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FDN > Week 1 > Flashcards

Week 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary radars?

A

Primary relies on reflected energy for detection, secondary transmits responses to ‘interrogations’.

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2
Q

Interrogating radars operate at what frequency?

A

1030Mhz

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3
Q

Transponders operate at what frequency?

A

1090Mhz

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4
Q

Military a/c uses IFF in what modes?

A

1 - 5

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5
Q

Civil a/c use SSR in which modes?

A

A, B, C and S

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6
Q

Which mil IFF and civ SSR modes are the same?

A

IFF mode 3 and SSR mode A

3/A

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7
Q

What is the PROWORD for a 4 digit code?

A

Squawk

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8
Q

What do the digits in a SQUAWK represent?

A
  • The first two digits - agency controlling the a/c

- The second two digits - specific to that a/c

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9
Q

What are the civil modes of operation?

A

A - 4096 codes
B - backup for A
C - altitude info
S - 24 bit unique a/c address

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10
Q

What are the military modes of operation?

A 
1 - platfrom function
2 - platform ID
3 - equivalent to mode A
4 - encrypted response
5 - encrypted data transfer
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11
Q

What are the main three conspicuity codes (SQUAWKS)?

A

7700 - emergency
7600 - loss of comms
7500 - unlawful interference

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12
Q

What is FRUIT?

A

False Returns Unsynchronised In Time

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13
Q

Which mode helps to reduce FRUIT?

A

Mode S

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14
Q

What does TCAS stand for?

A

Traffic Collision Avoidance System

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15
Q

What are the two types of TCAS warnings?

A

Traffic and resolution.

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16
Q

What does a Resolution Advisory (RA) give?

A

Climb/decent instructions

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17
Q

What is the purpose of a Traffic Advisory (TA) warning?

A

To give the crew a ‘heads up’ warning of approaching aircraft.

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18
Q

A TCAS warning should be actioned …. advising the controller.

A

BEFORE

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19
Q

Define an FIR.

A

It is an area of defined dimensions within which flight info and alerting services are provided.

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20
Q

What is the purpose of an Flight Info Service (FIS)?

A

To give advice and info useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flight.

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21
Q

What is the purpose of an Alerting Service?

A

It is provided to notify appropiate organisations regarding a/c in need of search and rescue (SAR) aid and to assist such organisations as required.

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22
Q

How is the FIR divided?

A
  • Surface to FL245

- FL245 to FL660

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23
Q

What are the two ATCCs?

A

London (Swanwick) and Scottish (Prestwick)

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24
Q

What are responsibilites of Swanwick Mil?

A
  • distress and diversion services
  • FIS
  • Air Defence notification
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25
Q

What are the responsibilites of LATCC (mil)?

A
  • low flying co-ordination
  • range co-ordination
  • aeronautical info (military)
  • air movements and flight plan reception
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26
Q

What are 3 main classes of airspace?

A

A - most airways below FL195
C - upper airspace
G - all other airspace

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27
Q

How is controlled airspace divided?

A

Control areas and control zones.

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28
Q

What is a CTZ?

A

Control Zone - controlled airspace extending upwards from the gorund to a specific upper limit.

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29
Q

What is a MATZ?

A

Military Aerodrome Traffic Zone - defined dimensions in which military ATC apllies to military a/c.

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30
Q

What are the dimensions of a MATZ and its stub?

A

MATZ: 5nm radius and 3000m height
Stub: 5nm long, 4nm wide, 1000-3000m height.

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31
Q

What three catergories are control areas split?

A
  • control area (CTA)
  • terminal control area (TCA/TMA)
  • airway.
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32
Q

What is a restricted area?

A

An airspace of defined dimensions above the land or water where flight of an a/c is restricted in accordance with specified conditions.

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33
Q

What is a prohibited area?

A

An airspace of defined dimensions above land or water within which the flight of a/c is prohibited.

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34
Q

What is a danger area?

A

An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to flight may exist at specific times.

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35
Q

What is a TRA?

A

Temporary Reserved Area - FL195 - FL245. Military can operate VFR with tactical freedom and operate during published hours.

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36
Q

What is TASCOMM?

A

Terrestrial Air Sea Communications system.

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37
Q

What is CAS-T?

A

Controlled Airspace - Temporary.

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38
Q

What is Provost Marshall areas?

A

PMP (prohibited) or PMR (restricted) areas are airspace of defined dimensions established by the RAF PM where military flight is prohibited or restricted IAW specific conditions.

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39
Q

Define FOD?

A

Foreign Object Debris - any material or loose article, that orignates from any source, that can cause damage to the a/c or its equipment.

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40
Q

What are the three main aims of FOD prevention?

A
  • Practices
  • Processes
  • Design
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41
Q

What is the aim of flight safety?

A

A collective endeavour to operate in the air environment safely where a good safety culture depends on individuals at all levels.

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42
Q

What are the four worlds?

A
  • Flyings sqns
  • ATC, ABM and Ops
  • Engineers
  • Direct support services
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43
Q

What are the RA series?

A 
1000 - general regs
2000 - flying regs
3000 - air traffic management
4000 - continuing airworthiness
5000 - design and modification
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44
Q

Define an accident.

A

An occurence which results in a person being killed or suffering a major injury or an a/c sustaining Cat 4 or 5 damage.

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45
Q

Define an incident.

A

An air safety occurence which has not resulted in an accident but a/c sustains Cat 1-3 damage or a person injured for 3+ days.

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46
Q

A/C damage - what is Cat 1?

A

Repairable within the custodians capabilites.

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47
Q

A/C damage - what is Cat 2?

A

Repairable with the custodians forward maintenance organisation capabilites.

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48
Q

A/C damage - what is Cat 3?

A

Repairable on site, beyond forward repairs - specialists.

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49
Q

A/C damage - what is Cat 4?

A

Repairable but requires special facilities or equipment off-site.

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50
Q

A/C damage - what is Cat 5?

A

Beyond economic repair, instructional use, scrap or missing.

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51
Q

What is a reporting culture?

A

Cultivating an atmosphere where people have the confidence to report safety concerns without fear or blame.

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52
Q

What is a learning culture?

A

An organisation that is able to learn from its mistakes and make changes.

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53
Q

What is a flexible culture?

A

Where the organisation and the people in it are capable of adapting effectively to change.

54
Q

What is a just culture?

A

Recognises the limitations of human performance. Errors will not be punished if the error was unintentional. Reckless acts/risks will be subjected to disciplinary action.

55
Q

What are the three methods of reporting?

A
  • Defence Air Safety Occurence Report via ASIMS
  • Aviation Error Management System or Inform
  • Defence Confidential Occurence Report
56
Q

Who/what are types of duty holders?

A
  • Senior DH - CAS
  • Operating DH - AOC (1, 2, 22 and 38) and JHC
  • Delivery DH - (Comdt 3FTS for Cranwell)
57
Q

Flight safety docs - what is an MAA RA?

A
  • principle policy and governance docs
  • valid across all military aviaition
  • FLY 2000 series
58
Q

Flying safety docs - What is a GASO?

A

Group Air Staff Order:

  • further guidance and governance at group level
  • order numbers tied to FLY 2000 series
  • details regs to specific aircraft types
59
Q

Flying safety docs - what is a DAM?

A

Defence Aerodrome Manual:

  • station FOBs detail guidance and governance at local level
  • lowest tier document
  • ‘hot poop/stop press’ covers latest news
  • stud cards in FOB.
60
Q

Flying safety docs - What is an RTS?

A

Release To Service:

  • similar to a car users handbook
  • lists fuels and oils etc
  • flight envelope
  • servicing cycles
61
Q

Flying safety docs - what is an F700?

A
  • register of servicing
  • known faults (deffered)
  • limitations
  • past faults
  • fuel state
  • a/c details
62
Q

What does ABC stand for?

A

Accuracy, Brevity and Clarity.

63
Q

What is the range of the RF spectrum?

A

3khz - 300ghz

64
Q

Describe V/UHF.

A
  • higher frequency/shorter wavelengths.
65
Q

Describe HF.

A
  • lower frequency/longer wavelength.
66
Q

What are the bands and types of V/UHF?

A 
88-108mhz - FM radios
108-137mhz - ATC
150-170mhz - land and maritime
170-225mhz - DAB radio
225-400mhz - military a/c
67
Q

What are the bands and types of HF?

A

2-30mhz - land/air/maritime

68
Q

What is SATCOM?

A

The use of artificial satellites to provide comm links between various points on earth.

69
Q

What are the two frequencies (LOS)?

A
  • LOS uplink (high frequency)

- LOS downlink (low frequency)

70
Q

What should you do prior to making a radio call?

A
  • decide what you want to say
  • correct frequency
  • listen out
  • be prepared to copy any response
71
Q

What is the purpose of ABCs?

A

Accuracy, Brevity and Clarity

  • precise words
  • only use words you need
  • understandable to the audience
72
Q

Radio comms - what is RSVP?

A
  • rhythm
  • speed
  • volume
  • pitch
73
Q

How is routing defined? (ATC comms)

A

Brief idea of where you are going.

74
Q

How is intentions defined? (ATC comms)

A

What you will do at the next reported point.

75
Q

Name the types of intelligence.

A
  • SIGINT (COMINT, ELINT, FISINT)
  • MASINT
  • IMINT
  • GEOINT
  • ACINT
  • HUMINT
  • OSINT
76
Q

Name the types of intelligence.

A
  • SIGINT (COMINT, ELINT, FISINT)
  • MASINT
  • IMINT
  • GEOINT
  • ACINT
  • HUMINT
  • OSINT
77
Q

What are the three intelligence levels?

A
  • STRATEGIC
  • OPERATIONAL
  • TACTICAL
78
Q

What is the ISR process?

A
  • task
  • collect
  • process
  • exploit
  • disseminate
  • feedback
79
Q

What is the ISR Cycle?

A
  • tasking
  • collection
  • process
  • exploit
  • disseminate
80
Q

What are the types of tasking?

A
  • deliberate
  • ad-hoc
  • dynamic
81
Q

Name types of reconnaissance and surveillance tasks.

A
  • indicators and warnings
  • intel prep of the envrionment
  • enemy order of battle
  • situation development
  • monitor enemy activity
  • force protection
  • targeting objectives
  • assessments
82
Q

Name the requirements of an effective ISR system (collect)?

A
  • timeliness
  • accuracy
  • survivability
  • reliabilty
  • suitabilty
  • standardisation
  • continous coverage
83
Q

ISR process (collect) - considerations?

A
  • availabilty
  • capability
  • vulnerability
  • performance and history
84
Q

ISR process (disseminate) - 5 key principles?

A
  • timeliness
  • appropiate
  • urgency
  • distribution
  • security
85
Q

What are the three levels of warfare?

A
  • STRATEGIC
  • OPERATIONAL
  • TACTICAL
86
Q

Who belongs to 1 Group?

A

ISTAR force, typhoons and lightning 2.

87
Q

What is AAR?

A

Air to air refuelling.

88
Q

What is AI?

A

Air Interdiction

89
Q

What is CAS?

A

Close Air Support

90
Q

What is DCA?

A

Defensive Counter Air.

91
Q

What is OCA?

A

Offensive Counter Air.

92
Q

What is SEAD?

A

Suppression of Enemy Air Defence.

93
Q

What is DEAD?

A

Destrcution of Enemy Air Defence.

94
Q

What is TST?

A

Time Sensitive Targetting.

95
Q

What is Tac C2?

A

Tactical Command and Control

96
Q

What is SU?

A

Supported Unit

97
Q

What is JTAC?

A

Joint Terminal Attack Controller

98
Q

What is BDA?

A

Battle Damage Assessment

99
Q

What is CDE?

A

Collateral Damage Estimate

100
Q

What’s is PID?

A

Positive Identification

101
Q

What is ROE?

A

Rules Of Engagement

102
Q

What is JFAC?

A

Joint Force Air Component

103
Q

What is CAOC?

A

Combined Air Operations Centre

104
Q

What divisions are within the CAOC organisation?

A
  • Combat Plans Division (CPD)
  • Combat Operations Division (COD)
  • ISR Division
  • Strategy and Combat Support Divisions
105
Q

What is AOD?

A

Air Ops Directive

106
Q

What is ATO?

A

Air Tasking Order

107
Q

What’s is an ACP?

A

Airspace Control Plan

108
Q

What is ACO?

A

Airspace Control Order

109
Q

What is ACM?

A

Airspace Control Means

110
Q

What is SPINS?

A

Special Instruction

111
Q

Documentation relationship: who/what, how, where.

A

AOD - SPINS - ACP
ATO - SPINS - ACO
MTO - SPINS - ACM

112
Q

What is CGRS?

A

Common Geographic Reference System - based on a lat and long origin.

113
Q

What is MGRS?

A

Military Grid Reference System - grid zone designator (e.g. 30 U), 100km square letter pair (e.g. XD), up to 10 digits depending on accuracy (10 digit = 1m accuracy, 8 = 10m, 6 = 100m etc)

114
Q

What is bullseye?

A

An established reference point from which the position of an object can be referred to by bearing (magnetic) and range (nm).

115
Q

What is AOR?

A

Area Of Responsibility.

116
Q

What is HIDACZ?

A

High Density Aircraft Control Zone

117
Q

What is a ROZ and it’s requirements?

A

Restricted Operations Zone - centre point, diameter and flight levels.

118
Q

What is the frequency of UHF?

A

243mhz

119
Q

What is the frequency of VHF?

A

121.5mhz

120
Q

What are the readability numbers 1-5?

A 
1 - unreadable
2 - readable now and then
3 - readable but difficult
4 - readable
5 - perfectly readable
121
Q

What is TNIPL?

A 
Type of aircraft
Nature of emergency 
Intentions of the captain
Position, FL and Heading
Level of pilot quals if relevant (e.g. student pilot)
122
Q

What are the staff branches?

A

A - air staff, N - naval staff, G - ground staff, J - joint

123
Q

What’s are the staff branch numbers?

A 
1 - personnel
2 - intelligence and security 
3 - operations
4 - logistics
5 - planning
6 - comms and IT
7 - training
8 - resource management (finance)
9 - civil affairs and co-operation
124
Q

What is the transition level?

A

The lowest flight level available above the transition altitude.

125
Q

What service is used in controlled airspace?

A

Radar control

126
Q

What services are used outside of controlled airspace?

A

FIS - deconfliction, traffic and procedural.

127
Q

How is traffic information passed on in Radar Control?

A

Information will be given with mandatory instructions on how to avoid the contact.

128
Q

How is traffic information passed on in a Deconfliction Service?

A

Information will be given with advice on how to avoid it if the contact is not seen or detected.

129
Q

How is traffic information passed on in a Traffic service?

A

Information will be given with no instructions on how to avoid the contact.

130
Q

What are the three types of FLIPs?

A
  • planning
  • en-route
  • terminal
131
Q

When should the word ‘hectopascal’ be used?

A

Added to figures when transmitting a pressure setting below 1000hPa.

FDN (1 decks)

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