Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

4th Year > WCF > Flashcards

WCF Flashcards

1
Q

gravidity

A

Number of pregnancies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

parity

A

number of births after 24 weeks (still births and live births)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

nulliparous

A

has not delivered a baby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

multip

A

previous delivery of at least 1 baby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

grand multip

A

number of previous births >4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are grandmultips at risk of

A

post partum haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

EDD

A

estimated date of delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

SFH

A

symphysis fundal height (measure from fundus of uterus to pubic symphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

booking appointment

A

10 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

dating scan

A

12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

screening bloods

A

16 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

anomaly scan

A

18-20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what rhesus combo is bad

A

Rh -ve mum Rh +ve baby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how soon must anti-d be given

A

within 7 days of the incident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

neonate

A

<4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

infant

A

<1yr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

toddler

A

1-2yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

preschool/young child

A

2-5yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

school age/older child

A

5-11yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

adolescent

A

12-18yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what trimester is warfarin teratogenic in?

A

1st trimester - increased risk of intracranial bleed in foetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how long can retinoids remain in the body

A

2yrs - conception should be avoided in this period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

effect of teratogens in the pre-embryonic period

A

either no effect or prevents implantation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

effect of teratogens in the 1st trimester

A

organogenesis (2-8wks), major anatomical defects, irreparable tissue damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

effect of teratogens in the foetal period to term

A

fetal growth, continued brain renal differentiation, neonatal problems etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

teratogenic effect of sodium valproate

A

spina bifida and neural tube defects

dose related IQ effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

teratogenic effect of phenytoin

A

fetal anticonvulsant syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

teratogenic effect of carbamazepine

A

NTDs and fetal anticonvulsant syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

teratogenic effect of Lamotrigine

A

cleft lip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what drug should be given to pregnant women on anticonvulsants and from when

A

vitamin K from 36 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

antiphospholipid syndrome has increased risk of…

A

miscarriage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

does heparin cross the placenta?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

effect of prostaglandins in a pregnant woman

A

induce labour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

effect of oxytocin in labour

A

brings on contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

effect of tocolytics

A

=competitive inhibitor of oxytocin, stops labour (e.g. nifedipine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what are ergot derivatives

A

given postpartum, stops blood supply to the placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what 3 serious bacterial infections must be proactively ruled out in a sick child?

A
  • sepsis
  • meningitis
  • penumonia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Signs of compensated shock

A
  • Tachycardia
  • Poor perfusion (cap refill >3sec)
  • Decreased tone (floppy - decreased blood to brain)
  • Petechial rash
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does a petechial rash indicate

A

Meningococcal infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

signs of meningitis

A
  • Neck stiffness
  • Bulging fontanelle (<18months)
  • Irritability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Under what age should ALL children receive a septic screen?

A

<3months

42
Q

Signs of respiratory distress

A
  • tachypnoea
  • recession
  • use of accessory muscles (sternocleidomastoid - tracheal tug)
  • expiratory grunt
43
Q

2 causes of recession

A
  • obstructive disease (e.g. asthma, croup, epiglottis, bronchiolitis)
  • stiff lungs (e.g. pneumonia, pulmonary oedema)
44
Q

cause of epiglottits

A

Haemophilis influenza type B

45
Q

cause of croup

A

parainfluenza virus

46
Q

description of lobar pneumonia

A

focal infection in the alveolar space in 1 lobe of the lung

47
Q

leading cause of lobar pneumonia

A

streptococcal pneuminiae

48
Q

3 less common causes of lobar pneumonia

A
  • haemophilis influenza type B
  • staph. aureus
  • group A strep
49
Q

does lobar pneumonia cause recession?

A

NO - no obstruction and no stiff lungs

50
Q

definition of broncho/interstitial pneumonia

A

infection in all the peri-vascular scaffolds of the lung (everywhere!)

51
Q

cause of broncho/interstitial pneumonia

A
  • adults + children <10yrs = mycoplasma pneumonia (treat with erythromycin)
  • children = VIRAL
52
Q

signs of broncho/interstitial pneumonia in children

A

recession and significant hypoxia

stiff lungs

53
Q

what type of breath sounds do you get with lobar pneumonia?

A

bronchial breathing

54
Q

signs of lobar pneumonia

A
  • bronchial breathing
  • decreased expansion
  • dull on percussion
55
Q

signs of pleural effusion

A
  • decreased expansion
  • stony dullness on percussion
  • decreased breath sounds
56
Q

signs of pneumothorax

A
  • decreased chest expansion
  • hyperesonant percussion
  • absent breath sounds
  • tracheal deviation (away from pneumothorax)
57
Q

signs of heart failure in adults

A
  • tachycardia (with gallop rhythm)
  • fine late inspiratory crackers (both bases)
  • raised JVP
  • peripheral oedema
58
Q

Course of RSV bronchiolitis

A
  • begins as URTI
  • worsens for 3 days
  • static for 3 days
  • slow recovery (w/ tachypnoea + cough) for 1-2wks
59
Q

clinical presentation of RSV bronchiolitis

A
  • chest cough
  • resp. distress
  • hypoxia
  • vesicular breath sounds
  • bilateral fine crackles
  • wheeze (sometimes)
60
Q

duration of a viral fever

A

5 days - any longer = bacterial cause

61
Q

reasons for failure to improve after 6 days

A
  • secondary bacterial infection
  • heart failure
  • immunodeficiency
  • TAPVD
62
Q

Management of RSV bronchiolitis

A
  • supportive
  • feeding
  • O2
63
Q

preventative strategies for RSV bronchiolitis

A

Palivizumab injection (only for at risk individuals)

64
Q

Importance of O2 sats in croup?

A

should be normal –> if not = critical airway (emergency)

65
Q

signs of croup

A

inspiratory stridor and barking cough

66
Q

noise of intrathoracic problem

A

expiratory noise

67
Q

noise of extrathoracic problem

A

inspiratory noise

68
Q

what does stridor indicate in croup

A

critical airway! do not examine, as could cause obstruction –> keep child calm

69
Q

signs of epiglottitis

A
  • inspiratory stridor, barking cough

- drooling

70
Q

management of croup

A

-corticosteroid (dexamethasone)
-adrenaline nebuliser
(-intubation and ventilation)

71
Q

3 common causes of sepsis in neonates

A

Group B streptococcus
E. coli
Listeria monocytogenes

72
Q

common cause of sepsis in 1st yr of life

A

staph aureus

73
Q

classic organisms causing sepsis

A

N. meningitides
Strep. pneumoniae
Haemophilis influenza type B

74
Q

when treating meningitis, what do you focus on first?

A

SHOCK

75
Q

how much weight should a child gain per week

A

6 ounces (180g)

76
Q

3 common malabsorption problems

A
  • coeliac disease (only presents when they’re weaned onto solids)
  • CF
  • Cows milk protein intolerance
77
Q

Cause of lactose intolerance

A

rotavirus –> viral diarrhoea –> destroys microvilli, which contain lactase, so you become temporarily lactose intolerant

78
Q

how is CF diagnosed?

A
  • sweat test

- genetics

79
Q

what antenatal USS finding indicates CF?

A

echogenic bowel (mucus obstructs bowel)

80
Q

3 things required for linear growth

A

-genetics
-nutrition
-hormones
(+nuturing environment)

81
Q

onset of puberty in males

A

12-12.5yrs males

82
Q

what indicates onset of puberty in males?

A

testicular growth (4ml testis indicates onset of puberty)

83
Q

aspects of tanner staging…

A 
males = penile length + testicular volume
females = breast development, pubic hair and axillary hair
84
Q

target height calculation

A

target height = mid-parental centime +/- 8.5cm

85
Q

Initial investigations for short stature

A 
U+E/creatinine
FBC/ESR/CRP
bone biochemistry
bicarb (abnormal in eg. renal tubular acidosis)
anti-TTG/IgA
chromosomes
TFT
IGF-1
bone age - XR of non-dominant hand and wrist
86
Q

2nd line investigations of short stature

A

GH provocation tests
Insulin induced hypoglycaemia
Genetics
etc.

87
Q

syndromic causes of tall stature

A
  • kleinfelters syndrome

- overgrowth syndrome

88
Q

endocrine causes of tall stature

A
  • precocious puberty
  • GH secreting pituitary tumour
  • hyperthyroidism
89
Q

Investigations for tall stature

A

Karyotyping
T4 + TSH
IGF-1
Bone age

90
Q

how much more iron do you need in pregnancy?

A

3x

91
Q

treatment for women at high risk of VTE in pregnancy

A
  • prophylactic aspirin in 1st trimester

- clexane in 2nd trimester (?)

92
Q

test for gestational diabetes

A

oral glucose tolerance test

93
Q

4 groups of women at increased risk of gestational diabetes

A
  • prev. gestational diabetes
  • asian descent
  • high BMI
  • Macrosomic fetus
94
Q

hypertension at booking visit or before 20 weeks =

A

chronic hypertension (nothing to do with pregnancy)

95
Q

gestational hypertension

A

hypertension after 20wks, without significant proteinuria

96
Q

pre-eclampsia

A

new hypertension after 20wks, with significant proteinuria

97
Q

severe pre-eclampsia

A

severe hypertension and/or symptoms and/or biochemical/haematological impairment

98
Q

eclampsia

A

convulsive condition associated with pre-eclampsia

99
Q

at what BMI do women require consultant led care?

A

> 35

100
Q

MENOPAUSE…

A

4th Year (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions