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UPT > Weather > Flashcards

Weather Flashcards

1
Q

In which atmospheric layer does weather normally occur?

A

Troposphere

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2
Q

The stratosphere is characterized by smooth flying conditions and excellent ______.

A

Visibility

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3
Q

What is the standard sea level temperature in degrees Celsius (° C)?

A

15

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4
Q

With a pressure change of 1.0 in - Hg, how many feet will the altimeter reading change?

A

1000

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5
Q

If the air is colder than the standard atmosphere, the aircraft will be ______ than the altimeter indicates?

A

Lower

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6
Q

What is the initiating force for all winds?

A

Pressure Gradient Force

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7
Q

Low pressure results from ______ air.

A

ascending

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8
Q

The jet stream is the narrow band of strong winds found below the ______.

A

tropopause

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9
Q

A weak pressure gradient force would be indicated by a ______ isobar spacing?

A

wide

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10
Q

The forces that determine the wind direction in the atmosphere are weakened at the Earth’s surface by the force of ______.

A

friction

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11
Q

Below 2000 feet AGL, ______ reduces the speed of the wind.

A

friction

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12
Q

What type of clouds contain numerous hazards such as severe to extreme turbulence, hail, icing, andlightning?

A

Cumulonimbus

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13
Q

Three forms of precipitation are ______, ______, and ______.

A

drizzle, rain, frozen

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14
Q

The four methods of atmospheric lifting are convergence, frontal, thermal, and ______.

A

orographic

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15
Q

______ defines air with the same temperature as the surrounding air after being lifted.

A

neutrally stable

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16
Q

Air is ______ when it contains the maximum moisture possible for a given temperature.

A

saturated

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17
Q

Names of middle clouds contain the prefix ______.

A

alto-

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18
Q

Lifted air that is warmer than surrounding air continues to rise and indicates a(n) ______ condition.

A

unstable

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19
Q

What properties are used to locate and classify fronts?

A

Temperature, dew point, pressure, wind

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20
Q

What parameters of an air mass are generally uniform when measured across a horizontal plane?

A

Temperature and moisture

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21
Q

How will the winds shift during a cold front passage?

A

90 degrees, parallel ahead of the front and perpendicular behind it.

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22
Q

Squall lines generally develop where?

A

50 -300 miles ahead of the cold fron

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23
Q

The area that encompasses the weather located on either side of a front is called the ______.

A

frontal zone

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24
Q

Every front is located in a _______.

A

low-pressure trough

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25
Q

A line of violent thunderstorms that forms ahead of a cold front are known as ______.

A

squall line

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26
Q

How far ahead of awarm front can the associated cloud system reach?

A

50 to 300 miles

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27
Q

When encountering a stationary front, you can expect a ______° wind shift since surface winds tend to blow parallel on both sides of the front.

A

180

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28
Q

When flying through an occluded front, you can expect weather associated with ______ fronts.

A

both cold and warm

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29
Q

The most severe weather with respect to anoccluded front is generally located ______ NM south to______ NM north of the frontal intersection.

A

100; 300

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30
Q

A(n) ______ front usually has no clouds or precipitation. (B/4/3)

A

inactive

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31
Q

What kind of frontal system is depicted by a purple line with both cold and warm front symbols on the same side of the line?

A

Occluded front

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32
Q

Which frontal system has a steeper slope?

A

A cold front

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33
Q

How does the wind normally shift with the passage of a warm front?

A

90 degrees

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34
Q

What type of weather is usually associated with a stationary front?

A

Weather similar to a warm front, but usually less intense

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35
Q

What are the four levels of turbulence intensity?

A

Light, Moderate, Severe, Extreme

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36
Q

What are the four classifications of turbulence?

A

Thermal, Mechanical, Frontal, Windshear

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37
Q

What type of frontal activity is likely to produce the most turbulence?

A

Cold Front

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38
Q

What category of turbulence is characterized by large variations in airspeed and abrupt changes in attitude and altitude?

A

Severe

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39
Q

Turbulence occurring less than ⅓ of the time is described as ______.

A

Occasional

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40
Q

Moderate turbulence can extend as far as ______ miles downwind of a mountain wave.

A

300

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41
Q

What are the three types of wind shear turbulence?

A

Jet stream, Gusty winds, Temperature inversion

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42
Q

What type of icing is found in cumuliform clouds and unstable conditions?

A

Clear

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43
Q

What type front produces the most significant icing conditions?

A

Occluded

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44
Q

What are the greatest hazards associated with induction and compressor icing?

A

Engine flameout and FOD

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45
Q

What conditions are necessary for the formation of aircraft icing?

A
  • visible moisture
  • super cooled water droplets
  • Free air temperature and aircraft skin temperature below freezing
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46
Q

What are the two types of engine icing?

A

Compressor and Induction

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47
Q

True or false? Induction icing requires visible moisture and sub-freezing temperatures.

A

False

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48
Q

True or false? When finding yourself in icing conditions, you can escape by flying into areas of colder temperatures.

A

True

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49
Q

At what intensity of icing is rate of accumulation a problem if encountered for an extended period of time?

A

Light

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50
Q

Define slant range visibility.

A

Distance on final approach when the runway environment is in sight

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51
Q

Define Prevailing visibility.

A

Greatest horizontal visibility through over 1/2 the horizon circle but does not need to be continuous

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52
Q

What is the minimum sky coverage constituting a ceiling?

A

5/8 or Broken (BKN)

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53
Q

True or false? Advection fog is dissipated by solar heating.

A

False

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54
Q

If an aircraft encounters an ash cloud in flight, what is the best procedure for the pilot to use to escape the cloud?

A

180° turn to escape

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55
Q

Total visibility over half the horizon circle or greater is ______.

A

Prevailing Visibility

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56
Q

______ is the distance that be seen directly upward from the ground into a surface-based obscuration.

A

Vertical Visibility (VV

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57
Q

Which type of fog produces a thicker, more persistent layer?

A

Advection Fog

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58
Q

Extra Credit:
What are the 5 types of Fog?

A

R - Radiation
A - Advection
I - Ice
S - Steam
U - Upslope

R - Radiation: stable nighttime conditions, radiation cools the ground, which causes a temperature inversion. In turn, moist air near the ground cools to its dew point forming radiation fog formation.

A - Advection: moist air moving over a colder surface

I - Ice: composed of ice crystals instead of water droplets and forms in extremely cold

S - Steam: in northern latitudes, steam fog forms when water vapor is added to air
that is much colder, then condenses into fog

U - Upslope: occurs when sloping terrain lifts air, cooling it adiabatically to
its dew point and saturation

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59
Q

What do roll and wall clouds indicate?

A

Low level wind shear and extreme turbulence

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60
Q

A ______ forms on the surface at the leading edge of an advancing thunderstorm.

A

Gust Front

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61
Q

Why do you want to fly over the top, at least 1000 feet per knots of wind speed at cloud top level, to void a thunderstorm?

A

avoid the turbulence and hail

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62
Q

Why do you want to penetrate the lower ⅓ of a thunderstorm?

A

below the freezing level to avoid icing

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63
Q

What combination of atmospheric conditions are necessary for the formation of a thunderstorm?

A

moisture, unstable air, lifting action

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64
Q

What effects can turbulence have on an aircraft?

A

changes in altitude and attitude, structural damage

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65
Q

What hazards are associated with lightning?

A

structural damage, damage to electronic equipment ignition of fuel vapors, pilot flash blindness

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66
Q

If a thunderstorm is approaching do not ______ or ______.

A

takeoff or land

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67
Q

Why do you want to penetrate a thunderstorm perpendicular?

A

minimize the time in the storm

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68
Q

What hazards to flight are associated with thunderstorms?

A

turbulence, hail, lightning, tornados, microbursts

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69
Q

Microbursts are an intense, highly localized downward atmospheric flow with velocities of ______ to over ______ feet per minute

A

2000 , 6000

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70
Q

What methods can be used to detect a microburst?

A

Virga, Vortex dust ring, rain showers, radar, pireps

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71
Q

How will the indicated airspeed change when flying through a microburst?

A

increase rapidly, then decrease rapidly

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72
Q

Using the METAR shown, what is the reported ceiling for KLUF?

METAR KLUF 2157Z 16009KT 10SM SCT015 BKN027 BKN200 04/M06 A2999 RMK SLP190
a. 1500 feet
b. 2700 feet
c. 20.000 feet
d. No ceiling reported

A

b. 2700 feet

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73
Q

Using the METAR shown, what is the temperature for KLUF?

METAR KLUF 2157Z 16009KT 10SM SCT015 BKN027 BKN200 04/M06 A2999 RMK SLP190
a. 4°C
b. 4° F
c. 6° C
d. 4° F

A

a. 4°C

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74
Q

Using the SPECI shown, what are the winds at KMIB?

SPECI KMIB 0123Z 01023G35 1/2SM R11/1200FT –BLSN SCT000 OVC005 RMK VIS3/8V5/8 BLSN SCT000 CIG 004V006

a. 00° at 4 to 6 knots
b. 120° at 10 knots, gusting to 23 Knots
c. 10° at 23 knots, gusting to 35 knots
d. Light and variable

A

c. 10° at 23 knots, gusting to 35 knots

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75
Q

Using the SPECI shown, what is the Runway Visual Range (RVR) at KMIB?

SPECI KMIB 0123Z 01023G35 1/2SM R11/1200FT -BLSN SCT000 OVC005 RMK VIS3/8V5/8 BLSN SCT000 CIG 004V006

a. 400 feet for Runway 06
b. 600 feet for Runway 04
c. 1/2 SM for Runway 11
d. 1200 feet for Runway 11

A

d. 1200 feet for Runway 11

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76
Q

What is the minimum sky coverage constituting a ceiling? (B/2/1)

a. 3/8 to 4/8
b. 4/8 to 5/8
c. 5/8 to 7/8
d. 8/8

A

5/8 to 7/8

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77
Q

Given the following observation sequence, what is the ceiling at KRND?

KRND 1356Z 18005KT 7SM SCT025 BKN050 OVC140 28/26 A3006

a. 500 feet
b. 2500 feet
c. 5000 feet
d. 14,000 feet

A

c. 5000 feet

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78
Q

Using the SPECI below, what is the most detailed visibility shown?

SPECI KMIB 0123Z 01023G35 1/2SM R11/1200FT -BLSN SCT000 OVC005 RMK VIS3/8V5/8 BLSN SCT000 CIG 004V006

a. ½ SM
b. 1100 to 1200 feet
c. 3/8 to 5/8 SM
d. Visibility is not reported.

A

c. 3/8 to 5/7 SM

79
Q

Using the METAR shown, what is the dew point for KLUF?

METAR KLUF 2157Z 16009KT 10SM BKN027 BKN200 04/M06 A2999 RMK SLP190

a. 4° C
b. -4° C
c. 6° C
d. -6° C

A

d. -6° C

80
Q

Using the METAR shown, what is the altimeter setting for KCBM?

METAR KCBM 291158Z AUTO 14004KT 10SM FEW080 20/18 A3001 RMK AO2 SLP163

a. 29.11
b. 29.92
c. 30.01
d. 30.11

A

c. 30.01

81
Q

Using the METAR shown, what is the sea level pressure at KCBM?

METAR KCBM 291158Z AUTO 14004KT 10SM FEW080 20/18 A3001 RMK AO2 SLP163

a. 1016.3 mb
b. 916.3 mb
c. 1001.63 mb
d. 3011in Hg

A

a. 1016.3 mb

82
Q

From the TAF shown, what is the worst forecast ceiling at KNSE for an ETA of 2000Z?

a. 100 feet
b. 800 feet
c. 1000 feet
d. 2500 feet

A

a. 2500 feet

83
Q

Using the TAFs shown, what are the forecast winds at KNBG for an ETA of 0600Z?

a. 100° at 5 knots
b. 020° at 8 knots
c. 050° at 10 knots
d. Variable at 2 knots

A

b. 020° at 8 knots

84
Q

Using the TAFs shown, what is the altimeter setting at KLFI for an ETA of 2000?

a. 2008 hg
b. 2993 hg
c. 3000 hg
d. No altimeter setting is reported.

A

c. 3000 hg

85
Q

In the TAF shown, what is the entire forecast valid time period?

a. 0900 on the 9th to 0900 on the 10th
b. 0900 on the 26th to 0900 on the 27th
c.0900 on the 26th to 0900 on the 28th
d. 0400 on the 28th to 0400 on the 29th

A

b. 0900 on the 26th to 0900 on the 27th

86
Q

In the TAF shown, what are the forecast winds at KNSE for an ETA of 1700?

a. 230° at 15KT, gusting to 25K
b. 280° at 4KT
c. 260° at 7KT
d. Calm

A

a. 230° at 15KT, gusting to 25K

87
Q

Using the TAF shown, what would be the lowest visibility forecast with an ETA of 1500Z at KLCH?

a.4 statute miles in haze.
b.2 statute miles in thunderstorms and rain.
c.2 statute miles in mist.
d.5 statute miles in haze.

A

c. 2 statute miles in mist

88
Q

Using the TAF shown, when is the lowest ceiling forecast for KSEA?

a. Between 0600Z and 1800Z on the 31st.
b. Between 2200Z on the 30thand 0600Z on the 31st.
c. Between 1800Z on the 30thand 1800Z on the 31st.
d. Between 1800Z and 2200Z on the 30th.

A

d. Between 1800Z and 2200Z on the 30th.

89
Q

Weather Practice test

A decrease in temperature with increasing altitude indicates a ______ lapse rate.

A

Standard

90
Q

An abrupt change in the rate of temperature decrease with increasing altitude can be found in the ______ layer.

A

Tropopause

91
Q

True or false? All aircraft can fly in the stratosphere.

A

False

92
Q

What are the typical flight conditions in the stratosphere?

A

Excellent visibility and smooth flying

93
Q

True or false? Atmospheric pressure increases with altitude.

A

False

94
Q

A constant temperature with increasing altitude is an example of a ______ lapse rate.

A

Isothermal

95
Q

The altimeter setting is corrected for ______.

A

Sea Level Pressure

96
Q

The altimeter is calibrated for a ______ lapse rate

A

Standard

97
Q

If the air is warmer than the standard atmosphere, the aircraft will be ______ than the altimeter indicates.

A

Higher

98
Q

With a pressure change of 1.0-Hg, howmany feet will the altimeter reading change?

A

1000

99
Q

A single barb on a station model indicates ______ knots of wind.

A

10

100
Q

True or false? The wind direction around a high is counterclockwise.

A

False

101
Q

A strong pressure gradient force means a ______ wind speed.

A

Faster

102
Q

High pressure results from ______ air.

A

Descending

103
Q

A narrow band of strong winds found below the tropopause is called ______.

A

Jet Stream

104
Q

What are the three states of moisture?

A

Solid, liquid, gas

105
Q

______ clouds produce heavy steady precipitation.

A

Nimbostratus

106
Q

What are the methods of lifting?

A

Thermal, Mechanical, Frontal, and Orographic

107
Q

What are the three conditions of atmospheric stability?

A

stable, neutrally stable, and unstable

108
Q

On a clear day, the radiation received from the sun will most likely produce ______ lifting.

A

Thermal

109
Q

What is an air mass?

A

A large body of air with uniform temperature and moisture across a horizontal plane.

110
Q

What properties are used to locate and classify fronts?

A

Temperature, dewpoint, pressure, and wind

111
Q

What parameters of an air mass are generally uniform when measured across a horizontal plane?

A

temperature and moisture

112
Q

Cold fronts are caused by overtaking cold air being more ______ than warm air.

A

dense

113
Q

How will the winds shift during a cold front passage?

A

90°

114
Q

A line of severe thunderstorms is known as a(n) ______.

A

Squall line

115
Q

What are the characteristics of a squall line?

A

Line of severe thunderstorm

116
Q

What are possible aviation hazards associated with a squall line?

A

Turbulence, hail. lightning, and microbursts

117
Q

With a warm front, does weather occur ahead of or behind the surface front?

A

Ahead

118
Q

What type of wind shift will you expect to find when encountering a stationary front?

A

180°

119
Q

An occluded front is formed when a ______ front overtakes a ______ front.

A

Cold , Warm

120
Q

True or false? A wind shift and temperature change do not occur during the passage of an inactive front.

A

False

121
Q

What are the turbulence intensity classifications?

A

Light, Moderate, Severe, Extreme

122
Q

During ______ you will experience large abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude.

A

Severe turbulence

123
Q

Thermal turbulence is also known as ______.

A

Convective turbulence

124
Q

Frontal turbulence is caused by warm air lifted by a ______.

A

Cold Front

125
Q

True or false? A wind shear is always caused by a sudden change in wind speed or direction over a short distance vertically.

A

False

126
Q

What are the requirements for icing?

A

Visible moisture, supercooled water droplets, air temp and aircraft skin temp below freezing

127
Q

What are the types of icing?

A

Clear, Rime, Mixed and Frost

128
Q

What type of front is associated with rime icing?

A

Warm front

129
Q

Wha ttype of front is associated with mixed icing?

A

Occluded front

130
Q

To avoid icing, why would climbing to a colder temperature be a consideration?

A

ice crystals will not stick to the aircraft

131
Q

How is visibility expressed?

A

Statute miles, feet or meters

132
Q

What is Runway Visual Range (RVR)?

A

Horizontal visibility down the runway from the approach end.

133
Q

What are the types of obscuring phenomena?

A

rain, snow, mist, dust, haze etc.

134
Q

What is sky coverage?

A

The amount of sky covered by clouds, reported in eighths. Includes coverage at the lowest cloud layer plus the additional coverage present at all successively higher cloud layers.

135
Q

What is a ceiling?

A

Height above the ground (AGL of the lowest broken or overcast clouds, or the vertical visibility into a ground based total obscuration.

136
Q

What are the two types of fog?

A

Radiation and Advection

137
Q

What are some indications of flying into volcanic ash?

A

Torching, St Elmo’s Fire, Bright glow in the engine inlets

138
Q

What are some hazards of flying into volcanic ash?

A

Engine flameouts, Pitted windscreens, sandblasting of the leading edges

139
Q

What aviation hazards are associated with thunderstorms?

A

Turbulence, hail, icing, lightning, wind shear, tornados

140
Q

What is the cause of electrostatic discharge?

A

Results from positive and negative charge, from water and ice passing in up and down drafts

141
Q

What are some aviation hazards associated with lightning?

A

a. Static charge builds up in the aircraft while in the clouds.

b. Can strike aircraft flying in the clear.

c. Structural damage is possible.

d. Catastrophic fuel ignition is possible.

e. Pilots can experience flash blindness.

f. Static buildup sometimes released through St. Elmo’s fire.

142
Q

What are some visual indications of possible microburst activity?

A

Virga, Localized blowing dust, Shaft of rain which diverges closer to the ground, Severe thunderstorms

143
Q

What is the sequence of events a pilot will encounter when flying through a microburst?

A

Increasing headwind and indicated airspeed then Tailwind and decreasing indicated airspeed

144
Q

Should you reduce power when landing during a microburst?

A

No. Reducing power wastes valuable time to get the aircraft away from the ground before entering outflow.

145
Q

What are the best choices, in order of priority, for avoiding the penetration of a thunderstorm?

A

Around, over, under

146
Q

What is the most accurate means of tracking thunderstorms?

A

NEXRAD (Next Generation Radar)

147
Q

Using the SPECI shown, what is the prevailing visibility reported at KNFB?

KNFB SPECI 0123Z 01023Z 01023G35 1/2SM R36R/12OO FT -BLSN SCT000 OVC0005 RMK VIS 3/8V5/8 BLSN SCT000 CIG 004V006

A

½ SM

148
Q

In the METAR shown, what is the reported ceiling at KSEA?

METAR KSEA 311256Z 03011KT 10SM SCT002 BKN007 OVC025 08/07 A2997 RMK AO2 SLP149

A

700 Feet

149
Q

In the METAR shown, what are the winds at KSEA?METAR KSEA 311256Z 03011KT 10SM SCT002 BKN007 OVC025 08/07 A2997 RMK AO2 SLP149

A

030° at 11 knots

150
Q

In the METAR shown, what is the dew point at KSLC?METAR KSLC 161156Z 17008KT 10SM BKN250 26/11 A2997 RMK A02 SLP080

A

11° C

151
Q

Using the TAF shown, what winds would you expect for an ETA of 1800Z at KTIK?

A

150°at 10 knots

152
Q

Using the TAF shown, what is the forecast ceiling for an ETA of 2300Z at KDOV?

A

Broken at 700 feet

153
Q

Using the TAF shown, what would be the forecast visibility with an ETA of 1600Z at KLCH?

A

4 SM in haze

154
Q

Using the TAF shown, what is the forecast ceiling foran ETS of 0200Z at KSEA?

A

2500 feet overcast

155
Q

A strong pressure gradient force mean a ______ wind speed.

A

Faster

156
Q

A narrow bandof strong winds found below the tropopause is the ______.

A

Jet stream

157
Q

What are the atmospheric cycles?

A

Evaporation, condensation and precipitation

158
Q

The ______ is used to determine air mass boundary.

A

Dewpoint

159
Q

True or false? A squall line does not contain any potential hazard to aviation.

A

False

160
Q

Alternating cold and warm front symbols on opposite sides of the frontal line indicates a/an ______.

A

Stationary Front

161
Q

A definite strain against seat belts and shoulder straps would indicate ______ turbulence.

A

Moderate

162
Q

What are the types of wind shear turbulence?

A

Jet stream, gusty winds and temperature inversion

163
Q

What are the possible effects of icing?

A

aerodynamic effects, performance effects, pitot-static system faulty indications

164
Q

What are the types of fog?

A

Radiation and advection

165
Q

What type of clouds indicate the presence of low level wind shear and extreme turbulence?

A

Roll clouds and wall clouds

166
Q

A shaft of rain which diverges closer to the ground is an indication of a ______.

A

Microburst

167
Q

What are the three requirements for thunderstorm development?

A

Moisture, unstable air and some lifting action.

168
Q

What is the preferred method to avoid an isolated thunderstorm?

A

Circumnavigate an isolated thunderstorm.

169
Q

What is a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF)?

A

Airport forecast for specific period, Used to determine VFR or IFR flight plan requirements

170
Q

What effects can turbulence have on an aircraft?

A

a. Can cause change in altitude

b. Can cause structural damage

c. Extra stress of the airframe

d. Effect depends on the severity of the turbulence and speed of the aircraft.

171
Q

The information displayed on the Surface Analysis Chart is observed weather, meaning that the chart represents past history, and is not a forecast.

a. True
b. False

A

True

172
Q

Barometric pressure lines (isobars) are drawn at ______-millibar intervals

a. 2
b. 4
c. 10
d. 50

A

4

173
Q

The valid time of a Surface Analysis chart is given in local time at the top right.

a. True
b. False

A

false

174
Q

METARs are scheduled observations taken between ______ minutes past the hour.

a. 10-15
b. 25-30
c. 40-45
d. 55-59

A

55-59

175
Q

NEXRAD displays what is referred to as a “hook echo” that is considered indicative of a ______.

a. tornado
b. hurricane
c. lightning strike
d. pirate attack

A

tornado

176
Q

______ satellite imagery displays clouds and the Earth reflecting sunlight back to the satellite sensors.

a. Infrared
b. METAR
c. NEXRAD
d. Visible

A

Visible

177
Q

A flag on a wind barb on a Winds-Aloft Prog Chart represents ______ knots of wind.

a. 10
b. 25
c. 50
d. 100

A

50

178
Q

On Winds Aloft Prognostic Charts, all temperatures are negative above ______ feet.

a. 10,000
b. 18,000
c. 24,000
d. 36,000

A

24,000

179
Q

A direction of ______ in a Winds-Aloft Forecast indicates a variable wind direction.
a. 00
b. 99
c. 900
d. 999

A

99

180
Q

Which one of the following lists the conditions for issuing a WW? (C/1/1)

a. Turbulence and hail
b. Hail and lightning
c. Tornadoes and severe thunderstorms
d. Icing and gusty surface winds

A

Tornadoes and severe thunderstorms

181
Q

The first issuance of any non-convective SIGMET will always be identified as an ______.

a. Urgent SIGMET (UWS)
b. Priority SIGMET (PWS)
c. Initial SIGMET (IWS)
d .Leading SIGMENT (LWS)

A

Urgent SIGMET (UWS)

182
Q

For Convective SIGMETs, a line of thunderstorms is defined as being at least ______ miles long with thunderstorms affecting at least ______ percent of its length.

a. 50; 50
b. 60; 40
c. 70; 30
d. 100; 75

A

60; 40

183
Q

An AIRMET ______ is issued for widespread IFR conditions (ceilings less than 1000 feet and/or visibility less than 3 miles) affecting over 50% of the area or for extensive mountain obscuration.

a. Tango
b. Zulu
c. Sierra
d. Bravo

A

Sierra

184
Q

Air traffic facilities are required to solicit PIREPs whenever ceilings are at or below ______ feet and visibility is at or below ______ mile(s). (C/2/4)

a. 1000; 1
b. 3000; 3
c. 5000; 5
d. 10,000; 10

A

5000; 5

185
Q

NEXRAD is capable of displaying areas of ______.

a. tornadoes
b. hail
c. wind shear
d. all of the above

A

all of the above

186
Q

In a textual Winds-Aloft chart, if winds are called “light and variable,” the code ______ will be listed.

a. “C”
b. “9900”
c. “L”
d. “00”

A

b. “9900”

187
Q

Convective SIGMETs (WST) are issued only for thunderstorms and related convective phenomena over the conterminous US.
a. True
b. False

A

True

188
Q

If you’re unable to pass a PIREP while in the air, you should report to ______ upon landing.

a. the nearest FSS
b. Base Operations
c. squadron operations
d. your flight commander

A

the nearest FSS

189
Q

Clouds will usually show up white on a visible satellite image since clouds are much ______ than most of the earth.

a. more dense
b. more reflective
c. warmer
d. lighter

A

warmer

190
Q

Wind information is never forecast for altitudes within ______ feet of the surface.

a. 500
b. 1500
c. 5000
d. 10,000

A

1500

191
Q

On a Surface Analysis Chart, the pressure systems mentioned are outlined by isobars drawn at______-millibar intervals.

a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 10

A

4

192
Q

On a Winds-Aloft forecast, temperature information is never forecast within ______ feet of the surface.

a. 1000
b. 2500
c. 5000
d. 10,000

A

2500

193
Q

Aviation Severe Weather Watch Bulletins can be issued for severe thunderstorms, defined by frequent lightning and ______ knots of wind or greater or ______ diameter hail or larger.

a. 30; ½ inch
b. 50; ¾ inch
c. 50; 1 inch
d. 75; ½ inch

A

50; ¾ inch

194
Q

An AIRMET valid period expiration time is ______ hours after the scheduled “valid beginning” time.

a. 2
b. 6
c. 12
d.24

A

6

UPT (3 decks)

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