Weapons MQF 2 Oct 16 Flashcards
Aircrew, AWO/WDs, and JTAC's are to be familiar with the capabilities and limitations of \_\_\_\_\_\_ for mission accomplishment. A. communications and control facilities B. coordination requirements C. other weapons systems employed D. all of the above
D. all of the above
According to AFI 11-214, AWO/WDs are responsible for ______.
A. knowing the states of alert, readiness, warning, and ROE within the operational command’s
assigned AOR
B. knowing and complying with authentication procedures
C. knowing the characteristics and capabilities/limitations of the threat
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
What additional information may be provided by the controlling agency/aircrews as required? A. Available Air-to-Air armament B. Available Air-to-Surface armament. C. Fuel Status D. All of the above
D. All of the above
During check-out, aircrews will contact the controlling agency with ______.
A. weather
B. callsign, location, and recovery base or recovery request
C. mission results and intelligence
D. both b and c
D. both b and c
According to AFI 11-214, what will the AWO/WD accomplish during aircraft recoveries, as conditions
permit?
A. Provide recovery instructions including base status, copy and relay in-flight reports, assist in
Minimum Risk (Safe Passage) procedures
B. Request debrief comments, obtain final fuel, and pass RTB clearance
C. Pass final shots, kills, and Mode IV results
D. Log aircraft “Fence Out” on AF Form 0-96
A. Provide recovery instructions including base status, copy and relay in-flight reports, assist in Minimum Risk (Safe Passage) procedures
Before the “FIGHTS-ON” call (or “vulnerability” start time) exercise directors, mission commanders,
and ABM/WDs will notify and receive acknowledgment from all aircrews for any scenario changes
affecting ______.
A. the “VUL” time
B. safety of flight (e.g. airspace changes, weather in area, block changes, altimeter setting)
C. ROE
D. RTO working frequency
B. safety of flight (e.g. airspace changes, weather in area, block changes, altimeter setting)
During exercises, Exercise directors and mission commanders can use which of the following for
Separation of Aircraft:
A. Time
B. Space (assigning specific geographical areas of flight)
C. Altitude blocks
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
A proper STROBE response to “THUD 11 STROBE 270” is; “THUD 11 STROBE RANGE 37
BULLSEYE 2-4-1/14 30 THOUSAND, HOSTILE, SOUTH GROUP”
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
A. TRUE
The correct response expected by participating aircraft hearing a “KNOCK-IT-OFF” is ______.
A. immediately works 90 degrees out of the fight / reset CAP
B. acknowledge with callsign and cease tactical maneuvering/end scenario
C. deconflict flight paths, and address any problems/issues
D. both B and C
D. both B and C
When is the recommended time for a LOWDOWN to be passed?
A. 10 Minutes prior to PUSH
B. 5 Minutes prior to the PUSH, and initial check-in for late players
C. 5 Minutes prior to ROLLCALL
D. 10 Minutes After CHECK-IN
B. 5 Minutes prior to the PUSH, and initial check-in for late players
When calling “TERMINATE”, anchor position ______. Use amplifying information if necessary
(altitude, type of aircraft, and geographical feature).
A. with latitude and longitude coordinates
B. with UTM coordinates
C. geographically or with a bullseye reference
D. relative to the E-3
C. geographically or with a bullseye reference
Use "TERMINATE" when safety of flight is not a factor in conjunction with the following: A. Reaching BINGO fuel B. Exceeding area boundaries C. Training rules or other limits met D. All of the above
D. All of the above
In a Communications Jamming environment, transmissions required for safety will be prefaced with \_\_\_\_\_\_. A. BREAK, BREAK B. ALL PLAYERS, STANBY C. SAFETY, SAFETY D. CEASE COMMUNICATIONS
C. SAFETY, SAFETY
Transmit \_\_\_\_\_ when situations develop that meet KNOCK-IT-OFF criteria as a result of communication jamming. A. TERMINATE B. CEASE BUZZER C. KNOCK-IT-OFF D. FREEZE
C. KNOCK-IT-OFF
Do not conduct communications jamming on \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ frequency. A. Primary Air-to-Air B. Guard / any predesignated safety C. Primary Air-to-Surface D. SEAD VHF
B. Guard / any predesignated safety
According to AFI 11-214, when conducting training missions in a designated airspace, avoiding
lateral spill-outs is a ______ responsibility; avoiding vertical spill-outs is a(n) ______ responsibility.
A. joint aircrew and AWO/WD / joint aircrew and AWO/WD
B. AWO/WDs / AWO/WD
C. pilot-aircrew / AWO/WD
D. joint aircrew and AWO/WD / aircrew
D. joint aircrew and AWO/WD / aircrew
During air-to-air training missions, the AWO/WD will advise aircrew ______.
A. bearing, range, heading and altitude (if available) of previously unreported aircraft within 10
miles that are a potential hazard
B. when any aircraft approaches within 10 nm
C. when they approach airspace boundaries (3nm for fighters and 5nm for heavies) or as
directed by the ATC agency
D. Both a and c
D. Both a and c
Which of the following requirements apply to authorized carriage of live external Air-to-Air missiles
for other than WSEP firing:
A. Aircrew will make a “WEAPONS SAFE” call upon initial check-in, and before each setup
following a KIO or terminate
B. Do not use the terms “HOSTILE” or “KILL” at anytime
C. Maximum maneuvering category is LIMITED
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
During Air-to-Air training the engagement begins when opposing aircraft initiate visual maneuvers
against each other. The _______ participating aircraft determines the maneuvering category.
A. altitude of the lowest
B. flight lead of blue forces
C. altitude of the highest
D. flight lead of red forces
A. altitude of the lowest
_______enables the maximum use of aircrew and AWO/WD, radar and communication, and
Situational Awareness to accomplish the mission.
A. Close Control
B. Tactical Control
C. Broadcast Control
D. Advisory Control
B. Tactical Control
Broadcast control is a means for AWO/WDs to support air operations in a covert or saturated
environment. ABM/WDs provide ______ communications primarily to pass target information to
multiple missions by referencing a designated location.
A. directive
B. comparative
C. tactical
D. informative
D. informative
The Continuum of Control is grouped into five levels, they are:
A. Unlimited, restricted, non-maneuvering, limited, and controlled
B. Close, Tactical, Broadcast, Advisory, Autonomous
C. Level 5, level 4, level 3, level 2, and level 1
D. Close, Tactical, Unlimited, Broadcast, Advisory
B. Close, Tactical, Broadcast, Advisory, Autonomous
Low altitude (LOWAT) is defined as \_\_\_\_\_\_. A. below 5,000 ft MSL (fixed wing) B. below 5,000 ft AGL (fixed wing) C. below Minimum Safe Altitude D. below 11-2MDS minimums
B. below 5,000 ft AGL (fixed wing)
Aircraft may not transit or enter the altitude or altitude block of any adversary unless at least one of
the following conditions apply.
A. All adversaries are beyond 10 nm (15nm for F-22/F-35)
B. Tally is established on all aircraft in the group of interest and no conflict with other groups
within 10 nm exists, or Not Tally with all adversaries within 10 NM but not a conflict (i.e. no
collision potential) based on SA.
C. Verbally confirms adversary’s hard altitude and maintains required vertical separation
D. Any of the above are correct
D. Any of the above are correct
If a previously undetected groups appears inside of Targeting Depth (TD) (and outside threat criteria)
and the fighter has reached meld on any other group inside meld, this group will be labeled
as__________.
A. New Group
B. Faded Group
C. Pop-up Threat
D. Pop-up Group
D. Pop-up Group
______ is defined as “[A/A] Any number of air CONTACTs within 3 nm azimuth and range of each
other” or “[AIR/MAR] Any number of surface CONTACTs within 1 nm of each other”
A. HIT
B. FLIGHT
C. GROUP
D. CONTACT
C. GROUP
A ____ is a briefed maneuver to minimize closure to threat or geographical boundary with the intent
to reengage. Will be used to initiate a grinder tactic.
A. NOTCH
B. BEAM
C. PUMP
D. FLANK
C. PUMP
When a pilot calls \_\_\_\_, he/she is reporting leaving a specific engagement and may or may not reenter. A. SEPARATE B. SLIDE C. BUG OUT D. SCRAM
A. SEPARATE
NAILS (direction) is a brevity term meaning: ______.
A. receiving strobes
B. [A/S] 2.75-inch flechette rockets
C. [A/A] radar warning receiver indication of AI radar in search
D. both B and C
D. both B and C
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the codeword used when an aircraft is in a defensive position and is maneuvering with reference to a threat. A. BREAK B. NOTCH C. SNAP D. OUT
B. NOTCH
\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a brevity term meaning "no radar warning receiver indications." A. CLEAN B. BLIND C. NAKED D. SILENT
C. NAKED
HIGH is a brevity term meaning target altitude is greater than \_\_\_\_\_\_. A. 30,000 ft MSL B. 40,000 ft MSL C. 42,000 ft MSL D. 45,000 ft MSL
B. 40,000 ft MSL
\_\_\_\_\_ is an informative call that voice deception is being employed. A. BUZZER B. CHATTERMARK C. SNOOZE D. SPOOFING
D. SPOOFING
PAINT is a brevity term meaning _______.
A. any AAI/APX interrogation return
B. any IFF/SIF return
C. a raw radar return
D. an interrogated GROUP/radar contact that is responding with any of the specified
identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature modes and correct codes
established for the ID criteria.
D. an interrogated GROUP/radar contact that is responding with any of the specified
identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature modes and correct codes
established for the ID criteria.
SLOW is a target with a ground speed of\_\_\_\_- \_\_\_\_ knots. A. 250 / 350 B. 50 / 150 C. 100 / 300 D. 100 / 250
D. 100 / 250
A ______ call indicates an interrogated GROUP/radar contact that lacks all of the ATO (or
equivalent) identification, friend or foe/selective identification feature modes and codes required for the
ID criteria.
A. DIAMONDS
B. CLEAN
C. SWEET
D. SPADES
D. SPADES
According to AFTTP 3-1, Vol 1[Attachment 1], ____________ is a request to provide tactical ground
information pertinent to the mission in a digital bullseye format.
A. STAKE
B. SKINNY
C. LOWDOWN
D. SHOPPING
C. LOWDOWN
\_\_\_\_\_ is an informative or directive call to execute launch-and-decide tactics with the intent to maneuver into the visual arena. A. RAYGUN B. SKATE C. BANZAI D. CHEAPSHOT
C. BANZAI
When a pilot uses the term \_\_\_\_\_, it is a request for information on indicated or closest GROUP in BRAA (with appropriate fill-ins). A. PICTURE B. BOGEY DOPE C. CLEAN D. BLIND
B. BOGEY DOPE
_____ is a codeword meaning an aircraft will establish visual contact with the cockpit of a track of
interest (TOI), attempt communications, and report all observations of activity.
A. INVESTIGATE
B. TARGET
C. INSPECT
D. HEADBUTT
C. INSPECT
When passing a CAS 9-line briefing, which items are mandatory readback items for aircrew?
A. Line 3 (Distance), Line 4 (Elevation) and Restrictions
B. Line 4 (Elevation), Line 6 (Target Location) and Restrictions
C. Line 4 (Elevation), Line 8 (Location of Friendlies) and Remarks
D. Line 6 (Target Location), Line 8 (Location of Friendlies) and Remarks
B. Line 4 (Elevation), Line 6 (Target Location) and Restrictions
\_\_\_\_\_ is an inner GROUP formation with the trailer displaced approximately 45 degrees behind the leader. A. ECHELON B. OFFSET C. BEARING D. SWEPT (with subcardinal direction)
D. SWEPT (with subcardinal direction)
\_\_\_\_\_ is an informative call indicating violation of assigned procedural deconfliction measure. A. AWOL B. CHECK ANGELS C. RIDER D. GOPHER
A. AWOL
\_\_\_\_\_ is a brevity term meaning RWR indication of surface threat in search mode. A. NAILS B. SINGER C. MUD D. DIRT
D. DIRT
For air to surface missions, _____ is a directive term to verify specified element(s) of ROE, PID,
CDE, and/or coordination of forces on the referenced target/track.
A. TARGET
B. INVESTIGATE
C. SMACK
D. INSPECT
B. INVESTIGATE
For air to surface missions, _____ is a brevity term meaning ROE, PID, coordination of forces, and
commander’s guidance requirements on the referenced target/track have been satisfied. Target/track
correlation and CDE must be accomplished prior to employing ordnance/fires.
A. TARGET
B. INVESTIGATE
C. SMACK
D. INSPECT
A. TARGET
When controlling F-16s, at “REDEC” range (40 NM or as briefed), the first to recognize the
separation of 40 NM from the closest committed fighter to the closest adversary group will ________.
A. call “40 MILES”
B. REDEC each group within targeting depth
C. REDEC early enough to end transmission at 40 NM
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
TRUE or FALSE. If a fighter calls “SPIKED” with a magnetic bearing or sub-cardinal direction and
the group spiking the fighter is within threat range, the ABM/WD will respond with a standard spike
response.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
A. TRUE
____ is a near real time, text based, multi-participant means of communicating and allows for
predominantly jam-free communications, similar to radio voice communications, over military networks.
A. Tactical Chat
B. Text Messaging
C. Facebook
D. USAF Google
A. Tactical Chat
\_\_\_\_\_provides assessments of threat capabilities and intentions to the commander, staff, and deployed personnel. A. Intelligence warning B. Notifications and warning C. Situational reporting D. Battle Management Command and Control
A. Intelligence warning
Which track modifier indicates an aircraft emergency involving loss of radio capabilities? A. B B. C C. E D. R
D. R
Prior to establishing radio/radar/data link/visual contact (with RPA), manned aircraft will maintain a
minimum of ______feet vertical or _____NM lateral separation from RPA’s expected altitude block or
orbit point
A. 2,000 / 3
B. 4,000 / 5
C. 1,000 / 5
D. 3,000 / 10
C. 1,000 / 5
During _________, NLT 10NM (15NM for F-22/F-35), GCI/AWACS (or the RTO as long as all
players are tracking), will make a “Check Blocks” call.
A. All missions
B. VFR conditions
C. IMC conditions
D. Split wars
C. IMC conditions
On a DT 10-Line Coordination Card, which line # is the DMPI coordinates, elevation and accuracy? A. Line 4 B. Line 6 C. Line 2 D. Line 4 and Line 6
A. Line 4
In a CAS 9-Line, Line 8 is Location of Friendlies. Which format should Friendly Locations be
passed in?
A. MGRS
B. Lat/Long
C. From target, cardinal direction and distance in meters
D. From CP, bearing and range
C. From target, cardinal direction and distance in meters
Which is a fire control order used to direct or authorize units or weapons systems to fire on a designated target? A. XFR CONT B. WPNS FREE C. ENGAGE D. WPNS TIGHT
C. ENGAGE
Orders of an operational or tactical nature received from external agencies by data links are called what? A. command orders B. Received orders C. Transmitting orders D. Incoming orders
D. Incoming orders
What kind of airspace is used to separate non-hazardous military activities from IFR traffic outside of
Class A airspace?
A. Restricted Area
B. Military Operations Area (MOA)
C. Air Traffic Control Assigned Airspace (ATCAA)
D. Military Training Route (MTR)
B. Military Operations Area (MOA)
Which of the following is an airspace in which a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of
aeronautical activity is conducted?
A. Altitude Reservation (ALTRV)
B. Air Traffic Control Assigned Airspace (ATCAA)
C. Alert Area
D. Military Training Route (MTR)
C. Alert Area
Which of the following is the purpose of an Altitude Reservation (ALTRV)?
A. To facilitate the mass movement of aircraft or other special user requirements
B. To alert non-military and non-participating military IFR pilots to areas in which pilot training
operations are occurring
C. To prevent VFR traffic from flying at specific altitudes
D. To segregate military from non-military aircraft on an as-needed basis
A. To facilitate the mass movement of aircraft or other special user requirements
What is a J3.2 message? A. Route Establishment B. Air Track C. Land Track D. Text Message
B. Air Track
Crew rest will normally begin \_\_\_\_\_ after the debrief. A. 2 hours B. 1.5 hours C. 8 hours D. 1 hour
B. 1.5 hours
Which form is used at the battalion level and HHQ to submit air support requests when automated
systems are not available?
A. DD Form 1990, Joint Tactical Air Strike Request (JTAR)
B. DD Form 1972, Joint Tactical Air Strike Request (JTAR)
C. DD Form 1990, Air Strike Request (ASR)
D. DD Form 1972, Air Strike Request (ASR)
B. DD Form 1972, Joint Tactical Air Strike Request (JTAR
What allows for near real time, jam free, communication over the internet? A. JREAP-B B. Tactical Chat (TC) C. Sharepoint D. Instant Messenger (IM)
B. Tactical Chat (TC)
How many ARC-210 radios are installed on the MQ-9 UAS? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
A. 1
What is the loiter time of a MQ-9 Reaper at altitude with minimal winds? A. 20 hours B. 30 hours C. 40 hours D. 50 hours
B. 30 hours
When sending a J28.2 to a F-16C, what is the character limit per line? A. 20 B. 28 C. 34 D. 45
A. 20
When sending a J28.2 to a F-22A, what is the character limit per line? A. 20 B. 28 C. 34 D. 45
C. 34
When sending a J28.2 to an F-15E, what is the character limit per line? A. 20 B. 28 C. 34 D. 45
D. 45
When sending a J28.2 to a A-10C, what is the character limit per line? A. 20 B. 28 C. 34 D. 45
B. 28
The AN/TPS-75 Radar Set has a maximum range of \_\_\_\_\_ nautical miles and a maximum altitude of \_\_\_\_\_\_ feet. A. 250/85,500 B. 230/95,500 C. 240/95,500 D. 340/95,500
C. 240/95,500
True/False. A F-15C can receive J3.5 and J28.2s?
A. True
B. False
B. False
True or False. The MQ1 AND MQ9 are Link 16 capable?
A. True
B. False
A. True
An activity that neutralizes, destroys, or temporarily degrades enemy air defenses in a specific area
by physical attack and/or electronic warfare describes what mission?
A. Air Interdiction (AI)
B. Close Air Support (CAS)
C. Suppression of Enemy Air Defense (SEAD)
D. Destruction of Enemy Air Defense (DEAD)
C. Suppression of Enemy Air Defense (SEAD)
Which of the following is a valid Mode 1 code? A. 211 B. 21 C. 099 D. 09
B. 21
If video recordings of missions are made, the minimum classification of the tapes is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Classified B. Secret C. Top-Secret D. For Official Use Only
B. Secret
During all operations, WD/AWOs will ensure track symbology and sensor data of controlled aircraft are within \_\_\_ NM of each other. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5
B. 2
While aircraft are under control, the following crew positions will monitor UHF guard EXCEPT? A. MCC B. SD C. ASO D. WD/AWO
C. ASO
TRUE or FALSE: During routine training missions of no greater than a 4v4, the SD may conduct
red air or flight follow control.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
A. TRUE
During weapons control procedures, which crew positions will monitor the handoff frequency/shout
line at all times when performing station assumption duties and while on station?
A. MCC
B. SD
C. WD/AWOs
D. Both B and C
D. Both B and C
All of the following communication equipment items are located in the AN/TPS-75 radar shelter EXCEPT: A. An external telephone line B. STE telephone C. AN/ARC-164 UHF radio D. A six-channel troposcatter radio
B. STE telephone
Which order is a command given to units to refrain from firing on, but to continue to intercept the
target; guided missiles in flight will continue to intercept the target?
A. CEASE FIRE
B. WPNS FREE
C. CEASE ENGAGE
D. HOLD FIRE
A. CEASE FIRE
Which order is an emergency order directing all units to stop firing, destroy missiles already in flight and cease tracking targets? A. ASSIGN B. CEASE FIRE C. HEADS UP D. HOLD FIRE
D. HOLD FIRE
If the minutes of the actual transmission time is an odd number, what value should be used to find the
code on the transmission authentication table?
A. The sum of all the numerals in the actual transmission table
B. The number that stands for the transmission time rounded up to the next even number
C. The actual transmission time plus one number
D. The actual transmission time minus one number
D. The actual transmission time minus one number
Which order dictates that units assume a posture where weapons systems may be fired only at targets positively identified as hostile? A. WPNS FREE B. ENGAGE C. INVES/INTRG D. WPNS TIGHT
D. WPNS TIGHT
