein C deficiency
d) factor VII deficiency
e) congestive heart failure

Answer 11

a) deep venous thrombosis (DVT)

Question 12

Which of the following proteins digests fibrin?
a) Thrombin
b) Plasminogen
c) Plasmin
d) Tissue plasminogen activator
e) α2-Antiplasmin

Answer 12

c) Plasmin

Question 13

Patients who have a deficiency of protein C or protein S have which type of disorder?
a) Mucocutaneous bleeding disorder
b) Thrombophilia
c) Anatomical bleeding disorder
d) Vascular disorder
e) Hypercalcemia

Answer 13

b) Thrombophilia

Question 14

After thrombin cleaves fibrinopeptides A and B from fibrinogen, the resultant fibrin monomers:
a) are immediately inactivated to prevent excess clotting
b) are converted to plasminogen
c) are digested quickly by tissue plasminogen activator (TPA)
d) polymerise spontaneously and are stabilized by factor XIIIa
e) all of the above

Answer 14

d) polymerise spontaneously and are stabilized by factor XIIIa

Question 15

Heparin inhibits coagulation by enhancing the function of which of the following?
a) Protein S
b) Antithrombin
c) Vitamin K
d) Factor VII
e) Protein C

Answer 15

b) Antithrombin