Webcast Flashcards
What is the AR of simple criminal damage?
Destruction or damage or property belonging to another.
What is contained in s1(1) of the criminal damage act 1971?
That a person is liable for simple criminal damage if, without lawful excuse, he destroys or damages any property belonging to another, intending to destroy or damage any such property or being reckless as to whether it would be destroyed.
What is the MR of simple criminal damage?
Intention to destroy or damage any such property or reckless as to do so.
How is destruction or damage defined?
It is not defined in the act. Roe v Kingerlee said that it is a question of fact and degree and a matter of common sense for the magistrates or jury.
Does damage caused have to be permanent?
No. A v R confirmed that property was not damaged unless it was rendered imperfect or inoperative.
What does the court look at to determine if something has been damaged?
If effort and expense was required to put it right (Roe v Kingerlee - youth spat on officers jacket, it could be wiped clean); or
If the usefulness or value of the property was impaired (R v Flak - D flooded police cell but it couldn’t be used again until it had dried out). You must also bear in mind the nature of the property (scaffolding bar with a scratch will not impair its use (Salmon)).
What does the criminal damage act 1971 define as property?
S10(1) says it means property of a tangible nature, whether real or personal and includes money.
What is the difference between property as defined in the criminal damage act and the theft act?
Under the theft act, property includes intangible property and under criminal damage act, land constitutes property.
How does the criminal damage act 1971 define belonging to another as?
It belongs to another if a person has custody or control of it, any proprietary right or interest or has a charge on it.
When is a defendant reckless according to the criminal damage act?
If and only if, he foresees or recognises a risk and goes on to take that risk in circumstances where it is unjustifiable to do so.
What happened in the case of Pembliton?
He intentionally threw a stone at a man and missed hitting a window. Not enough for simple criminal damage as he intended to do one act that led to another.
What if the D believed the property to be his and he damaged it?
He would not be liable (Smith).
What is aggravated criminal damage?
S1(2) of the criminal damage act 1971 defines it as destroys or damages property, whether belonging to himself or another and he must intend or be reckless as to the destruction of or damage to the property. He must also intend to endanger the life of another by the destruction or damage or be reckless.
What are e two main differences between simple and aggravated damage?
The property can belong to himself and endangering life.
Does there have to be an actual danger to life?
No, he simply has to intend to do so or foresaw a risk (R v Parker - set fire to house while landlord was out which spread next door but they were also out).