Webinar Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following statements concerning distributions from qualified retirement plans is correct?

A. The methodology for determining the amount that will be paid if a participant elects a life annuity is the same in a 401(k) plan as with a cash balance plan.
B. If the market goes up in both a profit-sharing plan and a cash balance plan the account balance increases proportionately.
C. Similar to a traditional defined benefit plan, if George has a big increase in salary this year his benefit is likely to increase significantly in a cash balance plan.
D. Both traditional defined benefit plans and cash balance plans are subject to the PBGC insurance program and the minimum funding requirements

A

Which of the following statements concerning distributions from qualified retirement plans is correct?

A. The methodology for determining the amount that will be paid if a participant elects a life annuity is the same in a 401(k) plan as with a cash balance plan.
B. If the market goes up in both a profit-sharing plan and a cash balance plan the account balance increases proportionately.
C. Similar to a traditional defined benefit plan, if George has a big increase in salary this year his benefit is likely to increase significantly in a cash balance plan.
D. Both traditional defined benefit plans and cash balance plans are subject to the PBGC insurance program and the minimum funding requirements

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2
Q

All the following statements concerning regulatory guidance on lifetime income options in tax-advantaged retirement plans are correct EXCEPT?

A. Regulations allow the participant in an IRA to disregard a QLAC when determining required minimum distributions from the account.
B. Proposed regulations make it easier for a defined benefit plan to offer a distribution option that is a combination of an annuity and a lump sum.
C. Regulations allow IRA participants to purchase a QLAC which can be either a deferred income annuity or a deferred annuity with a GLWB.
D. An IRS Notice simplified compliance with spousal protection rules when a participant elects to invest in a deferred annuity in a 401(k) plan.

A

All the following statements concerning regulatory guidance on lifetime income options in tax-advantaged retirement plans are correct EXCEPT?

A. Regulations allow the participant in an IRA to disregard a QLAC when determining required minimum distributions from the account.
B. Proposed regulations make it easier for a defined benefit plan to offer a distribution option that is a combination of an annuity and a lump sum.
C. Regulations allow IRA participants to purchase a QLAC which can be either a deferred income annuity or a deferred annuity with a GLWB.
D. An IRS Notice simplified compliance with spousal protection rules when a participant elects to invest in a deferred annuity in a 401(k) plan.

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3
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the exceptions to the 10 percent early withdrawal penalty tax is correct?

A. In order to qualify for a SEPP distributions must continue for the shorter of 5 years or to age 59 ½.
B. The death benefit exception only applies to distributions to a surviving spouse.
C. To qualify for the higher education expense exception, withdrawals must be used to pay college education expenses within 120 days of the withdrawal.
D. To comply with the disability exception, the individual has to demonstrate that he or she is not able to pursue any gainful employment.

A

Which of the following statements concerning the exceptions to the 10 percent early withdrawal penalty tax is correct?

A. In order to qualify for a SEPP distributions must continue for the shorter of 5 years or to age 59 ½.
B. The death benefit exception only applies to distributions to a surviving spouse.
C. To qualify for the higher education expense exception, withdrawals must be used to pay college education expenses within 120 days of the withdrawal.
D. To comply with the disability exception, the individual has to demonstrate that he or she is not able to pursue any gainful employment.

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4
Q

All the following statements concerning rollovers from a 401(k) plan to an IRA are correct EXCEPT

A. To rollover the entire distribution (without using other funds) the participant must elect a direct rollover.
B. A participant with a required minimum distribution for the year cannot roll over that amount into the IRA.
C. A spousal beneficiary who wants to rollover must elect a direct transfer to an inherited IRA.
D. Any portion of an eligible rollover distribution can be rolled over.

A

All the following statements concerning rollovers from a 401(k) plan to an IRA are correct EXCEPT

A. To rollover the entire distribution (without using other funds) the participant must elect a direct rollover.
B. A participant with a required minimum distribution for the year cannot roll over that amount into the IRA.
C. A spousal beneficiary who wants to rollover must elect a direct transfer to an inherited IRA.
D. Any portion of an eligible rollover distribution can be rolled over.

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5
Q

Julie, age 50, has three Roth IRAs. One is valued at $20,000 and has $15,000 of new contributions. Another, was rolled over from a former employer’s 401(k) Roth account and worth $25,000 and includes $15,000 of contributions. The third was converted earlier in the year and income taxes were paid on the entire $50,000 converted. Today, the account is worth $55,000. Considering Federal income taxes and penalty taxes and a 25% tax rate, how much in taxes will be paid if Julie withdraws all $55,000 from the converted Roth IRA?

A. $0
B. $2,500
C. $13,750
D. $16,250

A

Julie, age 50, has three Roth IRAs. One is valued at $20,000 and has $15,000 of new contributions. Another, was rolled over from a former employer’s 401(k) Roth account and worth $25,000 and includes $15,000 of contributions. The third was converted earlier in the year and income taxes were paid on the entire $50,000 converted. Today, the account is worth $55,000. Considering Federal income taxes and penalty taxes and a 25% tax rate, how much in taxes will be paid if Julie withdraws all $55,000 from the converted Roth IRA?

A. $0
B. $2,500
C. $13,750
D. $16,250

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6
Q

Sarah dies on 12/1/2014 at age 78 with an IRA account valued $400,000 on 12/31/2013 and $375,000 on 12/31/2014. On 9/30/2015, her sole beneficiary is Dharma, her daughter who was born 9/1/1967. The divisor from the uniform lifetime table at age 77 is 21.2 and for a 78-year-old is 20.3. Under the single life expectancy table, the life expectancy is 37.0 for a 47-year-old, 36.0 for age 48, 35.1 for age 49. What is the required minimum distribution for 2014, the year of death?
$400,000/20.3 = $19,704

What is the required distribution for 2015?
$375,000/36.0 = $10,417

A

Sarah dies on 12/1/2014 at age 78 with an IRA account valued $400,000 on 12/31/2013 and $375,000 on 12/31/2014. On 9/30/2015, her sole beneficiary is Dharma, her daughter who was born 9/1/1967. The divisor from the uniform lifetime table at age 77 is 21.2 and for a 78-year-old is 20.3. Under the single life expectancy table, the life expectancy is 37.0 for a 47-year-old, 36.0 for age 48, 35.1 for age 49. What is the required minimum distribution for 2014, the year of death?
$400,000/20.3 = $19,704

What is the required distribution for 2015?
$375,000/36.0 = $10,417

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7
Q

All of the following statements concerning Medicare Parts A and B are correct EXCEPT

Signing up for Medicare during the general enrollment period in March means coverage begins April 1.
A retiree covered by COBRA has to enroll in Medicare at age 65 to have adequate coverage because Medicare becomes the primary payer.
A retiree covered under Medicare has met the health insurance requirement of the Affordable Care Act.
A Medicare beneficiary can choose to have benefits provided by a Medicare Advantage plan instead of original Medicare

A

All of the following statements concerning Medicare Parts A and B are correct EXCEPT

Signing up for Medicare during the general enrollment period in March means coverage begins April 1.
A retiree covered by COBRA has to enroll in Medicare at age 65 to have adequate coverage because Medicare becomes the primary payer.
A retiree covered under Medicare has met the health insurance requirement of the Affordable Care Act.
A Medicare beneficiary can choose to have benefits provided by a Medicare Advantage plan instead of original Medicare

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8
Q

George attains age 65 on September 7. If he enrolls in Medicare Parts A and B on September 10 his Medicare coverage begins on

June 1
September 1
October 1
December 1

A

George attains age 65 on September 7. If he enrolls in Medicare Parts A and B on September 10 his Medicare coverage begins on

June 1
September 1
October 1
December 1

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9
Q

Mrs. Pink’s initial enrollment period ended November 30, 2014 and she signed up for Medicare Part B in March of 2016 during the general enrollment period. She will pay a Part B penalty on the premium of

0%
10%
14%
20%

A

Mrs. Pink’s initial enrollment period ended November 30, 2014 and she signed up for Medicare Part B in March of 2016 during the general enrollment period. She will pay a Part B penalty on the premium of

0%
10%
14%
20%

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10
Q

When a Medigap plan has a pricing approach which changes the premium each year based on advancing age the approach is referred to as

Issue-age rating
Community rating
Age rating
Gender rating

A

When a Medigap plan has a pricing approach which changes the premium each year based on advancing age the approach is referred to as

Issue-age rating
Community rating
Age rating
Gender rating

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11
Q

All the following statements concerning income related Medicare premium adjustments are correct EXCEPT

MAGI earned in 2015 is used to determine premiums in 2016.
MAGI in 2016 that exceeds $320,000 for a married taxpayer will put the individual in the top Medicare premium tier in 2018.
MAGI includes taxable distributions from traditional IRAs.
A retiree who has post-employment drop in MAGI can challenge the income related adjustments to Medicare premiums

A

All the following statements concerning income related Medicare premium adjustments are correct EXCEPT

MAGI earned in 2015 is used to determine premiums in 2016.
MAGI in 2016 that exceeds $320,000 for a married taxpayer will put the individual in the top Medicare premium tier in 2018.
MAGI includes taxable distributions from traditional IRAs.
A retiree who has post-employment drop in MAGI can challenge the income related adjustments to Medicare premiums

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12
Q

Which of the following statements about qualified charitable distributions (QDCs) from IRAs are true?

A QDC counts toward determining MAGI.
Anyone age 65 and older is eligible to elect QDC transfers to their favorite charities.
The maximum annual QDC amount per individual is $250,000.
A QDC counts toward satisfying the required minimum distribution rules.

A

Which of the following statements about qualified charitable distributions (QDCs) from IRAs are true?

A QDC counts toward determining MAGI.
Anyone age 65 and older is eligible to elect QDC transfers to their favorite charities.
The maximum annual QDC amount per individual is $250,000.
A QDC counts toward satisfying the required minimum distribution rules.

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13
Q

All of the following are true regarding people who provide custodial care services EXCEPT:
A. Unlicensed professionals can provide custodial care in the care recipient’s home
B. An individual cannot provide custodial care services to him or herself.
C. Custodial care is typically not covered by Medicare.
D. Typically, custodial care is designed to assist someone with his or her activities of daily living or instrumental activities of daily living.

A

All of the following are true regarding people who provide custodial care services EXCEPT:
A. Unlicensed professionals can provide custodial care in the care recipient’s home
B. An individual cannot provide custodial care services to him or herself.
C. Custodial care is typically not covered by Medicare.
D. Typically, custodial care is designed to assist someone with his or her activities of daily living or instrumental activities of daily living.

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14
Q

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding activities of daily living (ADLs)?
I. ADLs are basic physical functions that are necessary to complete everyday tasks.
II. ADLs include the self-care tasks of being able to demonstrate functional mobility, dressing, transferring, and personal hygiene.

A. I Only
B. II Only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

A

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding activities of daily living (ADLs)?
I. ADLs are basic physical functions that are necessary to complete everyday tasks.
II. ADLs include the self-care tasks of being able to demonstrate functional mobility, dressing, transferring, and personal hygiene.

A. I Only
B. II Only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

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15
Q

Which of the following is true regarding long-term care facilities?

A. Roughly 30 million retirees need LTC services each year.
B. On average, LTC costs over $100,000 a year in a facility.
C. Nursing homes and assisted living facilities each have over 1 million residents.
D. Adult day care centers provide a full range of LTC services and housing options.

A

Which of the following is true regarding long-term care facilities?

A. Roughly 30 million retirees need LTC services each year.
B. On average, LTC costs over $100,000 a year in a facility.
C. Nursing homes and assisted living facilities each have over 1 million residents.
D. Adult day care centers provide a full range of LTC services and housing options.

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16
Q

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding long-term care services?
I. Assisted living tends to be more expensive than stays in nursing homes.
II. Most retirees will not need long-term care services.
A. I Only
B. II Only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

A

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding long-term care services?
I. Assisted living tends to be more expensive than stays in nursing homes.
II. Most retirees will not need long-term care services.
A. I Only
B. II Only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

17
Q

Which of the following statements are true regarding long-term care persistency rates?
A. Most long-term care insurance companies have lowered their projected persistency rates to keep premium costs down.
B. Insurance companies estimate persistency rates for LTCI near 75%.
C. If an insurance company overestimates persistency rates for LTCI the premiums will likely go up for policy holders.
D. Persistency rates for LTCI have been higher than expected.

A

Which of the following statements are true regarding long-term care persistency rates?
A. Most long-term care insurance companies have lowered their projected persistency rates to keep premium costs down.
B. Insurance companies estimate persistency rates for LTCI near 75%.
C. If an insurance company overestimates persistency rates for LTCI the premiums will likely go up for policy holders.
D. Persistency rates for LTCI have been higher than expected.

18
Q

A client wants a long-term care insurance policy with the lowest premium payment possible. Which of the following elimination periods would help keep the premium cost down the most?

A. 60 calendar day elimination period
B. 60 service day elimination period
C. 30 calendar day elimination period
D. 30 service day elimination period

A

A client wants a long-term care insurance policy with the lowest premium payment possible. Which of the following elimination periods would help keep the premium cost down the most?

A. 60 calendar day elimination period
B. 60 service day elimination period
C. 30 calendar day elimination period
D. 30 service day elimination period

19
Q

Which of the following statements regarding Medicare coverage of LTC services is correct?
A. Medicare is the primary insurance program for long-term care services.
B. Medicare can cover private duty nurses for long-term care services.
C. Medicare can cover post-acute care provided in the home.
D. Medicare covers 120 days of post-acute care services.

A

Which of the following statements regarding Medicare coverage of LTC services is correct?
A. Medicare is the primary insurance program for long-term care services.
B. Medicare can cover private duty nurses for long-term care services.
C. Medicare can cover post-acute care provided in the home.
D. Medicare covers 120 days of post-acute care services.

20
Q

Kathy is preparing to enter a nursing home and she files her Medicaid application. Because the average nursing home cost in her area is $10,000/month, Kathy wants to make sure she qualifies for Medicaid as soon as possible. As such, Kathy gives away all her stocks, totaling $300,000, to her sister this year. How long could Kathy be ineligible for Medicaid due to this transfer?
Kathy will not be ineligible for Medicaid because she needs long-term care services.
Kathy will be ineligible for the full 60-month look-back period.
Kathy will be ineligible for 40 months.
Kathy will be ineligible for 30 months

A

Kathy is preparing to enter a nursing home and she files her Medicaid application. Because the average nursing home cost in her area is $10,000/month, Kathy wants to make sure she qualifies for Medicaid as soon as possible. As such, Kathy gives away all her stocks, totaling $300,000, to her sister this year. How long could Kathy be ineligible for Medicaid due to this transfer?
Kathy will not be ineligible for Medicaid because she needs long-term care services.
Kathy will be ineligible for the full 60-month look-back period.
Kathy will be ineligible for 40 months.
Kathy will be ineligible for 30 months

21
Q

All of the following statements regarding group long-term care insurance policies are correct EXCEPT?
Group policies can sometimes help someone in poor health obtain LTCI coverage.
Group policies often are less robust policies than individual LTCI policies.
Group LTCI policies are portable and can be continued once you retire.
D. Group policies usually cover home LTC but might exclude coverage for institutional care.

A

All of the following statements regarding group long-term care insurance policies are correct EXCEPT?
Group policies can sometimes help someone in poor health obtain LTCI coverage.
Group policies often are less robust policies than individual LTCI policies.
Group LTCI policies are portable and can be continued once you retire.
D. Group policies usually cover home LTC but might exclude coverage for institutional care.

22
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the benefits of long-term care insurance is (are) correct?

I. Long-term care insurance can help a wealthy client by offering estate protection and peace of mind.

II. Long-term care insurance may not be appropriate for a client with limited assets and income that expects to end up on Medicaid. 
A. I Only
B. II Only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
A

Which of the following statements concerning the benefits of long-term care insurance is (are) correct?

I. Long-term care insurance can help a wealthy client by offering estate protection and peace of mind.

II. Long-term care insurance may not be appropriate for a client with limited assets and income that expects to end up on Medicaid. 
A. I Only
B. II Only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
23
Q

Which of the following statements are correct about housing arrangements for retirees are correct?

A. With the Eden model a neighborhood organization provides transportation, social services and continuing care at home.
B. The Beacon Hill model is a skilled care facility that allows plants and pets, eating when the client wants, and caregivers that act more as companions.
C. A CCRC allows a retiree to age in one place as it offers a range of housing options and the ability to obtain more care over time.
D. An assisted living facility requires that at least 80 percent of the residents be over 55.

A

Which of the following statements are correct about housing arrangements for retirees are correct?

A. With the Eden model a neighborhood organization provides transportation, social services and continuing care at home.
B. The Beacon Hill model is a skilled care facility that allows plants and pets, eating when the client wants, and caregivers that act more as companions.
C. A CCRC allows a retiree to age in one place as it offers a range of housing options and the ability to obtain more care over time.
D. An assisted living facility requires that at least 80 percent of the residents be over 55.

24
Q

Residents do not pay an initial fee to enter the community. However, they do pay monthly fees that tend to increase over time. These statements describe which type of Continuing Care Retirement Community (CCRC)?

A. Type A models
B. Type B models
C. Type C models
D. Type D models

A

Residents do not pay an initial fee to enter the community. However, they do pay monthly fees that tend to increase over time. These statements describe which type of Continuing Care Retirement Community (CCRC)?

A. Type A models
B. Type B models
C. Type C models
D. Type D models

25
Q

Which of the following statements about continuing care retirement communities (CCRC) is (are) correct?

I. You can always enter a CCRC if you are unhealthy and need assisted living services now.
II. Some CCRC fees can qualify as deductible medical expenses.

A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

A

Which of the following statements about continuing care retirement communities (CCRC) is (are) correct?

I. You can always enter a CCRC if you are unhealthy and need assisted living services now.
II. Some CCRC fees can qualify as deductible medical expenses.

A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

26
Q

Which of the following is the best definition of moral perception?

A. The ability to determine the absolute moral or immoral standard in any situation.
B. The ability to be tolerant of other people’s beliefs and values.
C. The ability to not judge without understanding all the relevant facts.
D. The ability to recognize the morally relevant facts in a situation.

A

Which of the following is the best definition of moral perception?

A. The ability to determine the absolute moral or immoral standard in any situation.
B. The ability to be tolerant of other people’s beliefs and values.
C. The ability to not judge without understanding all the relevant facts.
D. The ability to recognize the morally relevant facts in a situation.

27
Q

Which of the following are true about financial capacity?

A. Financial capacity typically increases as we age.
B. Financial capacity is only important for the wealthiest retirees.
C. Financial capacity is the ability manage financial assets in a way that meets a person’s needs.
D. Financial capacity is rarely impacted by disease.

A

Which of the following are true about financial capacity?

A. Financial capacity typically increases as we age.
B. Financial capacity is only important for the wealthiest retirees.
C. Financial capacity is the ability manage financial assets in a way that meets a person’s needs.
D. Financial capacity is rarely impacted by disease.

28
Q

Which of the following statements accurately describes the “safety-first” approach?

A. Goals are not prioritized.
B. Cash reserves are the go to risk management tool.
C. Stocks are seen as more risky over time.
D. It relies heavily on the 4% safe withdrawal rate

A

Which of the following statements accurately describes the “safety-first” approach?

A. Goals are not prioritized.
B. Cash reserves are the go to risk management tool.
C. Stocks are seen as more risky over time.
D. It relies heavily on the 4% safe withdrawal rate

29
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the asset dedication approach is (are) correct?

I. Individual bonds and term certain annuities can be used to meet income needs.
II. Equities are used to meet the growth portion of the portfolio.
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

A

Which of the following statements concerning the asset dedication approach is (are) correct?

I. Individual bonds and term certain annuities can be used to meet income needs.
II. Equities are used to meet the growth portion of the portfolio.
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

30
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the investing for income in today’s low interest rate environment is (are) correct?

I. Dividend paying stocks are highly correlated with the overall stock market.
II. Extending the duration of your bonds increases price risk.
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

A

Which of the following statements concerning the investing for income in today’s low interest rate environment is (are) correct?

I. Dividend paying stocks are highly correlated with the overall stock market.
II. Extending the duration of your bonds increases price risk.
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

31
Q

Which of the following statements concerning adding downside portfolio protection is (are) correct?

I. Asset dedication approach addresses downside protection by matching assets to liabilities.
II. Adding asset classes can create a portfolio with better returns and lower volatility.

A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

A

Which of the following statements concerning adding downside portfolio protection is (are) correct?

I. Asset dedication approach addresses downside protection by matching assets to liabilities.
II. Adding asset classes can create a portfolio with better returns and lower volatility.

A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

32
Q

Which of the following statements about derivatives is (are) correct?

I. Put options should be primarily utilized towards the end of retirement.
II. A collar strategy can be a cost effective way of adding downside protections without giving up growth potential.

A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

A

Which of the following statements about derivatives is (are) correct?

I. Put options should be primarily utilized towards the end of retirement.
II. A collar strategy can be a cost effective way of adding downside protections without giving up growth potential.

A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

33
Q

All of the following statements about when to buy a SPIA are correct EXCEPT

A. By waiting to annuitize, a portfolio loss could result in a lower annuity payout.
B. By waiting to annuitize, mortality credits decrease.
C. By annuitizing now, you can reduce sequence of returns risk.
D. By annuitizing now, you increase exposure to the annuity provider’s credit risk.

A

All of the following statements about when to buy a SPIA are correct EXCEPT

A. By waiting to annuitize, a portfolio loss could result in a lower annuity payout.
B. By waiting to annuitize, mortality credits decrease.
C. By annuitizing now, you can reduce sequence of returns risk.
D. By annuitizing now, you increase exposure to the annuity provider’s credit risk.