Week 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Five different properties of malignant cancer cells

A

1) Unresponsive to normal signals for proliferation control
2) De-differentiated (lack specialized structures/functions)
3) Invasive (outgrowth into normal neighbors)
4) Metastatic (shed and proliferate)
5) Clonal in origin (derived from single cell)

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2
Q

Cancer is the accumulation of ____________ over time. Cancer ________ can be inherited in a ______ or _______ pattern

A

many somatic genetic alterations and mutations

Susceptibility
Dominant or recessive

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3
Q

4 steps for carcinogenesis

A

1) Tumor initiation
2) Tumor promotion
3) Tumor conversion
4) Tumor progression

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4
Q

Carcinogenic mutations can occur in two types of genes, ________ and ______

A

Oncogenes

anti-oncogenes (Tumor Suppressors)

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5
Q

Oncogenes

A

Genes that normally stimulate cellular proliferation - are activated in carcinogenesis

= Gas Pedal

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6
Q

Tumor Suppressors (anti-oncogenes)

A

normally inhibit cellular proliferation - inactivated in carcinogenesis

= Brakes

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7
Q

Types of cytogenetic abnormalities associated with malignancy: (3)

A

1) Translocations and gene deletions
2) Loss of heterozygosity
3) aneuploidy

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8
Q

Events that can produce loss of heterozygosity (2)

A

1) Mitotic recombination

2) Loss of chromosome or translocation

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9
Q

The Retinoblastoma Gene is on chromosome ______ and acts as a ___________

A

chr13q14

tumor suppressor

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10
Q

Patients with “inherited” RB are ________ for the RB gene in their normal tissues and ________ for the RB gene in their tumor cells. Patients with inherited RB therefore typically have ________ retinoblastomas

A

heterozygous

homozygous

bilateral

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11
Q

Patients with no family history of RB must have ________ in order to get a retinoblastoma. Patients in this case thus typically have ______ retinoblastomas.

A
  • two independent events occurring in retinal cells that cause both copies of RB gene to be non-functional.
  • unilateral RBs
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12
Q

RB is hyperphosphorylated in _________ cells at ________ stage of the cell cycle

A

rapidly proliferating

at S or G2 of the cell cycle

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13
Q

__________ phosphorylates RB protein and causing it to be _________. _______ levels fluctuate while ______ levels are always the same.

A

CDKs + Cyc complexes
-inactivated

Cyc level fluctuates, CDK level always the same

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14
Q

When RB is phosphorylated in no longer is able to _______________

A

inhibit transition into S phase, allowing cell division cycle to begin

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15
Q

RB is hypophosphorylated in _________ cells at _______ stage of the cell cycle. When RB is not phosphorylated it _____________

A

non-proliferating cells

at G0 or G1 of the cell cycle

inhibits entry into S phase

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16
Q

RB is a target for many ______________. These drive a quiescent cell into S phase by producing __________

A

animal tumor viruses

viral proteins

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17
Q

_________ and ________ are examples of animal tumor viruses.

A

SV40 and HPV

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18
Q

HPV virus infects cells causing them to produce ________ and _______ proteins which inhibit _______ and ________ respectively

A

HPV E7 and E6 proteins

RB and p53 tumor suppressors

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19
Q

______, ________ and _______ are homologs that act as tumor suppressors. Their activity is _________.

A

RB, p107, p130

tissue specific

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20
Q

The APC gene is a ________ and when mutated, is involved in _________. APC gene is located on chromosome _____

A

Tumor suppressor gene
Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP)

chr5q

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21
Q

Familial Adenomatous Polyposis is inherited in a _________ pattern, and requires loss of hederozygosity in adenomatous polyps of the colon to cause _____________

A

autosomal dominant

colon cancer by age 50

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22
Q

APC gene encodes a protein that regulates localization of ____________.

A

Beta-Catenin protein

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23
Q

B-Catenin protein is typically bound to _________ and kept sequestered in the _________. When B-Catenin is free in the cytoplasm, the _______ acts to break it down. Without this, B-catenin will _________

A

E-Cadherin, kept sequestered in plasma membrane

APC protein

enter the nucleus and activate transcription of oncogenes (c-myc)

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24
Q

BRCA1 and BRCA2 to function in ________.

A

DNA repair

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25
Q

Inherited BRCA1/2 cases result from __________. Acquired cases of _______ mutations in these genes have NOT been found in tumors (different from RB gene)

A

LOH –> mutant/non-functional BRCA1/2

Somatic mutations

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26
Q

If you are heterozygous for BRCA2 mutations = ___________

If you are homozygous BRCA2 mutations = ___________

This means that BRCA2 is ________ with __________

A

Heterozygous –> breast cancer due to LOH in mammary gland cells

Homozygous –> Fanconi’s anemia

BRCA2 is allelic with Fanconi’s anemia D1 gene FANCD1

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27
Q

p53 is a ________ gene that acts as ___________ by preventing ___________

A

tumor suppressor

“Guardian of the genome”

potentially deleterious mutation

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28
Q

Cellular functions of p53 (4)

A

1) Transcription Factor
2) Required for apoptosis
3) Mutation “hotspots”
4) Interfered with lifecycle of many human viruses

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29
Q

P53 acts as a transcription factor, and is important for ____________

A

preventing cells from replicating damaged or foreign DNA

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30
Q

p53 is required for apoptosis by __________

A

preventing cells with DNA damage beyond repair from replicating

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31
Q

Why was p53 originally thought to be an oncogene instead of a tumor suppressor?

A

“Dominant Negative” p53 mutations - heterozygous p53 mutation can produce mutant protein that binds the wild-type p53 protein and inactivates it

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32
Q

Oncogenes were first discovered in ________. Normal cells are ________ while cancer cells are ________

A

oncogenetic retroviruses (RNA viruses that infect cell and take over its replication machinery)

anchor dependent
NOT

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33
Q

Viral ongogne (V-onc) proteins allow viruses to _________

A

rapidly transform appropriate infected cells to malignant phenotype

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34
Q

pp60v-src is a ________ and ________ that acts to _____________

A

viral oncogene protein and membrane bound kinase

phosphorylate tyrosine residues of proteins causing changes in gene expression

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35
Q

v-erb-B is a ________ that codes for a protein similar in structure to _________, and acts as a tyorsine specific protein kinase that __________

A

viral oncogene protien

EGFR (epithelial growth factor cell surface receptor)

stimulates growth

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36
Q

v-abl is a ________ that acts as a protein kinase. v-abl is similar to ________

A

viral oncogene protein

human c-ABL gene (the one found in BCR-ABL translocation in CML) - Philadelphia Chromosome

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37
Q

Endogenous oncogenes are called _______. They are part of normal functioning human cells and must undergo _________ in order to become carcinogenic. Therapy therefore can only target _________

A

c-onc

mutation

c-onc over-expression (not all c-onc genes)

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38
Q

Oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes are being used as ________ in ________ and _______

A

“molecular markers”

cancer diagnosis and prognosis

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39
Q

“Heat Map” in personalized medicine

A

used to correlate many types of molecular data aka bioinformatics (gene copy number, gene expression, heat maps, mutations, etc.) with relevant clinical information (tumor grade, survival, age, tumor stage, etc.)

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40
Q

Breast cancer Xpress Chip

A

personalized medicine
info used for diagnosis, prognosis and therapy

-Measures expression of 123 genes known to be altered in breast cancers

-high erbB2 –> treat with Herceptin
High ER levels –> treat with tamoxifen

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41
Q

Criteria for classifying Li-Fraumeni Syndrome (3)

A

must have all 3

1) Proband with a sarcoma diagnosed before age 45
2) First degree relative with cancer under 45
3) A first or second-degree relative with any cancer under 45 years of age or a sarcoma at any age

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42
Q

Knudson Two Hit Hypothesis: Li-Fraumeni Syndrome

A

Hit 1 = premalignant
Hit 2 = Carcinoma

Multi-locus model - hits can be on two different genes (unlike RB)

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43
Q

Hit 1 LFS con occur via…(4)

A

1) Point mutation –> oncogene activation (RAS, myc) or tumor suppressor inactivation (p53, RB)
2) Amplifications/deletions
3) Epigenetic silencing by methylation
4) Insertion of retrovirus containing oncogenes

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44
Q

Hit 2 LFS

A

Amplification of HER2 oncogene

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45
Q

P53 response to UV exposure

A

1) p53 bound by mdm2
2) DNA damage, cell abnormalities or hypoxia –> p53 activated
3) Cell cycle arrest (DNA repair, cell cycle restart) or apoptosis/elimination of damaged cells

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46
Q

Von Hippel-Lindau clinical manifestions

A

Formation of cystic and highly vascularized tumors in many organs

  • Cerebellar/Spinal cord hemangioblastomas (Major cause of death in VHL patients)
  • Clear Cell Renal Cell Carcinoma (Major cause of death in VHL patients)
  • Retinal Hemangioblastomas

-Must have 2 criteria: one VHL lesion + family history, or two VHL lesions

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47
Q

VHL inheritance is _______ with high _______ and ________

A

AD

penetrance and variability (severity/onset)

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48
Q

VHL is caused by a mutation in a ___________ gene located on __________. This gene codes a protein that is part of a complex that _____________ and ________. It is _______ dependent.

A

tumor suppressor
chr3p25-26

targets unwanted proteins for proteosomal degradation by ubiquination and Hypoxia Inducing Factor (HIF)

oxygen dependent

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49
Q

Under normal oxygen, HIF is __________. If VHL ubiquinates HIF, then ________

A

hydroxylated by proline and asparagine hydroxylase

proteosomal degredation

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50
Q

Under hypoxic conditions, HIF is ____________. HIF thus _______ and activates ________________.

A

not hydroxylated and not degraded

accumulates

activates transcription of genes involved in angiogenesis, metabolism, apoptosis, low O2 survival, and other cancer growth promotion processes

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51
Q

Cells with a mutated or lost VHL gene behave like ___________. This results in ______________

A

they are constantly hypoxic

HIF accumulation, aneuploidy, disruption of primary cilia maintenance → renal cysts and renal cell carcinoma formation

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52
Q

The VHL gene 4 actions:

A

1) Regulate HIF
2) Suppress anuploidy
3) Maintains primary cilia
4) Stabilizes microtubules

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53
Q

Clear Cell Renal Cell Carcinoma (ccRCC) follows the ________ theory because two copies of _________ are required

A

Two-hit

inactive VHL gene

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54
Q

The lipid bilayer is a ______ and _______ structure. The lipid molecules are constantly _______ - catalyzed by ________

A

dynamic and fluid

changing places with its neighbors in the bilayer

Flippase (ATP driven)

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55
Q

Membrane fluidity depends on ______ and ______. _______ decreases fluidity.

A

Composition and temperature

cholesterol

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56
Q

Phospholipid is a _______ molecule synthesized in the ________. It does not __________.

A

amphipathic
ER

spontaneously flip/flop

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57
Q

Most common Phospholipids include _________, ________, and ___________, and are all derived from __________

A

Phosphatidylethanolamine (PE)
Phosphatidylserine (PS)
Phosphatidylinositol (PI)

glycerol

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58
Q

Sphingolipid is a _______ molecule synthesized in the ________. _______ is an example, derived from ____________

A

amphipathic
ER

Sphingomyelin
Sphingosine

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59
Q

Cholesterol is a _______ molecule synthesized in the _______. It is made up of a ________, _________ and ________.

A

Amphipathic
ER

Polar hydroxyl group
Hydrocarbon tail
Rigid steroid ring (intercalates with hydrophobic tails)

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60
Q

Cholesterol is important in ________ and ______, therefore its abundance is carefully regulated.

A

Determining membrane fluidity and membrane thickness

less cholesterol = more fluid and thinner

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61
Q

The cell membrane is ________, which is established during __________.

A

Assymetrical, established in ER during synthesis

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62
Q

Negatively charged molecules (PS, PE, PI) are more abundant on _________, while PC, sphingomyelin, and glycolipids are more abundant on _______. _________ is equally distributed.

A

internal surface
external surface

Cholesterol

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63
Q

HMGCoA Reductase is the _________ in cholesterol synthesis and is a target for __________

A

first/rate limiting step

Statins (treat high cholesterol)

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64
Q

Sterol Regulatory Element Binding Protein (SREBP)

A

Transmembrane protein

  • Binds transcription factor keeping it inactive
  • when cholesterol is low –> TF cleaved from SREBP in golgi by proteases
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65
Q

Cholesterol Transcription Factor

A
  • Basic helix-loop-helix DNA binding protein
  • Bound by SREBP (inactive)
  • Cleaved from SREBP in golgi when cholesterol is low (activated)
  • Translocates to nucleus –> express genes to produce more LDLR and increases all enxymes involved in cellular synthesis of cholesterol
66
Q

Cholesterol levels are detected by ___________

A

sensors in ER membrane (where cholesterol is lowest in the cell)

67
Q

SCAP (SREBP Cleavage Activating Protein)

A
  • Binds to SREBP and sterols (cholesterol)
  • Cholesterol sensor
  • Involved in cleaving TF off SREBP (recognizes, but doesn’t actually do the cleaving)
  • Escorts SREBP to golgi via vesicular transport when cholesterol is low
68
Q

Insig

A

SCAP binding protein

  • Binds SCAP only when cholesterol is HIGH
  • blocks signaling part of SCAP that typically binds COPII (vesicle transport protein)

-When cholesterol is low: insig no longer binds SCAP and ACAP/SREBP goes to golgi in vesicles

69
Q

RIP (Regulated Intramembrane Proteolysis)

A

Cleaves TF from SREBP in a 2 step proteolysis (S1P / S2P)
-can sometimes cut in transmembrane domain

-Critical for notch signaling and development

70
Q

________ acts to bring cholesterol into the cell

A

LDLR

71
Q

Plasma volume is _____ L and consists of __________

A

3 liters

whole blood without the cells

72
Q

Extracellular Fluid (ECF) volume is _______ L plus another ____ L for the “Third Space”. This consists of ______, _______, and _______

A

13 liters
5 liters
Plasma, Lymph, and interstitial fluid

73
Q

Intracellular Fluid (ICF) volume is _____ L and consists of __________. It has a slight _____ charge

A

27 liters
mitochondrial, vesicular, nuclear, ER, and other sub-compartments

Negative

74
Q

Na+ concentration

A

functionally impermeable

High concentration outside cell, low inside cell

75
Q

K+ concentration

A

membrane permeable

Low concentration outside cell, high inside cell

76
Q

Cl- Concentration

A

membrane permeable

High concentration outside cell, low inside cell

77
Q

Protein concentration

A

membrane impermeable

Low concentration outside cell, high inside cell

78
Q

H2O concentration

A

membrane permeable

Same concentration inside and out

79
Q

Functional properties of membranes (2)

A

1) Impermeable to charge (lipids create/maintain electrical potential)
2) Selectively permeable (allows some charged/polar molecules cross - mediated by channels/transporter proteins inserted in membrane)

80
Q

Routes to traverse a membrane (2)

A

1) Channels

2) Transporter

81
Q

Membrane Channels are ____________. They have 2 properties:

A

passive pores/tunnels in the membrane

1) Selective for particular ions
2) Molecular gates (substance can pass only when gate is open)

82
Q

Membrane Transporters

A

substances cross membranes by binding to proteins and being escorted (“carried”) across

  • Work much slower than channels
  • Primary and secondary active transporters
83
Q

3 mechanisms cells have evolved to prevent from swelling and bursting:

A

1) Water impermeable membrane (not common, most are highly permeable to water)
2) Cell Wall - keep cell from swelling by brute force (hydrostatic force counters osmotic force)
3) Osmotic Balance in and out- Dilute water with solute outside of cell so it matches inside

84
Q

In order to generate osmotic balance you must have ________ and _______, but _______ does not matter

A

equal osmolarity inside and out and solutes must be non-permeating

Chemistry doesn’t matter (solutes in/out can be different)

85
Q

Diffusion

A

Random, thermally-agitated movement of molecules

86
Q

Osmosis

A

Diffusion of water
-Net inward movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane

  • Membrane permeable to solvent but NOT solute –> solute sucks water into cell
  • Faster than simple diffusion
87
Q

_______ is the only thing that can change the volume of a cell and this happens based on ____________

A

WATER movement

concentration of non-permeating solute

88
Q

Osmolarity (osM)

A

Total concentration of solute particles

EX) 1M NaCl = 2 osM NaCl

89
Q

Equivalents (mEq)

A

-number of combining weights per liter
First convert each ion to mosM
Second multiply by valence of the ion in question

90
Q

Tonicity:

Hypertonic –>
Hypotonic –>
Isotonic –>

A

Hypertonic –> makes cell shrink
Hypotonic –> makes cell swell
Isotonic –> no net change in volume

91
Q

Reflection coefficient (sigma)

A

How well a membrane reflects a substance

Between 0 and 1
0 = as permeable as water
1 = not permeable at all

92
Q

How does treating Diabetic Keto Acidosis cause cerebral edema?

A

-High [glucose] in ECF because no insulin present for uptake into cells
• Treat in clinic by injecting insulin

  • BUT if plasma osmolarity falls too quickly, glucose in brain will create osmotic gradient across brain capillaries
  • Blood brain barrier is relatively impermeable

→ water sucked out of brain capillaries → cerebral edema

93
Q

VAMP (vesicle association membrane protein) contains a ______ and _______ domain. It acts to __________

A

VAMP is on vesicle membranes

  • Trans-membrane domain + H domain
  • Fuses with SNAP-25 and Syntaxin present on cell membrane in zippering mechanism (H-domains)
94
Q

SNAP-25 has _______ domains and a ___________. It is located in __________

A
  • 2 SNARE domains + modified loop that buries in outer leaflet of membrane
  • In cell membrane
95
Q

Syntaxin has a _______ and ______ domain and is located in ____________

A

-Transmembrane domain (anchors into cells’ plasma membrane) + H domain

96
Q

H domain (aka SNARE domain)

A
  • amphipathic alpha helix
  • Hydrophobic region and charged residue → can come together to form cold coil motifs
  • Four parallel a-helixes come together
  • Allows repulsive forces caused by hydration dipoles to be overcome
97
Q

SNARE proteins involved in membrane fusion include _____, _______, _______. All contain H-domains, but only _______ and ________ contain transmembrane domains. These proteins all work to ______________

A

VAMP, SNAP-25, Syntaxin

VAMP
Syntaxin

Bring vesicle membrane and cell membrane into close proximity, allowing spontaneous fusion of membranes

98
Q

NSF

A
  • Regulates SNARE-based fusion
  • breaks very stable zipper formation of SNARE complex
  • ATPase, hexomer (6 together), barrel structure each with an ATP
  • Hydrolyzes ATP to unwind SNARE complex that goes into hole of barrel
  • Unwinding causes Syntaxin to be denatured
99
Q

alpha-SNAP

A

aids NSF by recruiting it to the zippered complex for unwinding

100
Q

N-sec 1

A
  • Acts in regulation of SNARE-based fusion
  • Activator: Folds Syntaxin 1 in active conformation, priming it for fusion
  • Inhibitor: fusion not allowed while N-sec1 is still bound
    • -> Must remove n-sec1 to allow VAMP to fuse
  • -> Trigger mechanism, regulated by calcium
101
Q

The many different SNAP, VAMP, and Syntaxins in our genome allows for ___________

A

regulation!

Only certain combinations of VAMP, SNAP, Syntaxin can fuse together –> specificity

102
Q

Gp41 protein (HIV)

A
  • sits on envelope outside capsid
  • Transmembrane + 2 H domains (amphipathic a-helixes) + Fusogenic peptide domain (Highly hydrophobic AA, buries into lipid bilayer)

-2H domains form cold coil with 2 a-helixes, in anti-parallel formation

  • Brings transmembrane domain and fusogenic peptide domain close together
  • Allows fp to imbed into membrane an facilitate membrane fusion
103
Q

Viral fusion is regulated at the level of ___________. This means that the virus must undergo a ____________

A

activation

conformational change: stable –> metastable conformation

104
Q

Bulky solutions are always _______.

A

electrically neutral

105
Q

If Vm = E (equilibrium potential) then…

A

the internal charge is sufficient to keep ion from diffusing out of cell, at equilibrium

106
Q

If Vm does not equal E then there are 2 possibilities:

A

1) membrane is impermeable to ion
2) Membrane is permeable to ion and therefore ion must be pumped across the membrane because it is not distributed at equilibrium

107
Q

Principle of electrical neutrality states that…

A

[anions]in = [cations]in and [anions]out = [cations]out

108
Q

Osmotic balance states that…

A

number of particles in = number of particles out

109
Q

Donnan rule states…

A

[K+]o [Cl-]o = [K+]i [Cl-]i

110
Q

The Na/K pump pushes ____ out of cell and _______ into cell. It uses _____. The pump is also _______ and _______

A

3 Na+ out
2 K+ in
ATP

Saturatable and electrogenic (makes Vm more negative)

111
Q

The primary short term determinant of membrane potential is NOT the Na/K pump, but _____________

A

Relative membrane permeabilities to the different ions

112
Q

Steady state is different from equilibrium because in steady state…

A

[Na+] and [K+] don’t change over time, but we need a constant energy input → we are NOT at equilibrium

113
Q

Relative permeability of K+ and Na+

A

the number of K+ vs. Na+ channels in a certain cell determines if membrane potential is closer to Ek or Ena

114
Q

Driving force

A

the difference between membrane potential (Vm) and equilibrium potential (Eion)

More channels –> more current –> more driving force –> more current

115
Q

Neurons and other excitable cells are much more sensitive to _____ rather than ______ because _________

A

[K+] out, [Na+] out

because its starting concentration outside the cell is much smaller than Na+, and thus is much more sensitive to small changes in concentration

116
Q

Law of Mass Action

A

For any reaction A+ B ←→ (kf and kr) C + D

Forward rate, vf = kf [A][B] and reverse rate, vr = kr [C][D]

Equilibrium constant, Keq = kf/kr = [C][D] / [A][B]

117
Q

pKa = ?

lower pKa means…
higher pKa means…

Range of pKas we deal with biologically is ___ - ____

A

-log (Ka) = -log ( [H+][A-] / [HA] )

lower pKa = stronger acid, stronger propensity to give proton
higher pKa = stronger base, stronger propensity to accept proton

Range of pKas we deal with biologically is 3-7

118
Q

Henderson-Hasselbach equation for weak acid/base

A

HA ←→ H+ + A-

pH = pKa + log ([A-]/[HA])

proton acceptor / proton donor

When acid or base is 50% deprotonated and 50% protonated, then pH = pKa

119
Q

H-H for bicarbonate buffer system:

A

pH = 6.1 + log [HCO3-]mM / .03PCO2 mmHg

120
Q

Metabolic acidosis = ?

Respiratory acidosis = ?

Metabolic alkalosis = ?

Respiratory alkalosis = ?

A

Metabolic acidosis – bicarb (HCO3-) too low

Respiratory acidosis – pCO2 too high

Metabolic alkalosis – bicarb too high

Respiratory alkalosis – pCO2 too low, due to poor lung function

121
Q

Normal ranges of:
pH =
[HCO3-] =
pCO2 =

A

pH = Arterial 7.34 - 7.44, Venous 7.28-7.42

[HCO3-] = 24mM
pCO2 = 40 mmHg
122
Q

Effective buffering range:

A

[A-]/[HA] = 0.1 to 10

Within one pH unit on either side of the pKa

123
Q

There are _______ (#) of Americans with Crohns, with a peak onset at _______ years of age

A

1.4 million

15-30 years

124
Q

Smoking increases risk for _________, while former smokers/nonsmokers increase risk for __________

A

Crohns

Ulcerative Colitis

125
Q

Crohn’s vs. Ulcerative Colitis

Hematochesia (bloody stool/diarrhea)?

A

Crohn’s: Rarely

UC: Commonly

126
Q

Crohn’s vs. Ulcerative Colitis

Location?

A

-Crohn’s: Ileum, upper GI tract, may affect entire GI tract
(Rectal involvement is uncommon)

-UC: Rectum, NOT in upper GI tract

127
Q

Crohn’s vs. Ulcerative Colitis

Pattern?

A
  • Crohn’s: Discontinuous (skip lesions)

- UC: continuous

128
Q

Crohn’s vs. Ulcerative Colitis

**Fistulas?

A
  • Crohn’s: Perianal disease is common

- UC: Perianal disease is rare

129
Q

Crohn’s vs. Ulcerative Colitis

Inflammation?

A
  • Crohn’s: Transmural

- UC: Mucosal

130
Q

Extraintestinal manifestations are present in ____% of IBD patients, and can include…

A

25%

  • Erythema nodosum, Arthritis, Pyoderma gangrenosum, tendinitis
  • Pancreatitis, pleuritis, myocarditis, sensorineural hearing lossm iritis, uvitis, etc. (See slide)
131
Q

Inflammatory Bowel Disease

A

inappropriate inflammatory response to intestinal microbes in a genetically susceptible host

132
Q

Rising prevalence of IBD is thought to be because of… (4)

A
  • Changes in diet
  • Antibiotic use
  • Altered intestinal colonization (eradication of certain parasites)
  • Tobacco
133
Q

DKA patients present with…

A

-Rapid, deep breathing (Kussmaul respirations), nausea, vomiting

  • Thirsty, frequent urine output
  • Polyuria (urinating a lot)
  • Polydipsia (drinking a lot)

-Very thin (weight loss)

Some exam findings:
-Fruity odor to breath, increased cap refill time, cool hands and feet, diffuse abdominal tenderness

134
Q

Major metabolic disturbances in in DKA include:

A

1) Elevated blood sugar
2) K+ Derrangements (Ketonemia/Ketonuria)
3) Metabolid Acidosis
4) Dehydration

135
Q

Hyperglycemia is when glucose is >______(#) occurs in DKA because…

A

> 200mg/dL

-No insulin → can’t take up glucose, body keeps churning more glucose out

136
Q

K+ Derrangements occur in DKA because…

A

Body tries to save water by increasing Na+ at the expense of K+
→ H+ pushed into cell and K+ pushed out of cells

-Need to give patients lots of K+, but CAREFULLY

137
Q

Metabolic Acidosis occurs in DKA when pH is

A

ph

138
Q

Dehydration occurs in DKA because…

A

-Excess glucose in filtrate, cannot be reabsorbed, pulls lots of water into urine

→ Weight loss, dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, large volumes of urine

139
Q

_______ sense glucose and releasesinsulin

A

Beta cells of the pancreas

140
Q

Type 1 diabetes

A

autoimmune destruction of B-cells, results in insulin deficiency

141
Q

Insulin Release in Beta Cells:

1) Glucose enters cell through __________ → glycolysis → increase in ______________
2) → Closes __________, no ______ leaks out → __________ of membrane
3) → opens __________ → _____ influx
4) → Exocytosis of _______________

A

1) GLUT2 transporter
intracellular ATP to ADP ratio

2) ATP-sensitive potassium channel, K+
depolarization

3) voltage-gated calcium channel, Ca2+
4) insulin containing secretory granules

142
Q

3 Targets of insulin

A

1) Liver
2) Muscle
3) Adipose

143
Q

Insulin acts to _______. If you are insulin deficient, then…

A

STORE ENERGY (glycogen, protein, fat)

  • Glucose cannot be taken into cells despite adequate supply → hyperglycemia
  • Body must use another energy source: lipolysis, fatty acid oxidation (liver), ketoacids
144
Q

In the liver insulin…

A

+ glucose uptake, glycogen synthesis
- glucogenesis
- ketogenesis
+ lipogenesis

145
Q

In muscles, insulin…

A

+ glucose uptake, glycogen synthesis

+ protein synthesis

146
Q

In Adipose, insulin…

A

+ glucose uptake
+ triglyceride uptake
+ lipid synthesis

147
Q

Risk factors for Cerebral Edema when treating DKA

A
  • Sicker or younger = higher risk

- Too many IV fluids, or too much insulin (quick osmolality changes)

148
Q

Signs of Cerebral Edema (3)

A

hypertension, bradycardia, fixed/dilated pupils (late sign)

149
Q

Primary Active Transport

3 Examples

A

Derive energy directly from splitting of ATP

EX) Na/K pump
EX) Intracellular H+ pump
EX) Intracellular Ca2+ pump

150
Q

Intracellular H+ pump, pumps ________ into intracellular membrane bound oranelles

A

H+

151
Q

Intracellular Ca2+ pump, pumps Ca2+ into _________ and out of the __________

A

into membrane bound compartments, and out of the cytoplasm

152
Q

Secondary Active Transport

A
  • most common pump
  • Energy used to do direct work of pumping does NOT come from metabolism (ATP), comes from a secondary source
  • Usually the downhill “leak” of Na+ into the cell
  • ultimately relies on Na/K pump
153
Q

Cotransport

A

Secondary active transporter

Move different solute species in the same direction

154
Q

Electrogenic

A

one cycle produces a net charge transfer across the membrane

155
Q

Na+/AA pump

A

cotransporter, electrogenic

Na+ leak in used to pump AA IN to cell

156
Q

Na/K/Cl pump

A

cotransporter

Inward leak of Na+ used to pump Cl IN to cell

157
Q

Exchange transport

A

secondary active transporter

Move solute in opposite directions

158
Q

Na+/H+ pump

A

Exchange transport

  • Na+ leak in, pump H+ out
  • Any cell with a membrane potential
159
Q

Na+/Ca2+ pump

A

Exchange transport
-Na+ leak in, Ca2+ out

-Ca2+ really wants to come in (electrical gradient and concentration gradient pulling it in)

  • Can reverse direction in heart muscle cells every time the heart peats
  • Diastole = Ca2+ pumped out
  • Systole = Ca2+ leaks in
160
Q

Digitalis

A

drug that blocks Na/K pump, allowing [Na+] inside cell to increase –> inhibits Na/Ca exchanger indirectly

161
Q

H/K exchanger

A

Doesn’t exist!

Really is multiple transporters working in parallel

162
Q

Two treatments for hyperkalemia

A

Encourage cells to take up potassium from the ECF

1) give glucose and insulin
2) give bicarbonate