Weather Flashcards
1
Q
In which atmospheric layer does weather normally occur?
A
Troposphere
2
Q
The stratosphere is characterized by smooth flying conditions and excellent ______.
A
Visibility
3
Q
What is the standard sea level temperature in degrees Celsius (° C)?
A
15
4
Q
With a pressure change of 1.0 in - Hg, how many feet will the altimeter reading change?
A
1000
5
Q
If the air is colder than the standard atmosphere, the aircraft will be ______ than the altimeter indicates?
A
Lower
6
Q
What is the initiating force for all winds?
A
Pressure Gradient Force
7
Q
Low pressure results from ______ air.
A
ascending
8
Q
The jet stream is the narrow band of strong winds found below the ______.
A
tropopause
9
Q
A weak pressure gradient force would be indicated by a ______ isobar spacing?
A
wide
10
Q
The forces that determine the wind direction in the atmosphere are weakened at the Earth’s surface by the force of ______.
A
friction
11
Q
Below 2000 feet AGL, ______ reduces the speed of the wind.
A
friction
12
Q
What type of clouds contain numerous hazards such as severe to extreme turbulence, hail, icing, andlightning?
A
Cumulonimbus
13
Q
Three forms of precipitation are ______, ______, and ______.
A
drizzle, rain, frozen
14
Q
The four methods of atmospheric lifting are convergence, frontal, thermal, and ______.
A
orographic
15
Q
______ defines air with the same temperature as the surrounding air after being lifted.
A
neutrally stable
16
Q
Air is ______ when it contains the maximum moisture possible for a given temperature.
A
saturated
17
Q
Names of middle clouds contain the prefix ______.
A
alto-
18
Q
Lifted air that is warmer than surrounding air continues to rise and indicates a(n) ______ condition.
A
unstable
19
Q
What properties are used to locate and classify fronts?
A
Temperature, dew point, pressure, wind
20
Q
What parameters of an air mass are generally uniform when measured across a horizontal plane?
A
Temperature and moisture
21
Q
How will the winds shift during a cold front passage?
A
90 degrees, parallel ahead of the front and perpendicular behind it.
22
Q
Squall lines generally develop where?
A
50 -300 miles ahead of the cold fron
23
Q
The area that encompasses the weather located on either side of a front is called the ______.
A
frontal zone
24
Q
Every front is located in a _______.
A
low-pressure trough
25
A line of violent thunderstorms that forms ahead of a cold front are known as ______.
squall line
26
How far ahead of awarm front can the associated cloud system reach?
50 to 300 miles
27
When encountering a stationary front, you can expect a ______° wind shift since surface winds tend to blow parallel on both sides of the front.
180
28
When flying through an occluded front, you can expect weather associated with ______ fronts.
both cold and warm
29
The most severe weather with respect to anoccluded front is generally located ______ NM south to______ NM north of the frontal intersection.
100; 300
30
A(n) ______ front usually has no clouds or precipitation. (B/4/3)
inactive
31
What kind of frontal system is depicted by a purple line with both cold and warm front symbols on the same side of the line?
Occluded front
32
Which frontal system has a steeper slope?
A cold front
33
How does the wind normally shift with the passage of a warm front?
90 degrees
34
What type of weather is usually associated with a stationary front?
Weather similar to a warm front, but usually less intense
35
What are the four levels of turbulence intensity?
Light, Moderate, Severe, Extreme
36
What are the four classifications of turbulence?
Thermal, Mechanical, Frontal, Windshear
37
What type of frontal activity is likely to produce the most turbulence?
Cold Front
38
What category of turbulence is characterized by large variations in airspeed and abrupt changes in attitude and altitude?
Severe
39
Turbulence occurring less than ⅓ of the time is described as ______.
Occasional
40
Moderate turbulence can extend as far as ______ miles downwind of a mountain wave.
300
41
What are the three types of wind shear turbulence?
Jet stream, Gusty winds, Temperature inversion
42
What type of icing is found in cumuliform clouds and unstable conditions?
Clear
43
What type front produces the most significant icing conditions?
Occluded
44
What are the greatest hazards associated with induction and compressor icing?
Engine flameout and FOD
45
What conditions are necessary for the formation of aircraft icing?
- visible moisture
- super cooled water droplets
- Free air temperature and aircraft skin temperature below freezing
46
What are the two types of engine icing?
Compressor and Induction
47
True or false? Induction icing requires visible moisture and sub-freezing temperatures.
False
48
True or false? When finding yourself in icing conditions, you can escape by flying into areas of colder temperatures.
True
49
At what intensity of icing is rate of accumulation a problem if encountered for an extended period of time?
Light
50
Define slant range visibility.
Distance on final approach when the runway environment is in sight
51
Define Prevailing visibility.
Greatest horizontal visibility through over 1/2 the horizon circle but does not need to be continuous
52
What is the minimum sky coverage constituting a ceiling?
5/8 or Broken (BKN)
53
True or false? Advection fog is dissipated by solar heating.
False
54
If an aircraft encounters an ash cloud in flight, what is the best procedure for the pilot to use to escape the cloud?
180° turn to escape
55
Total visibility over half the horizon circle or greater is ______.
Prevailing Visibility
56
______ is the distance that be seen directly upward from the ground into a surface-based obscuration.
Vertical Visibility (VV
57
Which type of fog produces a thicker, more persistent layer?
Advection Fog
58
Extra Credit:
What are the 5 types of Fog?
R - Radiation
A - Advection
I - Ice
S - Steam
U - Upslope
R - Radiation: stable nighttime conditions, radiation cools the ground, which causes a temperature inversion. In turn, moist air near the ground cools to its dew point forming radiation fog formation.
A - Advection: moist air moving over a colder surface
I - Ice: composed of ice crystals instead of water droplets and forms in extremely cold
S - Steam: in northern latitudes, steam fog forms when water vapor is added to air
that is much colder, then condenses into fog
U - Upslope: occurs when sloping terrain lifts air, cooling it adiabatically to
its dew point and saturation
59
What do roll and wall clouds indicate?
Low level wind shear and extreme turbulence
60
A ______ forms on the surface at the leading edge of an advancing thunderstorm.
Gust Front
61
Why do you want to fly over the top, at least 1000 feet per knots of wind speed at cloud top level, to void a thunderstorm?
avoid the turbulence and hail
62
Why do you want to penetrate the lower ⅓ of a thunderstorm?
below the freezing level to avoid icing
63
What combination of atmospheric conditions are necessary for the formation of a thunderstorm?
moisture, unstable air, lifting action
64
What effects can turbulence have on an aircraft?
changes in altitude and attitude, structural damage
65
What hazards are associated with lightning?
structural damage, damage to electronic equipment ignition of fuel vapors, pilot flash blindness
66
If a thunderstorm is approaching do not ______ or ______.
takeoff or land
67
Why do you want to penetrate a thunderstorm perpendicular?
minimize the time in the storm
68
What hazards to flight are associated with thunderstorms?
turbulence, hail, lightning, tornados, microbursts
69
Microbursts are an intense, highly localized downward atmospheric flow with velocities of ______ to over ______ feet per minute
2000 , 6000
70
What methods can be used to detect a microburst?
Virga, Vortex dust ring, rain showers, radar, pireps
71
How will the indicated airspeed change when flying through a microburst?
increase rapidly, then decrease rapidly
72
Using the METAR shown, what is the reported ceiling for KLUF?
METAR KLUF 2157Z 16009KT 10SM SCT015 BKN027 BKN200 04/M06 A2999 RMK SLP190
a. 1500 feet
b. 2700 feet
c. 20.000 feet
d. No ceiling reported
b. 2700 feet
73
Using the METAR shown, what is the temperature for KLUF?
METAR KLUF 2157Z 16009KT 10SM SCT015 BKN027 BKN200 04/M06 A2999 RMK SLP190
a. 4°C
b. 4° F
c. 6° C
d. 4° F
a. 4°C
74
Using the SPECI shown, what are the winds at KMIB?
SPECI KMIB 0123Z 01023G35 1/2SM R11/1200FT –BLSN SCT000 OVC005 RMK VIS3/8V5/8 BLSN SCT000 CIG 004V006
a. 00° at 4 to 6 knots
b. 120° at 10 knots, gusting to 23 Knots
c. 10° at 23 knots, gusting to 35 knots
d. Light and variable
c. 10° at 23 knots, gusting to 35 knots
75
Using the SPECI shown, what is the Runway Visual Range (RVR) at KMIB?
SPECI KMIB 0123Z 01023G35 1/2SM R11/1200FT -BLSN SCT000 OVC005 RMK VIS3/8V5/8 BLSN SCT000 CIG 004V006
a. 400 feet for Runway 06
b. 600 feet for Runway 04
c. 1/2 SM for Runway 11
d. 1200 feet for Runway 11
d. 1200 feet for Runway 11
76
What is the minimum sky coverage constituting a ceiling? (B/2/1)
a. 3/8 to 4/8
b. 4/8 to 5/8
c. 5/8 to 7/8
d. 8/8
5/8 to 7/8
77
Given the following observation sequence, what is the ceiling at KRND?
KRND 1356Z 18005KT 7SM SCT025 BKN050 OVC140 28/26 A3006
a. 500 feet
b. 2500 feet
c. 5000 feet
d. 14,000 feet
c. 5000 feet
78
Using the SPECI below, what is the most detailed visibility shown?
SPECI KMIB 0123Z 01023G35 1/2SM R11/1200FT -BLSN SCT000 OVC005 RMK VIS3/8V5/8 BLSN SCT000 CIG 004V006
a. ½ SM
b. 1100 to 1200 feet
c. 3/8 to 5/8 SM
d. Visibility is not reported.
c. 3/8 to 5/7 SM
79
Using the METAR shown, what is the dew point for KLUF?
METAR KLUF 2157Z 16009KT 10SM BKN027 BKN200 04/M06 A2999 RMK SLP190
a. 4° C
b. -4° C
c. 6° C
d. -6° C
d. -6° C
80
Using the METAR shown, what is the altimeter setting for KCBM?
METAR KCBM 291158Z AUTO 14004KT 10SM FEW080 20/18 A3001 RMK AO2 SLP163
a. 29.11
b. 29.92
c. 30.01
d. 30.11
c. 30.01
81
Using the METAR shown, what is the sea level pressure at KCBM?
METAR KCBM 291158Z AUTO 14004KT 10SM FEW080 20/18 A3001 RMK AO2 SLP163
a. 1016.3 mb
b. 916.3 mb
c. 1001.63 mb
d. 3011in Hg
a. 1016.3 mb
82
From the TAF shown, what is the worst forecast ceiling at KNSE for an ETA of 2000Z?
a. 100 feet
b. 800 feet
c. 1000 feet
d. 2500 feet
a. 2500 feet
83
Using the TAFs shown, what are the forecast winds at KNBG for an ETA of 0600Z?
a. 100° at 5 knots
b. 020° at 8 knots
c. 050° at 10 knots
d. Variable at 2 knots
b. 020° at 8 knots
84
Using the TAFs shown, what is the altimeter setting at KLFI for an ETA of 2000?
a. 2008 hg
b. 2993 hg
c. 3000 hg
d. No altimeter setting is reported.
c. 3000 hg
85
In the TAF shown, what is the entire forecast valid time period?
a. 0900 on the 9th to 0900 on the 10th
b. 0900 on the 26th to 0900 on the 27th
c.0900 on the 26th to 0900 on the 28th
d. 0400 on the 28th to 0400 on the 29th
b. 0900 on the 26th to 0900 on the 27th
86
In the TAF shown, what are the forecast winds at KNSE for an ETA of 1700?
a. 230° at 15KT, gusting to 25K
b. 280° at 4KT
c. 260° at 7KT
d. Calm
a. 230° at 15KT, gusting to 25K
87
Using the TAF shown, what would be the lowest visibility forecast with an ETA of 1500Z at KLCH?
a.4 statute miles in haze.
b.2 statute miles in thunderstorms and rain.
c.2 statute miles in mist.
d.5 statute miles in haze.
c. 2 statute miles in mist
88
Using the TAF shown, when is the lowest ceiling forecast for KSEA?
a. Between 0600Z and 1800Z on the 31st.
b. Between 2200Z on the 30thand 0600Z on the 31st.
c. Between 1800Z on the 30thand 1800Z on the 31st.
d. Between 1800Z and 2200Z on the 30th.
d. Between 1800Z and 2200Z on the 30th.
89
Weather Practice test
A decrease in temperature with increasing altitude indicates a ______ lapse rate.
Standard
90
An abrupt change in the rate of temperature decrease with increasing altitude can be found in the ______ layer.
Tropopause
91
True or false? All aircraft can fly in the stratosphere.
False
92
What are the typical flight conditions in the stratosphere?
Excellent visibility and smooth flying
93
True or false? Atmospheric pressure increases with altitude.
False
94
A constant temperature with increasing altitude is an example of a ______ lapse rate.
Isothermal
95
The altimeter setting is corrected for ______.
Sea Level Pressure
96
The altimeter is calibrated for a ______ lapse rate
Standard
97
If the air is warmer than the standard atmosphere, the aircraft will be ______ than the altimeter indicates.
Higher
98
With a pressure change of 1.0-Hg, howmany feet will the altimeter reading change?
1000
99
A single barb on a station model indicates ______ knots of wind.
10
100
True or false? The wind direction around a high is counterclockwise.
False
101
A strong pressure gradient force means a ______ wind speed.
Faster
102
High pressure results from ______ air.
Descending
103
A narrow band of strong winds found below the tropopause is called ______.
Jet Stream
104
What are the three states of moisture?
Solid, liquid, gas
105
______ clouds produce heavy steady precipitation.
Nimbostratus
106
What are the methods of lifting?
Thermal, Mechanical, Frontal, and Orographic
107
What are the three conditions of atmospheric stability?
stable, neutrally stable, and unstable
108
On a clear day, the radiation received from the sun will most likely produce ______ lifting.
Thermal
109
What is an air mass?
A large body of air with uniform temperature and moisture across a horizontal plane.
110
What properties are used to locate and classify fronts?
Temperature, dewpoint, pressure, and wind
111
What parameters of an air mass are generally uniform when measured across a horizontal plane?
temperature and moisture
112
Cold fronts are caused by overtaking cold air being more ______ than warm air.
dense
113
How will the winds shift during a cold front passage?
90°
114
A line of severe thunderstorms is known as a(n) ______.
Squall line
115
What are the characteristics of a squall line?
Line of severe thunderstorm
116
What are possible aviation hazards associated with a squall line?
Turbulence, hail. lightning, and microbursts
117
With a warm front, does weather occur ahead of or behind the surface front?
Ahead
118
What type of wind shift will you expect to find when encountering a stationary front?
180°
119
An occluded front is formed when a ______ front overtakes a ______ front.
Cold , Warm
120
True or false? A wind shift and temperature change do not occur during the passage of an inactive front.
False
121
What are the turbulence intensity classifications?
Light, Moderate, Severe, Extreme
122
During ______ you will experience large abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude.
Severe turbulence
123
Thermal turbulence is also known as ______.
Convective turbulence
124
Frontal turbulence is caused by warm air lifted by a ______.
Cold Front
125
True or false? A wind shear is always caused by a sudden change in wind speed or direction over a short distance vertically.
False
126
What are the requirements for icing?
Visible moisture, supercooled water droplets, air temp and aircraft skin temp below freezing
127
What are the types of icing?
Clear, Rime, Mixed and Frost
128
What type of front is associated with rime icing?
Warm front
129
Wha ttype of front is associated with mixed icing?
Occluded front
130
To avoid icing, why would climbing to a colder temperature be a consideration?
ice crystals will not stick to the aircraft
131
How is visibility expressed?
Statute miles, feet or meters
132
What is Runway Visual Range (RVR)?
Horizontal visibility down the runway from the approach end.
133
What are the types of obscuring phenomena?
rain, snow, mist, dust, haze etc.
134
What is sky coverage?
The amount of sky covered by clouds, reported in eighths. Includes coverage at the lowest cloud layer plus the additional coverage present at all successively higher cloud layers.
135
What is a ceiling?
Height above the ground (AGL of the lowest broken or overcast clouds, or the vertical visibility into a ground based total obscuration.
136
What are the two types of fog?
Radiation and Advection
137
What are some indications of flying into volcanic ash?
Torching, St Elmo's Fire, Bright glow in the engine inlets
138
What are some hazards of flying into volcanic ash?
Engine flameouts, Pitted windscreens, sandblasting of the leading edges
139
What aviation hazards are associated with thunderstorms?
Turbulence, hail, icing, lightning, wind shear, tornados
140
What is the cause of electrostatic discharge?
Results from positive and negative charge, from water and ice passing in up and down drafts
141
What are some aviation hazards associated with lightning?
a. Static charge builds up in the aircraft while in the clouds.
b. Can strike aircraft flying in the clear.
c. Structural damage is possible.
d. Catastrophic fuel ignition is possible.
e. Pilots can experience flash blindness.
f. Static buildup sometimes released through St. Elmo’s fire.
142
What are some visual indications of possible microburst activity?
Virga, Localized blowing dust, Shaft of rain which diverges closer to the ground, Severe thunderstorms
143
What is the sequence of events a pilot will encounter when flying through a microburst?
Increasing headwind and indicated airspeed then Tailwind and decreasing indicated airspeed
144
Should you reduce power when landing during a microburst?
No. Reducing power wastes valuable time to get the aircraft away from the ground before entering outflow.
145
What are the best choices, in order of priority, for avoiding the penetration of a thunderstorm?
Around, over, under
146
What is the most accurate means of tracking thunderstorms?
NEXRAD (Next Generation Radar)
147
Using the SPECI shown, what is the prevailing visibility reported at KNFB?
KNFB SPECI 0123Z 01023Z 01023G35 1/2SM R36R/12OO FT -BLSN SCT000 OVC0005 RMK VIS 3/8V5/8 BLSN SCT000 CIG 004V006
½ SM
148
In the METAR shown, what is the reported ceiling at KSEA?
METAR KSEA 311256Z 03011KT 10SM SCT002 BKN007 OVC025 08/07 A2997 RMK AO2 SLP149
700 Feet
149
In the METAR shown, what are the winds at KSEA?METAR KSEA 311256Z 03011KT 10SM SCT002 BKN007 OVC025 08/07 A2997 RMK AO2 SLP149
030° at 11 knots
150
In the METAR shown, what is the dew point at KSLC?METAR KSLC 161156Z 17008KT 10SM BKN250 26/11 A2997 RMK A02 SLP080
11° C
151
Using the TAF shown, what winds would you expect for an ETA of 1800Z at KTIK?
150°at 10 knots
152
Using the TAF shown, what is the forecast ceiling for an ETA of 2300Z at KDOV?
Broken at 700 feet
153
Using the TAF shown, what would be the forecast visibility with an ETA of 1600Z at KLCH?
4 SM in haze
154
Using the TAF shown, what is the forecast ceiling foran ETS of 0200Z at KSEA?
2500 feet overcast
155
A strong pressure gradient force mean a ______ wind speed.
Faster
156
A narrow bandof strong winds found below the tropopause is the ______.
Jet stream
157
What are the atmospheric cycles?
Evaporation, condensation and precipitation
158
The ______ is used to determine air mass boundary.
Dewpoint
159
True or false? A squall line does not contain any potential hazard to aviation.
False
160
Alternating cold and warm front symbols on opposite sides of the frontal line indicates a/an ______.
Stationary Front
161
A definite strain against seat belts and shoulder straps would indicate ______ turbulence.
Moderate
162
What are the types of wind shear turbulence?
Jet stream, gusty winds and temperature inversion
163
What are the possible effects of icing?
aerodynamic effects, performance effects, pitot-static system faulty indications
164
What are the types of fog?
Radiation and advection
165
What type of clouds indicate the presence of low level wind shear and extreme turbulence?
Roll clouds and wall clouds
166
A shaft of rain which diverges closer to the ground is an indication of a ______.
Microburst
167
What are the three requirements for thunderstorm development?
Moisture, unstable air and some lifting action.
168
What is the preferred method to avoid an isolated thunderstorm?
Circumnavigate an isolated thunderstorm.
169
What is a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF)?
Airport forecast for specific period, Used to determine VFR or IFR flight plan requirements
170
What effects can turbulence have on an aircraft?
a. Can cause change in altitude
b. Can cause structural damage
c. Extra stress of the airframe
d. Effect depends on the severity of the turbulence and speed of the aircraft.
171
The information displayed on the Surface Analysis Chart is observed weather, meaning that the chart represents past history, and is not a forecast.
a. True
b. False
True
172
Barometric pressure lines (isobars) are drawn at ______-millibar intervals
a. 2
b. 4
c. 10
d. 50
4
173
The valid time of a Surface Analysis chart is given in local time at the top right.
a. True
b. False
false
174
METARs are scheduled observations taken between ______ minutes past the hour.
a. 10-15
b. 25-30
c. 40-45
d. 55-59
55-59
175
NEXRAD displays what is referred to as a “hook echo” that is considered indicative of a ______.
a. tornado
b. hurricane
c. lightning strike
d. pirate attack
tornado
176
______ satellite imagery displays clouds and the Earth reflecting sunlight back to the satellite sensors.
a. Infrared
b. METAR
c. NEXRAD
d. Visible
Visible
177
A flag on a wind barb on a Winds-Aloft Prog Chart represents ______ knots of wind.
a. 10
b. 25
c. 50
d. 100
50
178
On Winds Aloft Prognostic Charts, all temperatures are negative above ______ feet.
a. 10,000
b. 18,000
c. 24,000
d. 36,000
24,000
179
A direction of ______ in a Winds-Aloft Forecast indicates a variable wind direction.
a. 00
b. 99
c. 900
d. 999
99
180
Which one of the following lists the conditions for issuing a WW? (C/1/1)
a. Turbulence and hail
b. Hail and lightning
c. Tornadoes and severe thunderstorms
d. Icing and gusty surface winds
Tornadoes and severe thunderstorms
181
The first issuance of any non-convective SIGMET will always be identified as an ______.
a. Urgent SIGMET (UWS)
b. Priority SIGMET (PWS)
c. Initial SIGMET (IWS)
d .Leading SIGMENT (LWS)
Urgent SIGMET (UWS)
182
For Convective SIGMETs, a line of thunderstorms is defined as being at least ______ miles long with thunderstorms affecting at least ______ percent of its length.
a. 50; 50
b. 60; 40
c. 70; 30
d. 100; 75
60; 40
183
An AIRMET ______ is issued for widespread IFR conditions (ceilings less than 1000 feet and/or visibility less than 3 miles) affecting over 50% of the area or for extensive mountain obscuration.
a. Tango
b. Zulu
c. Sierra
d. Bravo
Sierra
184
Air traffic facilities are required to solicit PIREPs whenever ceilings are at or below ______ feet and visibility is at or below ______ mile(s). (C/2/4)
a. 1000; 1
b. 3000; 3
c. 5000; 5
d. 10,000; 10
5000; 5
185
NEXRAD is capable of displaying areas of ______.
a. tornadoes
b. hail
c. wind shear
d. all of the above
all of the above
186
In a textual Winds-Aloft chart, if winds are called “light and variable,” the code ______ will be listed.
a. “C”
b. “9900”
c. “L”
d. “00”
b. “9900”
187
Convective SIGMETs (WST) are issued only for thunderstorms and related convective phenomena over the conterminous US.
a. True
b. False
True
188
If you're unable to pass a PIREP while in the air, you should report to ______ upon landing.
a. the nearest FSS
b. Base Operations
c. squadron operations
d. your flight commander
the nearest FSS
189
Clouds will usually show up white on a visible satellite image since clouds are much ______ than most of the earth.
a. more dense
b. more reflective
c. warmer
d. lighter
warmer
190
Wind information is never forecast for altitudes within ______ feet of the surface.
a. 500
b. 1500
c. 5000
d. 10,000
1500
191
On a Surface Analysis Chart, the pressure systems mentioned are outlined by isobars drawn at______-millibar intervals.
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 10
4
192
On a Winds-Aloft forecast, temperature information is never forecast within ______ feet of the surface.
a. 1000
b. 2500
c. 5000
d. 10,000
2500
193
Aviation Severe Weather Watch Bulletins can be issued for severe thunderstorms, defined by frequent lightning and ______ knots of wind or greater or ______ diameter hail or larger.
a. 30; ½ inch
b. 50; ¾ inch
c. 50; 1 inch
d. 75; ½ inch
50; ¾ inch
194
An AIRMET valid period expiration time is ______ hours after the scheduled “valid beginning” time.
a. 2
b. 6
c. 12
d.24
6
