water operator certification sixth edition Flashcards by Jerald Albritton

The two most important factors impacting the effectiveness of chlorination are

A. pH of the water and the content of foreign substances in the water
B. concentration of chlorine and the content of foreign substances in the water
C. concentration of chlorine and contact time
D. pH and temperature of the water

C. concentration of chlorine and contact time

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The treatment process that controls corrosion or scaling is known as

A. chemical control
B. stabilization
C. passivation
D. Corrosion kinetics

B. stabilization

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Permanganate reactions are highly dependent upon

A. organics in the water
B. pH
C. temperature
D. alkalinity

B. pH

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It is hardest to kill the organism that causes which one of the following illnesses?

A. Cholera
B. Typhoid
C. Cryptosporidiosis
D. Infectious hepatitis

C. Cryptosporidiosis

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Disinfection of water wells with free chlorine requires exposure for _______ at a concentration of _______.

A. 6 to 12 hours; 25 mg/L
B. 12 to 24 hours; 25 mg/L
C. 12 to 24 hours; 50 mg/L
D. 24 to 48 hours; 100 mg/L

C. 12 to 24 hours; 50 mg/L

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Which index determines the calcium carbonate deposition property of water by calculating the saturation pH, where a negative value indicates corrosive water and a positive value indicates depositing water?

A. Baylis curve
B. Langelier saturation index
C. Marble test
D. Ryzner index

B. Langelier saturation index

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The advantage to using the oxidant ozone is that it

A. Is easily generated using relatively little energy
B. is easily fed into the treatment process
C. Is non-corrosive
D. Has little pH effect

D. Has little pH effect

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Pretreatment with chlorine is being eliminated at many water treatment plants because it has been shown to

A. React with floc and not much with organics, pathogens, or algae, thus it is a waste or resources and money
B. react with organics almost exclusively and not much with pathogens or algae, thus it is a waste of resources and money
C. Sometimes produce disinfection by-products known to be carcinogenic
D. React by as much as 95% of its concentration with concrete walls and metal structures before oxidizing pathogens, organics, and algae

C. Sometimes produce disinfection by-products known to be carcinogenic

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CTs are based on

A. Concentration of chlorine, contact time, and pH
B. Concentration of chlorine, contact time, pH, and temperature
C. Concentration of chlorine, contact time, pH, and impurities
D. Concentration of chlorine, contact time, alkalinity, pH, and temperature

B. concentration of chlorine, contact time, pH, and temperature

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If the natural fluoride content of the raw water is variable, the concentration of the raw water should be measured

A. Every 8 hours
B. every 12 hours
C. Every day
D. Continuously

C. Every day

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What is the primary drawback for facilities that use ultraviolet light to disinfect water?

A. It does not inactivate all microorganisms
B. it has the potential to produce trihalomethanes
C. Dissolved colloids can shield microorganisms from the UV light
D. There is potential for the light bulbs to be coated with light-obscuring material, preventing the UV light from killing microorganisms

D. There is potential for the light bulbs to be coated with light-obscuring material, preventing the UV light from killing microorganisms

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Potassium permanganate is most effective in

A. Color removal
B. control of biological growth
C. Control of Trihalomethanes formation potential
D. Removing iron

D. Removing iron

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Chlorine is advantageous over Chloramines in that chlorine

A. Is a much stronger oxidant
B. has long history of use
C. Has simple feeding
D. Has a persistent residual

A. Is a much stronger oxidant

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Which oxidant has the potential of producing ClO₃ by-products?

A. Chlorine dioxide
B. chlorine
C. Chloramines
D. Calcium hypochlorite

A. Chlorine dioxide

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How thick should the layer of sodium fluoride crystals be maintained in a saturation tank for flows of less than 100 gpm?

A. 6 inches
B. 10 inches
C. 1 foot
D. 2 feet

A. 6 inches

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Which disinfectant would work best against Cryptosporidium?

A. Ozone
B. Dichloramine
C. Chlorine dioxide
D. Hypochlorous acid

A. Ozone

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Which chemical oxidant would be best to use for controlling Trihalomethanes formation potential?

A. Chloramines
B. chlorine dioxide
C. Oxygen
D. Potassium permanganate

D. Potassium permanganate

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Ozone generators

A. Must be supplied extremely dry air
B. are usually plate type generators for large water plants
C. Will produce about 12% ozone by weight when supplied with air
D. Will produce about 20% ozone by weight when supplied with oxygen only

A. Must be supplied with extremely dry air

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A conventional treatment plant has raw water with high organic content. Respectively, name the most probable oxidants and disinfectants to use, if the plant applies oxidants/disinfectants at the (1) rapid mix chamber, (2) prefilter, at the (3) clearwell, and (4) clearwell effluent, and a long lasting residual is required.

A. (1) chlorine; (2) sodium hypochlorite; (3) sodium hypochlorite; (4) Chloramines
B. (1) Chloramines; (2) chlorine; (3) chlorine; (4) Chloramines
C. (1) potassium permanganate; (2) chlorine; (3) chlorine; (4) Chloramines
D. (1) hydrogen peroxide; (2) Chloramines; (3) Chloramines; (4) Chloramines

C. (1) potassium permanganate; (2) chlorine; (3) chlorine; (4) Chloramines

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If air is used to generate ozone, which percentage of the air is usually converted to ozone?

A. 1 to 3%
B. 4%
C. 5 to 6%
D. 9 to 11%

A. 1 to 3%

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Detention time in flocculation basins are usually designed to provide for

A. 5 to 15 minutes
B. 15 to 45 minutes
C. 45 to 60 minutes
D. 60 to 90 minutes

B. 15 to 45 minutes

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Alum works best in a pH range of

A. Less than 4.0
B. 4.0 to 5.5
C. 5.8 to 7.5
D. Greater than 9.0

C. 5.8 to 7.5

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Which statement is true concerning Collodial particles?

A. Collodial particles are so small that gravity has little effect on them
B. the zeta potential between Collodial particles is balanced by covalent bonding
C. Electrical phenomenon of Collodial particles predominate and control their behavior
D. The surface are of Collodial particles is very small compared to their mass

A. Collodial particles are so small that gravity has little effect on them

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Which natural electrical force keeps Collodial particles apart in water treatment?

A. Van der Waals forces
B. Ionic forces
C. Zeta potential
D. Quantum forces

C. Zeta potential

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The zeta potential measures the number of excess __________ found on the surface of all particulate matter. A. Electrons B. ions C. Cations D. Protons

A. Electrons

Low temperature water can be compensated for when using alum by A. Increasing the pH B. decreasing the pH C. Increasing the alum dosage D. Decreasing the alum dosage

C. Increasing the alum dosage

Which is the optimal pH range for the removal of particulate matter, when using alum as a coagulant? A. 4.5 to 5.7 B. 5.8 to 6.5 C. 6.5 to 7.2 D. 7.3 to 8.1

C. 6.5 to 7.2

Which forces will pull particles together once they have been destabilized in the coagulation-flocculation process? A. Van der Waals forces B. Zeta potential C. Ionic forces D. Quantum forces

A. Van der Waals forces

Which is a common mistake that operators make in regards to flocculation units? A. Excessive flocculation time B. lack of food-grade NSF-approved grease on the Flocculator bearings C. Keeping the mixing energy the same in all flocculation units D. Too short a flocculation time

A. Excessive flocculation time

Ferric sulfate has which advantage over aluminum sulfate (alum)? A. Less staining characteristics B. less cost C. More dense floc D. Not as corrosive

C. More dense floc

How much alkalinity as CaCO3 will dry-basis alum consume? A. 0.5 mg/L B. 0.8 mg/L C. 1.2 mg/L D. 1.5 mg/L

A. 0.5 mg/L

Natural zeolites used for softening that have become exhausted with use are regenerated by immersing them in a strong solution of which chemical? A. NaCl B. NaOH C. HCl D. H₂SO₄

A. NaCl Sodium Chlorite (salt)

The zeta potential on a particular sample of water is -2. The degree of coagulation is best described as A. Poor B. fair C. Excellent D. Maximum

C. Excellent

Which is a disadvantage of using static mixers? A. They do not provide good mixing B. they are not economical C. They increase head loss D. They require too much maintenance

C. They increase head loss

Which is the usual effective pH range of iron salt coagulants? A. 3.5 to 9.0 B. 6.5 to 8.8 C. 3.0 to 9.5 D. 4.2 to 9.0

A. 3.5 to 9.0

To help avoid short circuiting, which is the minimum recommended number of flocculation basins in a series? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

B. 3

Which type of polymer(s) is (are) sometimes formulated with regulated substances? A. Polyethylene B. Divinylbenzene C. Polypropylene and polyethylene D. Nonionic and anionic polymers

D. Nonionic and anionic

Which is the most probable solution if rotifiers are visible in the finished water? A. Superchlorinate the water plant B. optimize coagulation, flocculation, and filtration C. Use aeration followed by lime softening before the settling process D. Use oxygen deprivation

B. optimize coagulation, flocculation, and filtration

The best addition for water that is highly colored due to organic matter would be A. The addition of lime B. lime addition with increase in the coagulant being used C. A small increase in a nonionic polymer D. The addition of an acid to lower pH before coagulation

D. The addition of an acid to lower pH before coagulation

If the activation process of silica is not carefully controlled, A. The silica could splash due to high heat of reactants B. it could inhibit floc formation C. It could corrode and destroy the metal and rubber in the flocculators D. It could deposit silica on the flocculators and the gears, bringin it eventually to a grinding halt

B. it could inhibit floc formation

Which device collects the settled water as it leaves the sedimentation basin? A. Effluent weir B. Effluent flow bow C. Effluent baffle D. Effluent launder

D. Effluent launder

In solid-contact basins with fairly constant water quality parameters, how often should the solids concentrations be determined? A. At least once per week B. At least every other day C. At least once per month D. At least twice per day

D. At least twice per day

The definition of decant is A. To draw off a liquid layer from a vessel of any size without disturbing any layer(s) above or below B. to draw off the sediment at the bottom of a vessel of any size without disturbing the overlying liquid layer(s) C. To remove the precipitate at the bottom of any vessel D. To draw off the liquid from a vessel of any size without stirring up bottom sediment

D. To draw off the liquid from a vessel of any size without stirring up bottom sediment

How often should sedimentation basins with mechanical sludge removal equipment be drained and inspected? A. Twice a year B. once a year C. Every other year D. Every three years

B. once a year

Which is the most important reason to reduce turbidity? A. To reduce taste and odor problems B. to remove pathogens C. To reduce corrosion D. To determine the efficiency of coagulation and filtration

B. to remove pathogens

If enteric disease-causing protozoans have been found in the effluent of a water plant, which is the most probable solution? A. Where possible, use powdered activated carbon (PAC) throughout water plant; back washing filters will remove the PAC B. Use PAC only in the sedimentation basin; back washing the filters will remove the PAC C. Use multibarrier approach-coagulation, flocculation, sedimentation, and filtration D. Superchlorinate the water plant

C. Use the multibarrier approach-coagulation, flocculation, sedimentation, and filtration

Which is the major cause of short circuiting in a sedimentation basin? A. Open basins that are subject to algal growths and thick slime growths on the side of the basins B. basins without a wind break C. Poor inlet baffling D. Density currents

C. Poor inlet baffling

Conventional sedimentation has a _________removal of Cryptosporidium oocysts. A. Less than 0.5 log B. 0.5 log C. 1.0 log D. 2.0 log

A. Less than 0.5 log

In solids-contact basins, the weir loading normally should not exceed _______ of weir length. A. 1 gpm/ft B. 2 gpm/ft C. 5 gpm/ft D. 10 gpm/ft

D. 10 gpm/ft

Dissolved-air flotation is particularly good for removing A. Sulfides B. inorganics C. Manganese and iron D. Algae

D. Algae

Which determines whether or not Collodial-sized particles in suspension repel each other, stay in suspension, or agglomerate and eventually settle? A. Number of collisions B. flow and temperature of the water C. Types of chemical bonding D. Magnitude of the charges

D. Magnitude of the charges

If the sludge in a sedimentation basin becomes too thick, which could happen? A. Gases from decomposition will rise through the settled sludge accelerating normal floc settling B. abundant Trihalomethanes and haloacetic acids will form C. Solids can become resuspended or taste and odors can develop D. The sludge will compact at the bottom of the basin making it very difficult to remove

C. Solids can become resuspended or taste and odors can develop

In basins using tube and plate settlers, which parameter must be much better than conventional treatment basins? A. Metals must be oxidized before reaching the tubes and plates B. floc rate must be 2 to 3 times slower than conventional basins C. Floc rate must be 3 to 4 faster than conventional basins D. Floc must have good settling characteristics

D. Floc must have good settling characteristics

Which type of sedimentation basins have the flow of water admitted at an angle? A. Rectangular settling basins B. square settling basins C. Center-feed settling basins D. Spiral-flow basins

D. Spiral-flow basins

At which minimum angle must self-cleaning tube settlers be placed? A. 50 degrees B. 60 degrees C. 65 degrees D. 70 degrees

A. 50 degrees

If nematodes are interfering with the disinfectant, which is the most probable solution? A. Optimize the settling process B. use Chloramines C. Decrease detention time of finished water in clearwell and tanks D. Use oxygen deprivation

A. Optimize the settling process

At which angle should the parallel inclined plates be installed when using the shallow-depth sedimentation method? A. 35 degrees B. 45 degrees C. 50 degrees D. 60 degrees

B. 45 degrees

Why do solids-contact basins have much shorter detention times than conventional treatment basins? A. Because chemical reactions take place throughout the basin B. because the settling zone water moves Howard, while at the same time the mixing zone moves upward C. Because the gentle Howard flow of the water throughout the basin is conducive for producing larger settleable floc D. Because of the recycled materials from the sludge blanket, the chemical reactions occur more quickly and completely in the mixing area

D. Because of the recycled materials from the sludge blanket, the chemical reactions occur more quickly and completely in the mixing area

The pulsating energy in a pulsator clarifier helps to A. Maintain a uniform sludge blanket layer B. mix the coagulants with the raw water C. Mix the coagulant aids with the primary coagulant and water to help in flocculation. D. Raise the sludge blanket over the weir for wasting

A. Maintain a uniform sludge blanket layer

Pulsator clarifiers are used to treat water that is A. Low in temperature, usually

B. high in color and low in turbidity

Which is the filtration flow rate through a manganese greensand pressure filter at 10 degrees Celcius? A. 1 to 2 gpm/sq ft B. 2 to 3 gpm/sq ft C. 3 to 5 gpm/sq ft D. 5 to 8 gpm/sq ft

B. 2 to 3 gpm/sq ft

When a filter is ripening, A. It is in need of a backwash B. turbidity is just starting to breakthrough C. It is becoming more efficient in particle removal D. It is beginning to grow algae in the filter bed, walls, and troughs

C. It is becoming more efficient in particle removal

Virgin greensand can be regenerated by soaking the filter bed for several hours in a solution of chlorine containing A. 50 mg/L Cl₂ B. 75 mg/L Cl₂ C. 100 mg/L Cl₂ D. 200 mg/L Cl₂

C. 100 mg/L Cl₂

Which role does the action of straining of suspended particles play during filtration? A. Minor B. Fair C. Good D. Major

A. Minor

The turbidity of settled water before it is applied to the filters (post sedimentation process) should always be kept below A. 1 to 2 NTU B. 2 to 4 NTU C. 5 NTU D. 8 to 10 NTU

A. 1 to 2 NTU

Which is the best process for the removal or turbidity? A. Anion exchange B. Coagulation, flocculation, sedimentation, and filtration C. Chemical oxidation D. Granular activated carbon

B. Coagulation, flocculation, sedimentation, and filtration

If filter run times between back washes are long, for example one wee, because high quality ( low turbidity) water is being applied to the filters, which problem could still arise? A. Mudball formation B. Air binding and formation of mudballs C. Extended backwashing due to media becoming too compacted D. Floc breakthrough

D. Floc breakthrough

Gravel displacement in a filter bed from backwash rates with too high of a velocity could eventually cause A. Compaction of the filter media B. loss of media into the backwash troughs C. A sand boil D. Bed shrinkage

C. A sand boil

Virgin greensand A. Does not require regeneration B. requires regeneration with Potassium permanganate (1 hour soak with 60 grams KMnO₄/cu ft) C. Requires regeneration with manganese dioxide (2 hour soak with 25% by weight solution of MnO₂) D. Requires regeneration with manganese hydroxide (4 hour soak with 200 grams Mn(OH)₂/cu ft)

B. requires regeneration with potassium permanganate (1 hour soak with 60 grams KMnO₄/cu ft)

Which conventional treatment step is eliminated by direct filtration? A. Oxidation B. Aeration C. Flocculation D. Sedimentation

D. Sedimentation

If crustaceans have clogged the water treatment plant's filters, which is the most probable solution? A. Shut down the filters and physically remove them B. shut down one filter at a time and drain; once the crustaceans have died, physically remove them and then repeat the process on the other filters C. Backwash filters using a very high concentration of ozone in the water D. Use a disinfectant that targets the specific organisms in question

D. Use a disinfectant that targets the specific organisms in question

Which organism can escape coagulation and thus pass through a granular filter? A. Giardia B. Entamoeba C. Cryptosporidium D. Naegleria

C. Cryptosporidium

Reverse osmosis membranes will compact faster with A. Higher iron content B. higher chlorine contact C. Higher pressure D. Higher pH

C. Higher pressure

Which would immediately occur if newly installed manganese greensand was not skimmed of the fines after backwashing and stratification steps were completed? A. Uneven flow through the bed B. Cracks would develop in the bed C. Mudball formation D. Shorter filter runs

D. Shorter filter runs

When a filter is operated at normal flow rates, it's ability to trap flocculated particles in suspension is a function of A. Effective size multiplied by uniformity coefficient. B. effective size multiplied by uniformity coefficient divided by media size C. Media depth and media size D. Media depth and uniformity coefficient

C. Media depth and media size

Which is the best solution if iron bacteria are causing corrosion problems in the filters? A. Protect the metal parts of the filters by adding zinc orthophosphate B. optimize the settling process C. Superchlorinate D. Add lime at 50 mg/L to one filter at a time

C. Superchlorinate

A conventional water treatment plant with dual media filters has very cold water in the winter and warm water in the summer. Which should the operator do to compensate for this temperature change? A. Use more coagulants in the summer per million gallons B. sustain the same bed expansion without media loss by reducing or increasing backwash flow rate C. Increase summer bed expansion and increase winter backwash flow rates D. Increase bed expansion in the winter compared to summer in order to remove turbidity

B. sustain the same bed expansion without media loss by reducing or increasing backwash flow rate

How are reverse osmosis membranes cleaned once they become fouled? A. They are soaked in high purity industrial soap for at least 24 hours B. they are cleaned with an acid wash C. They are cleaned with an acid, then with an industrial soap for 24 hours D. They are cleaned first with a high purity industrial soap and then soaked in an acid solution for 3 days

B. they are cleaned with an acid wash

Which membrane process is used to treat brackish water or seawater? A. Micro filtration B. nano filtration C. Reverse osmosis D. Ultrafiltration

C. Reverse osmosis

The amount of reject water from a reverse osmosis unit is dependent on the number of stages in which the membranes are configured and the A. Feed pressure B. amount of cations C. Amount of cations and anions D. pH of the wat

A. Feed pressure

In the precipitative softening plant, which percentage of solids sludge is produced? A. 1% B. 5% C. 10% D. 30%

B. 5%

Which sludge disposal method is most economical for lime-soda ash softening plants? A. Disposal into the sewage system B. Sand drying beds C. Lagoons D. Landfill the sludge

C. Lagoons

Current regulations require water treatment wastes to be monitored A. Daily B. weekly C. Monthly D. Quarterly

A. Daily

Which process is used to concentrate sludge? A. Sand bed B. Solar lagoon C. Thickener D. Centrifuge

C. Thickener

Which process is used to dewater sludge? A. Wash water basin B. sand bed C. Thickener D. Reclamation basin

B. sand bed

Which is the total concentration of dissolved solids in the waste water from regeneration of ion exchange units? A. 10,000 to 20,000 mg/L B. 20,000 to 30,000 mg/L C. 35,000 to 45,000 mg/L D. 45,000 to 60,000 mg/L

C. 35,000 to 45,000 mg/L

Which is the usual range of percent sludge solids, if the sludge is allowed to accumulate and compact at the bottom of a sedimentation basin? A. 2-4% B. 4-7% C. 7-12% D. 12-15%

A. 2-4%

Which should be determined first before an in-ground sedimentation tank is drained? A. The solids content B. The hazardous metals content C. Sludge volume and volume of process area to make sure it will be large enough D. Water table level

D. Water table level

Which sludge dewatering process is best for alum sludges (which are difficult to dewater) when cakes are very dry, filtrate is clear, and solids capture is very high? A. Centrifuge B. Vacuum filters C. Filter press D. Belt filter press

C. Filter press

Which sludge dewatering process requires a precoat of diatomaceous earth and it's use has declined due to other newer methods? A. Centrifuge B. Vacuum filters C. Filter press D. Belt filter press

B. Vacuum filters

Which national law regulates underground disposal of wastes in deep wells? A. The Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) B. The Comprehensive Environmental Response Compensation, and Liability Act (Superfund) C. The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) D. The Safe Water Drinking Act

D. The Safe Water Drinking Act

Which is typically the percentage of solid material of alum sludge? A. 0.1-2.0% B. 2.0-5.0% C. 4.0-7.0% D. 5.0-15.0%

A. 0.1-2.0%

Which is the most troublesome operating problem for sedimentation basins? A. Algae and slime growths B. Short-circuiting C. Density currents D. Sludge collection and removal

D. Sludge collection and removal

100,000 gallons of sludge is removed from a sedimentation basin at 0.2 percent (2,000 mg/L) solids and is sent to a thickener where it is expected to be concentrated to 5 percent (50,000 mg/L) before being transferred to a tank truck for hauling. If the tank truck has 4,000 gallons capacity, how many trips will be necessary? A. One truckload B. two truckloads C. 5 truckloads D. 20 truckloads

A. One truckload

Sludge produced by water drawn from sources with relatively low turbidity A. Is high in silt and organic content B. is high in liquid content C. Can be very gelatinous and difficult to handle D. Handles like clay

C. Can be very gelatinous and difficult to handle

Which precipitates can foul a cation exchange resin? A. Sodium chloride and potassium chloride B. chlorate and borate C. Sulfates D. Iron and manganese

D. Iron and manganese

Which process works best for sequestering manganese? A. Sodium silicate alone B. Sodium silicate and chlorine C. Polyphosphates alone D. Polyphosphates and chlorine

D. Polyphosphates and chlorine

When should polyphosphates used for sequestration of iron and manganese from a well be injected into the process? A. Right after disinfection B. immediately after aeration to remove unwanted gases C. Right after clarification D. Right after the water leaves the well

D. Right after the water leaves the well

Recarbonation is A. Adding CO₂ to the water B. Adding bicarbonate to the water C. Adding acid to precipitate the excess lime D. Adding caustic soda

A. Adding CO₂ to the water

In the ion-exchange softening process, once the resin can no longer soften water it must be A. Renewed B. re-catalyzed C. Regenerated D. Recharged

C. Regenerated

Ion exchange processes can typically be used for direct groundwater treatment as long as turbidity and ________ levels are not excessive. A. Calcium carbonate B. iron C. Carbon dioxide D. Sodium sulfate

B. iron

Softened water has a high pH and a high concentration of CaCO₃. Therefore, stabilization is essential in order to prevent the CaCO₃ from precipitating out A. In household plumbing B. in the clearwell C. In the distribution system D. On the filters

D. On the filters

Which is the best type of salt to use in the regeneration of ion exchange softener resin? A. Fine-grained salt B. Block salt C. Block or road salt D. Rock salt or pellet-type salt

D. Rock salt or pellet-type salt

Powdered activated carbon is primarily used to control A. Disinfectant by-products B. organic compounds responsible for tastes and odors C. Synthetic organic chemicals D. Humid and dulcimer acids

B. organic compounds responsible for tastes and odors

Ion exchange will remove A. All hardness B. all hardness down to 7.4 mg/L, as CaCO₃ C. All hardness down to 17.2 mg/L, as CaCO₃ D. All hardness down to about 25 mg/L, as CaCO₃

A. All hardness

It is impossible to produce waters with a hardness of less than ______ when using the lime-soda ash process. A. 9 mg/L B. 17 mg/L C. 25 mg/L D. 50 mg/L

C. 25 mg/L

When added to water for softening purposes, soda ash will do which of the following? A. Disinfect the wat and kill the vast majority of protozoans, viruses, bacteria, and other multicellular organisms B. raise the pH of water to between 8.0 and 9.8 pH units C. Add CO2 to the water D. Add calcium alkalinity to the water

A. Disinfect the water and kill the vast majority of protozoans, viruses, bacteria, and other multicellular organisms

Magnetic ion exchange resin has been developed to remove A. Total organic carbon B. chlorides C. Iron and magnesium D. Sulfates and sulfides

A. Total organic carbon

Approximately how much carbon is lost during the reactivation process for granular activated carbon? A. 5% B. 7% C. 10% D. 15%

A. 5%

Which is the most advantageous application point for powdered activated carbon? A. Raw water intake B. after coagulation C. After oxidation with chlorine D. In the filters

A. Raw water intake

Which is the most effective method for removing tastes and odors? A. Coagulation, sedimentation, and filtration B. Granular activated carbon C. Anion exchange D. Lime softening

B. Granular activated carbon

Backwashing rate procedures should be reassessed to determine the cause of granular activated carbon loss if the loss per year exceeds A. 2 inches B. 4 inches C. 6 inches D. 8 inches

A. 2 inches

Which is the most efficient process for the removal of nitrite and nitrate? A. Powdered activated carbon B. granular activated carbon C. Anion exchange D. Cation exchange

C. Anion exchange

Which is the main problem if particle agglomeration is occurring in a filter for iron and manganese removal at the interface of the coal layer and the layer below? A. Oxidant is too weak B. coagulant dosage is excessive C. Coal layer is too fine D. Coal layer is too coarse

D. Coal layer is too coarse "agglomeration"-1 a jumbled cluster or mass of varied parts. 2. The act or process of agglomerating

Which is the most effective method for the removal of disinfection by-products? A. Reverse osmosis B. Lime softening C. Ultrafiltration D. Granular activated carbon

D. Granular activated carbon

Under no circumstances should a composite sample be collected for which type of analysis? A. Bacteriological B. Total dissolved solids C. Alkalinity D. Turbidity

A. Bacteriological

The number of monthly distribution system chlorine residual samples required is A. Based on water withdrawal permit limit B. Based on size C. Bases on population D. Different for each state

C. Based on population

Which is (are) the ideal indicator for pathogens? A. Salmonella species B. coliform group bacteria C. Gram-negative cocci D. Gram-negative coccobacilli

B. coliform group bacteria

When one substance is dissolved in another and will not settle out, which is the product called? A. An emulsion B. A compound C. A suspension D. A solution

D. A solution

Acids, bases, and salts lacking carbon are A. Ketones B. Aldehydes C. Organic compounds D. Inorganic compounds

D. Inorganic compounds

Which type of sample should always be collected for determine the presence of coliform bacteria? A. Time composite B. Grab sample C. Proportional D. Composite

B. Grab sample

Samples to be tested for coliforms can be refrigerated for up to ______ hours before analysis, but should be done as soon as possible. A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 12

C. 8

When a water sample is acidified, the final pH of the water must be a. <3.5

a. <2.0

Which chemical is used to remove residual chlorine from water? A. Na₂S₂O₃ B. Na₂SiO₃ C. Na₂SiF₆ D. NaOCL

A. Na₂S₂O₃

When a sample is collected, which causes its quality to begin to change? A. CO₂ B. Dissolved gases C. Biological activity D. pH

C. Biological activity

Water that is to be analyzed for inorganic metals should be acidified with A. Dilute Hydrochloric acid B. Concentrated Hydrochloric acid C. Dilute nitric acid D. Concentrated nitric acid

D. Concentrated nitric acid

A solution used to determine the concentration of another solution is called a A. Saturated solution B. standardized solution C. Concentrated solution D. Dilute solution

B. standardized solution

Which method would you use to concentrate and retrieve low numbers of bacteria from a large quantity of water? A. Colilert B. Colisure C. Membrane filtration D. MPN (Most Probable Number)

C. Membrane filtration

A typical coliform colony in the membrane filter method has the following characteristics: A. Blue with lustrous surface sheen B. Pink to dark red with green metallic surface sheen C. Pink or yellow with lustrous to metallic surface sheen depending on species D. Yellow with silver metallic to lustrous surface sheen

B. Pink to dark red with green metallic surface sheen

In the presumptive phase of the Most Probable Number test, how long does it take for the coliforms to produce gas? A. 12 to 24 hours B. 24 to 48 hours C. 24 to 36 hours D. 36 to 48 hours

B. 24 to 48 hours

Chemical analysis for synthetic organic compounds should not be collected in containers made of A. Polytetrafluoroethylene B. stainless steel C. Polypropylene D. Borosilicate

C. Polypropylene

How much acid per 100 mL should be used to preserve a sample for later hardness analysis? A. 0.1 mL B. 0.2 mL C. 0.5 mL D. 1.0 mL

C. 0.5 mL

Conductivity measurements can assist the laboratory analyst in A. Measuring the electrical strength, which is directly proportional to the number of free electrons B. Estimating the concentration of calcium carbonate C. Evaluating variations in the concentration of suspended particles D. Determining the degree of mineralization of the water

D. Determining the degree of mineralization of the water

Water that is to be analyzed for inorganic metals should be filtered for __________ before _________ . A. Dissolved metals; analysis B. suspended metals; analysis C. Dissolved metals; preserving D. Suspended metals; preserving

C. Dissolved metals; preserving

In routine water quality sampling, which one of the following is an early warning sign that conditions are becoming more conducive to sulfate-reducing bacteria? A. Increase in ferrous iron B. Increase in ferric iron C. Dramatic decline in dissolved oxygen D. Increase in sulfides

C. Dramatic decline in dissolved oxygen

Which type of violation requires an all clear notification to the public? A. Tier I B. Tier II C. Tier III D. Tier IV

A. Tier I

How many coliform positive samples are allowed each month for water systems that collect less than 40 samples per month? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

A. 1

If a water sample tests positive for coliforms, the system must collect a set of repeat samples within A. 18 hours B. 24 hours C. 36 hours D. 48 hours

B. 24 hours

A public water system has at least ______ service connections or serves ________ or more persons ________ or more days each year. A. 15; 15; 50 B. 25; 25; 50 C. 15; 25; 60 D. 25; 50; 60

C. 15; 25; 60

Where are the sampling points located for required sampling of coliform bacteria in a community water systems? A. At consumers' faucets B. 75% at locations representative of population distribution and 25% at the farthest points in the distribution system C. At points where water enters the distribution system D. At representative points within the distribution system

A. At consumers' faucets

Water being served to the public for a population greater than 3,300 must not have a disinfectant residual entering the distribution system below _______ for more than 4 hours. A. 0.1 mg/L B. 0.2 mg/L C. 0.3 mg/L D. 0.4 mg/L

B. 0.2 mg/L

Which is the Action Level for copper? A. 0.5 mg/L B. 1.0 mg/L C. 1.3 mg/L D. 1.8 mg/L

C. 1.3 mg/L

Where are the sampling point(s) located for required sampling of turbidity in a community water system? A. Representative points within the distribution system B. 75% at locations representative of population distribution and 25% at the farthest points in the distribution system C. Point(s) where water enters the distribution system, including all filter effluents if a surface water treatment plant D. Effluents of all filters if a surface water treatment plant, entry points to the distribution system and at locations representative of population distribution

C. Point(s) where water enters the distribution system, including all filter effluents if a surface water treatment plant

Under the Surface Water Treatment Rule, disinfection residuals must be collected at the same location in the distribution system as A. Coliforms B. Total trihalomethanes C. Disinfectant by-products D. Alkalinity, conductivity, and pH for corrosion studies

A. Coliform samples

Which is the Maximum Contaminant Level for haloacetic acids (HAA5)? A. 0.040 mg/L B. 0.060 mg/L C. 0.080 mg/L D. 0.100 mg/L

B. 0.060 mg/L

If a water system collects at least 40 samples per month for analyses of total coliforms, which percent of total coliform positive samples are acceptable for the system to remain in compliance with the maximum contaminant level for total coliforms? A. No more than 2% B. No more than 3% C. No more than 4% D. No more than 5%

D. No more than 5%

Water systems are required to achieve at least ________ removal and/or inactivation of viruses between a point where the raw water is not subject to recontamination by surface water runoff and a point downstream before or at the first customer. A. 2 log B. 2.5 log C. 3 log D. 4 log

D. 4 log

Where are the sampling points located for required sampling of organics (except trihalomethanes) in a community water system? A. Representative points within the distribution system B. 75% at locations representative of population distribution and 25% at the farthest points in the distribution system C. Entry points to the distribution system D. Entry points to the distribution system and representative points within the distribution system

C. Entry points to the distribution system

Where are the sampling point(s) located for required sampling of natural radionuclides in a community water system? A. Consumer's faucet B. Representative points within the distribution system C. Each entry point to the system D. 75% at locations representative of population distribution and 25% at the farthest points in the distribution system

C. Each entry point to the system

Continuous chlorine residual monitoring is required where the water system enters the distribution system under the Surface Water Rule when the A. Population served is greater then 3,300 people B. population served is greater then 10,000 people C. Number of taps is greater then 1,000 D. Number of taps is greater then 2,500

A. Population served is greater then 3,300 people

A community water system must post the Consumer Confidence Report on a publicly accessible Web site if it serves more than A. 10,000 people B. 25,000 people C. 50,000 people D. 100,000 people

D. 100,000 people

Public Water Systems that cannot meet the required removal of TOC can comply if the source-water TOC level is ______, calculated quarterly as a running annual average. A. Less than 1.0 mg/L B. Less than 2.0 mg/L C. Less than 2.5 mg/L D. Less than 5.0 mg/L

B. Less than 2.0 mg/L

To avoid filtration, one criterion is that the fecal coliform concentration must be equal to or less than _______ in representative samples of the source water immediately before the first or only point of disinfectant application in at least ______ of the measurements made for the previous 6 months that the system served water to the public on an ongoing basis. A. 5/100 mL; 95% B. 10/100 mL; 99% C. 20/100 mL; 90% D. 25/100 mL; 90%

C. 20/100 mL; 90%

Water systems may be allowed by their state to monitor annually, if the state has determined that the system is reliable and consistently below the maximum contaminant level for organic compounds. When must the water system collect these annual samples? A. During the fall when plant debris starts to increase in surface waters B. During the spring when plant debris has had time to decay and thus increase organic levels in surface waters C. During the month that previously yielded the highest analytical result D. During the quarter that previously yielded the highest analytical result

D. During the quarter that previously yielded the highest analytical result

Water treatment operators must strike a balance between TOC removal and the A. Stage 1 Disinfectant/Disinfection By-products Rule B. Stage 2 Disinfectant/Disinfection By-products Rule C. Filter Backwash Recycle Rule D. Lead and Copper Rule

D. Lead and Copper Rule

The main purpose of mechanical seals is to A. Keep lubrication in and dirt and other foreign materials out B. Control water leakage from the stuffing box C. Keep contamination from entering or leaving D. Save on costs, as they last longer than packing

B. control water leakage from the stuffing box

The purpose of packing is to A. Keep oil or graphite on the shaft B. control water leakage along the pumps shaft C. Prevent water leakage from the pump shaft D. Help prevent shaft from warping

B. control water leakage along the pumps shaft

Which part of a pump houses the packing or mechanical seal? A. The shroud B. The stuffing box C. The volute D. The casing head

B. The stuffing box

Which is the only type of pump that can be operated against a closed valve? A. Vertical turbine-pump B. Centrifugal pump C. Axial-flow pump D. Mixed-flow pump

B. Centrifugal pump

Which is a principal problem associated with preliminary treatment screening? A. Broken screens B. Excessive downtime due to numerous shear pins being broken C. Clogging D. Chain comes out of foot sprocket

C. Clogging

Which device applies an even pressure to the packing such that it compresses tight around the pump shaft? A. Lantern ring B. Mechanical seal C. Packing gland D. Seal cage

C. Packing gland

When using four packing rings, the rings should be staggered at A. 45 degrees B. 90 degrees C. 120 degrees D. 189 degrees

B. 90 degrees

How is velocity head expressed mathematically? A. V/g B. V²/g C. V²/2g D. V²/32.2 ft/sec²

C. V²/2g

What type of centrifugal pump impeller is used for pumping medium-sized solids? A. Open B. Closed C. Semi-open D. Radial

C. Semi-open

The shaft's main function is to transmit _______ from the motor to the impeller. A. Centrifugal force B. torque C. Kinetic energy D. Thrust

B. Torque

A single chlorine cylinder is delivering 48 lb/d of chlorine to the water process, causing the cylinder to form frost. Which would be the best solution to this problem? A. Install a fan to improve air circulation B. Heat the cylinder immediately below the valve with heat tape C. Heat the valve only D. Add another cylinder and feed from both

D. Add another cylinder and feed from both

The pressure-reducing and shutoff valve on a vaporizer will shut off when ther is a(n) A. Loss of electrical power B. high water level C. High water temperature D. Over-pressurization of the vaporization system

A. Loss of electrical power

Particle counters used the principal of light A. Scattering B. reflection C. Refraction D. Blockage

D. Blockage

How much time does it usually take to slake lime in the detention-time lime slaker? A. 20 to 30 minutes B. 30 to 45 minutes C. 45 to 60 minutes D. 60 to 75 minutes

A. 20 to 30 minutes

At which temperature should the slaking process be maintained? A. 120 degrees Fahrenheit B. 135 degrees Fahrenheit C. 150 degrees Fahrenheit D. 160 degrees Fahrenheit or higher

D. 160 degrees Fahrenheit

When external seal water is used as a water source, which should its pressure be in relation to the volute pressure? A. 3 to 10 psi higher B. 10 to 15 psi higher C. 20 to 25 psi higher D. 25 to 30 psi higher

B. 10 to 15 psi higher

Under which conditions are regenerative turbine pumps used? A. High head conditions B. Low head conditions C. High volume conditions D. Low suction conditions

A. High head conditions

Approximately, which percentage of flow increase occurs when a two-flight screw pump is changed to a three-flight screw pump, all other things being equal? A. 10% B. 20% C. 33% D. 40%

B. 20%

The arrangement of pumps in series is primarily used to increase the A. Flow, usually by 70-80% B. Discharge head C. Flow, but keep discharge head the same D. Pump efficiency

B. discharge head

How much will a flexible disk coupling compensate for in angular movement? A. 1.0 degree B. 2.0 degrees C. 3.2 degrees D. 3.7 degrees

B. 2.0 degrees

Which is the most important thing to consider in automatic startup after a power failure? A. Operator safety B. Power surges that could trip a breaker C. Importance to process D. Importance to water quality

A. Operator safety

At which range of temperatures will fusible plugs on chlorine cylinders melt? A. 147 to 152 degrees Fahrenheit B. 155 to 159 degrees Fahrenheit C. 157 to 162 degrees Fahrenheit D. 167 to 171 degrees Fahrenheit

C. 157 to 162 degrees Fahrenheit

When a chlorine cylinder or container is changed, a new gasket should be used A. Every time B. After 2 uses C. After 3 uses D. After 4 or 5 uses

A. Every time

Which is the best type of gasket to use when connecting a chlorine cylinder or container to the chlorine feed system? A. Fiber gasket B. Aluminum gasket C. Copper gasket D. Lead gasket

D. Lead gasket

Which part of the human body is the most vulnerable to allowing microorganisms to enter it? A. Stomach area where most of the organs are located B. Heart C. Eyes D. Throat or neck area

C. Eyes

Which will occur if dry alum and quicklime are mixed together? A. Highly explosive hydrogen gas will be released B. Dust may be released which may cause an explosion C. A coagulated gel will form D. Nothing, as they are neutral towards each other

A. Highly explosive hydrogen gas will be released

Chlorine gas A. Will burn in the presence of oxygen and moisture B. Will explode in the presence of oxygen and an ignition source C. Will support combustion D. Will conduct electricity

C. Will support combustion

Chlorine storage rooms should A. Have sealed walls and doors that open inward B. Be fitted with chlorine-resistant power exhaust fans ducted out at ceiling level C. Have lights and fans on the inside and wired to the same switch D. Have a window in the door so an operator can look into the room to detect any abnormal conditions

D. Have a window in the door so an operator can look into the room to detect any abnormal conditions

Before an authorized entrant enters a permitted confined space, A. He or she must don SCUBA gear B. the internal atmosphere of the space must be tested to measure oxygen content, presence of flammable gases and vapors, and potentially toxic air contaminants C. Verify the availability of rescue services D. Ensure ther is adequate lighting in the space to conduct the necessary work

B. the internal atmosphere of the space must be tested to measure oxygen content, presence of flammable gases and vapors, and potentially toxic air contaminants

Fluoride injection should be as far away as possible from any chemical that contains A. Chlorine B. aluminum (from alum) C. Calcium D. Sodium (for example, soda ash)

C. Calcium

Water treatment personnel should only use self-contained breathing apparatus equipment that has been approved by A. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration B. their state's Department of Public Health C. The National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health D. The American Standards and Testing Methods

C. The National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health

If a substantial chlorine leak incident occurs, which agency should be called for actual hands-on assistance? A. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) B. The Chemical Transportation Emergency Center C. The Transportation Emergency Institute D. The Chlorine Institute

B. The Chemical Transportation Emergency Center

In regards to safety, wet activated carbon will remove which from the air? A. Organic gases and hydrogen sulfide B. Oxygen C. Carbon dioxide D. Carbon monoxide

B. Oxygen

An employee's average airborne exposure in any 8-hour shift in a 40-hour workweek that should not be exceeded is called A. Short Term Exposure Limit (STEL) B. Time-Weighted Average (TWA) C. Threshold Limit Value (TLV) D. Recommended Exposure Limits (REL)

B. Time-Weighted Average (TWA)

Sites are required to do a site assessment under the process safety management (PSM) regulations (OSHA) if the facility in a single process has more than how many pounds of chlorine? A. 1,000 lb B. 1,500 lb C. 2,000 lb D. 4,000 lb

B. 1,500 lb

Which factor is used to express the relative volatility of a substance? A. Chaitin's constant B. Feigenbaum constant C. Henry's constant D. Boyle's Law

C. Henry's constant

Ammonia gas can be fatal to humans at concentrations as low as A. 500 ppm B. 900 ppm C. 1,400 ppm D. 2,000 ppm

D. 2,000 ppm

Which emergency kit is for chlorine tank cars? A. Kit A B. Kit B C. Kit C D. Kit D

C. Kit C

Each year approximately which percentage of confined space deaths are would-be rescuers? A. 25% B. 50% C. 67% D. 75%

C. 67%

When a water source is destroyed or damaged due to some disaster that causes total contamination, which would be a short-term goal? A. Install a dual potable-nonpotable water system B. Construct a new raw water source C. Clean up the source of contamination caused by the disaster D. Draw water from an adjoining system or systems

D. Draw water from an adjoining system or systems

The organisms used to indicate the likelihood that pathogenic bacteria may be present are A. Salmonella bacteria B. Enteric viruses C. Coliform bacteria D. Pseudomonas group bacteria

C. Coliform bacteria

Which adverse effects does the secondary contaminant manganese have? A. Unappealing to drink, undesirable taste, and possible indication of corrosion B. discolored laundry and changed taste of water, coffee, tea, and other beverages C. Undesirable metallic taste and possible indication of corrosion D. Added total dissolved solids and scale, indication of sewage contamination and tastes

B. discolored laundry and changed taste of water, coffee, tea, and other beverages

In general, which causes an increase in taste and odors when natural waters lack dissolved oxygen? A. Increase in algae growth B. pH reduction causing an increase in iron and manganese going into solution C. Anaerobic decomposition D. Oxidation of organic material

C. Anaerobic decomposition

A physical property, as opposed to a chemical property, important to water treatment is A. Turbidity B. pH C. Dissolved solids D. Electrical conductivity

A. Turbidity

Which are the two principal chemicals that cause water hardness? A. Aluminum and iron B. Aluminum and calcium C. Iron and manganese D. Calcium and magnesium

D. Calcium and magnesium

Temporary hardness is caused by A. Magnesium sulfate B. calcium nitrate C. Magnesium chloride D. Calcium bicarbonate

D. Calcium bicarbonate

Which type of algae would most likely be found in nutrient-rich waters? A. Blue-green algae B. Green algae C. Diatoms D. Brown algae

A. Blue-green algae

The quantity of dissolved oxygen in water is a function of A. pH, alkalinity, temperature, and total dissolved solids B. temperature, and alkalinity C. pH and temperature D. Temperature, pressure, and salinity

D temperature , pressure, and salinity

Most of the carbon dioxide in groundwater originates from A. Weathering of rocks B. Biological oxidation of organic matter C. Animal respiration D. Plant respiration

B. biological oxidation or organic matter

At which temperature does the maximum density of water occur? A. -0.4 degrees Celcius B. 0.0 degrees Celcius C. 0.4 degrees Celcius D. 4.0 degrees Celcius

D. 4.0 degrees Celcius

When water freezes it expands by ________ of its original volume. A. One-twentieth B. one-fortieth C. One-ninth D. One-seventh

C. One-ninth

Which type of polar bonds are between the hydrogen atoms and the oxygen atom in water? A. Ionic B. Covalent C. van der Waals D. Hydrogen bonding

B. Covalent

Which would be the most probable solution to control algae in the source water if the algae were clogging the filters at the water plant? A. Use activated carbon B. decrease oxygen levels C. Backwash filters more frequently D. Control nutrients

D. Control nutrients

Total dissolved minerals in rainwater are typically close to A. 0.05 mg/L B. 1.00 mg/L C. 10.00 mg/L D. 40.00 mg/L

C. 10.00 mg/l

Because manganese is only slightly soluble, it is rarely found in surface waters above a concentration of A. 1.0 mg/L B. 2.0 mg/L C. 2.5 mg/L D. 3.0 mg/L

A. 1.0 mg/L

Where does the microbial growth that affects groundwater sources and thus the treatment for removing iron and manganese occur? A. Anaerobic zone B. Aerobic zone C. Reduction zone D. Where aerobic and anaerobic conditions meet

D. Where aerobic and anaerobic conditions meet

Which conditions will +Eh values of water support? A. Anaerobic activities B. Aerobic activities C. Low pH values D. Organic acid production

B. Aerobic activities

Radon is a radioactive decay daughter of A. Uranium 235 B. uranium 238 C. Radium 226 D. radium 228

C. Radium 226

Which algal genera are most likely to cause taste-and-odor problems when abundant in the water? A. Volvox B. Chlorella C. Oocystis D. Spirogyra

A. Volvox

Shellfish grown in polluted waters have been known to contain the organism that causes A. Dysentery B. Typhoid C. Infectious hepatitis D. Gastroenteritis

C. Infectious hepatitis

Which is the principal scale-forming substance in water? A. Zinc orthophosphate B. sodium carbonate C. Calcium D. Calcium carbonate

D. Calcium carbonate

Which oxidant should be fed as early as possible in the treatment process to allow for complete reaction before it enters the distribution system? A. Ozone B. chlorine dioxide C. Chloramines D. Potassium permanganate

D. Potassium permanganate

The flexible copper tubing that connects a 150-lb chlorine cylinder to a manifold should be rated at A. 100 psi B. 150 psi C. 250 psi D. 500 psi

D. 500 psi

The buildup of corrosion products is a process known as A. Deposition B. electrochemical deposition C. Physiochemical deposition D. Tuberculation

D. Tuberculation

Potassium permanganate A. Usually has a dosage range from 10 to 15 mg/L B. oxidizes to manganese dioxide, which can give the water a purple color C. Should be fed before chlorine D. Should be used with powdered activated carbon (PAC)

C. Should be fed before chlorine

Low values for which water characteristics may require the addition of lime, caustic soda, or sodium bicarbonate? A. Turbidity B. water temperature C. pH D. Alkalinity

D. Alkalinity

Whic chemical could cause pink water problems? A. Chloramine B. Potassium permanganate C. Bromine D. Iodine

B. Potassium permanganate

The most frequent in situ well treatment is the application of a(n) A. Chemical to adjust pH of well water that is either too acidic or too alkaline B. phosphate inhibitor to prevent well pump corrosion C. Oxidant to reduce iron bacteria D. Coagulant for high turbidity well water

C. Oxidant to reduce iron bacteria In situ: 1. Situated in the original, natural, or existing place or position

Which chemical is slaked lime? A. Ca(OH)₂ B. Ca(HCO₃)₂ C. CaCO₃ D. Ca(H2O)₂

A. Ca(OH)₂

Calcium sulfate (CaSO₄) is also known as A. Gypsum B. Limestone C. Dolomite D. Talc

A. Gypsum

Which color does the oxidant potassium permanganate turn at its end point? A. Reddish-brown B. Red C. Pink D. Yellow

D. Yellow

The simplest chlorine gas feeder for controlling chlorine gas flow is A. Constant differential pressure B. Varible differential pressure C. Sonic flow D. Induction mixer

C. Sonic flow

Which is usually used to disinfect the gravel packing of a groundwater well? A. Chlorine dioxide B. powder of calcium hypochlorite tablet C. Sodium hypochlorite D. Chloramines

B. powder of calcium hypochlorite tablet

Which is true regarding chlorine one-ton containers? A. Full one-ton containers weigh at least 4,500 pounds B. full one-tone weigh about 2,750 pounds C. The chlorine containers have three fusible plugs on the valve end and two on the opposite end D. One-ton containers are equipped with two valves, one for liquid and one for gas

D. One-ton containers are equipped with two valves, one for liquid and one for gas

Teeth are likely to become pitted when the fluoride concentration in drinking water goes above which amount? A. 3 mg/L B. 4 mg/L C. 5 mg/L D. 6 mg/L

B. 4 mg/L

How many pounds of ammonia ad contained in a full 1-ton cylinder? A. 800 B. 1,000 C. 1,500 D. 2,000

A. 800

High pH favors the formation of A. Haloacetic acids B. Total Trihalomethane C. Both haloacetic acids and total Trihalomethane D. Neither haloacetic acids nor total Trihalomethane

B. Total Trihalomethane

How often is it recommended to check the fluoride feed system? A. At least once every 24 hours B. every 12 hours C. Every 8 hours D. Every hour

D. Every hour

Low pH favors the formation of A. Haloacetic acids B. total Trihalomethane C. Both haloacetic acids and total Trihalomethane D. Neither haloacetic acids nor total Trihalomethane

A. Haloacetic acids

Dental fluorosis is A. Dental cavities B. mottling of the teeth C. Fluoride dental rinse D. Coating of fluoride on the enamel of the teeth

B. mottling of the teeth

One volume of liquid chlorine will expand to approximately how many volumes of gas? a. 440 b. 460 c. 480 d. 484

b. 460

In general, how long does ozone last when it is dissolved in water for disinfection purposes? a. A few seconds to a few minutes b. 5 to 10 minutes c. .10 to 15 minutes d. 15 to 30 minutes

a. A few seconds to a few minutes

Sodium fluoride a. was once called silly acid b. is a straw yellow color c. has a solution pH of about 1.0 pH units d. is odorless

d. is odorless

Which does the saturation point of calcium carbonate primarily depend upon? a. pH b. Temperature c. Concentration of calcium d. TDS

a. pH

Which will increase ph, hardness, and alkalinity? a. Sodium hydroxide b. Zinc orthophosphate c. Lime d. Sodium zinc phosphate

c. Lime

How often should the fluoride concentration of treated water be measured? a. Every 8 hours b. Every 12 hours c. Every day d. Continously

c. Every day

Which is the pH of a saturated solution of sodium fluoride? a. 6.2 b. 7.0 c. 7.8 d. 8.0 to 8.4

b. 7.0

Which is the most effective wavelength when using ultraviolet light for disinfection? a. 2,235 angstroms b. 2,650 angstroms c. 2,875 angstroms d. 2,965 angstroms

b. 2,650 angstroms

Which type of chlorine gas feeder is most commonly used? a. Pressure b. Combination water and pressure c. Vacuum d. Combination pressure and vacuum

c. Vacuum

Which substance is a depolarizer? a. Carbonates b. Nitrates c. Polyphosphates d. Silicates

b. Nitrates

Which composes the majority of scale in pipe? a. Ca(HCO₃)₂ b. CaCO₃ c. MgCO₃ d. CaSO₄

b. CaCO₃

The specific gravity standard for gases is a. water vapor at 100˚ C b. air c. oxygen d. nitrogen

b. air

Which chemical oxidant is most effective in reducing the concentration of taste-and-odor compounds caused by actinomycetes species? a. Chloramines b. Peroxone c. Chloride dioxide d. Potassium permanganate

b. Peroxone

Which oxidant is a bluish toxic gas with a pungent odor? a. Bromine b. Iodine c. Ozone d. Potassium permanganate

c. Ozone

Past the breakpoint chlorination point, which percentage of the total chlorine residual should be free chlorine? a. 75 to 85% b. 85 to 90% c. 90 to 95% d. 100%

b. 85 to 90%

Sodium hyochlorite has a pH range of a. 6.0 to 7.5 pH units b. 7.5 to 8.5 pH units c. 8.5 to 9.5 pH units d. 9.0 to 11.0 pH units

d. 9.0 to 11.0 pH units

Where should the fluoride injection point be located? a. Right after flocculation b. After sedimentation, but before lime softening c. Before filtration d. After water has received complete treatment

d. After water has received complete treatment

The corrosion process can be accelerated by certain bacterial organisms because they produce which chemical? a. N₂ b. CO₂ c. MgCO₃ d. CaCO₃

b. CO₂

Which chemical would be best to use for corrosion inhibition if the water is very low in alkalinity and calcium concentration? a. Sodium carbonate b. Sodium bicarbonate c. Sodium hydroxide d. Polyphosphates

d. Polyphosphates

If the temperature drops below _____ a 50% solution of caustic soda will begin to crystallize. a. 44℉ b. 48℉ c. 54℉ d. 58℉

c. 54℉

When chlorine has destroyed all reducing compounds, any chlorine remaining will react with a. nitrite and form chloramines b. nitrates and form chloramines c. ammonia and form chloramines d. organics and form aromatics

c. ammonia and form chloramines

Low values for which water characteristic usually cause poor coagulation, flocculation, and settling characteristics? a. Water temperature b. Turbidity c. Alkalinity d. pH

a. Water temperature

Polyphosphates would most likely give the best results at a. high alkalinity levels b. high water temperatures c. low pH values d. high pH values

c. low pH values

Which is the most effective disinfectant for inactivating bacteria? a. Hypochlorite ion b. Hypochlorus acid c. Chloramines d. Bromine

b. Hypochlorus acid

Which chemical oxidant is the weakest? a. Potassium permanganate b. Ozone c. Choramines d. Chlorine dioxide

c. Chloramines

Which is the density of liquid chlorine? a. 1.25 b. 1.50 c. 2.50 d. 3.50

b. 1.50

Which device(s) uniformly disperse(s) the chlorine solution into the main flow of water? a. Injectors b. Pressure regulating valve c. Diffusers d. Effluent nozzles

c. Diffusers

The pressure in a chlorine cylinder depends on the a. amount of chlorine in the cylinder b. temperature of the chlorine liquid c. vacuum placed on the regulator d. amount of gas being withdrawn

b. temperature of the chlorine liquid

Sodium bicarbonate needs to be stored in a cool, dry place because it decomposes rapidly as the temperature nears a. 80℉ b. 100℉ c. 115℉ d. 125℉

b. 100℉

In the breakpoint chlorination curve, in which zone do inorganic chlorine demand-causing compounds consume free chlorine? a. Zone 1 b. Zone 2 c. Zone 3 d. Zone 4

a. Zone 1

Which is the optimal pH level for sulfate-forming reactions with chlorine? a. 6 b. 8 c. 9 d. 11

a. 6

Liquid chlorine is which color? a. Yellow b. Dark green c. Amber d. Light brown

c. Amber

When chlorine gas is under a vacuum reliquefaction will not occur until the temperature drops below a. -20℉ b. -30℉ c. -38℉ d. -48℉

b. -30℉

Which method can be used to control scale and corrosion? a. Softening b. pH and alkalinity adjustment with lime c. Sequestering d. Chelation

b. pH and alkalinity adjustment with lime

Which is the chemical formula for hydrated lime? a. CaO b. CaCO₃ c. Ca(OH)₂ d. CaMg(CO₃)₂

c. Ca(OH)₂

Once iron bacteria become established in a well, shock chlorination will be required. The shock treatment is required a. at increasingly shorter intervals b. at increasingly longer intervals c. at very regular intervals d. sporadically, depending on many physical water quality factors and specifically on pumping rates.

a. at increasingly shorter intervals

Which should accompany shock treatment to maximize its effectiveness for a well that has been fouled by iron bacteria? a. Constant addition of more chlorine as it is consumed, as determined by chlorine wet tests b. Air surging, valved surge blocks, or jetting c. Slow addition of surfacants d. 1 to 5% acid solution with the chlorine

b. Air surging, valved surge blocks, or jetting

Which should the concentration of chlorine be just before the pump is started (for surging and moving the disinfectant into the acquifer and well) in order to sufficiently disinfect a public water supply well? a. 10 mg/L b. 25 mg/L c. 50 mg/L d. 100 mg/L

c. 50 mg/L

Which compound will decrease in solubility as the temperature rises? a. Slaked lime b. Calcium carbonate c. Magnesium hydroxide d. Magnesium oxalate

a. Slaked lime

Which is the most probable solution if nitrifying bacteria are increasing the demand for the disinfectant being used? a. Optimize nutrient control at the water plant b. Superchlorinate reservoirs and stroage tanks c. Increase detention time in reservoirs and the distribution systems d. Use powdered activated carbon in the filters

b. Superchlorinate reservoirs and storage tanks

When air is used to gerate ozone, an air dryer should be used to reduce the production a. nitrous oxides b. hydrogen gas (H₂) c. water d. ammonia (NH₃)

a. nitrous oxides

Which shows the correct relative strengths of chlorine species as disinfectant? a. HOCl > OCl > NH₂Cl > HCl b. OCl > HOCl > NH₂Cl > HCl c. NH₂Cl > HCl > HOCl > OCl d. HCl > HOCl > OCl > NH₂Cl

a. HOCl > OCl > NH₂Cl > HCl

When ultraviolet radiation is used to inactrivated microorganisms, which are the optimum wavelengthes? a. 100 to 200 nanometers (nm) b. 250 to 265 nm c. 330 to 360 nm d. 400 to 500 nm

b. 250 to 265 nm

Regarding the breakpoint chlorination curve, the chlorine dosage must go beyond which point in the curve to eliminate tastes and odors? a. Point 2 b. Point 3 c. Point 4 d. Point 5

c. Point 4

Which chemical will decrease alkalinity? a. Silicates b. Carbon dioxide c. Sodium hydroxide d. Sodium bicarbonate

b. Carbon dioxide

Which oxidant would cause the most corrosion and scaling problems? a. Ozone b. Chlorine dioxide c. Chloramines d. Oxygen

d. Oxygen

Which metal, if in contact with cast iron, would becoe the most active (anode)? a. Aluminum b. Zinc c. Cadium d. Mild

b. Zinc

Low alkalinity water becomes quite corrosive when it is heavily saturated with a. lime b. soda ash c. oxygen d. sodium bicarbonate

c. oxygen

Immediately before breakpoint chlorination occurs, which chemical species are destroyed? a. Arobatic hydrocarbons b. Aromatic hydrocarbons and aliphatic hydrocarbons c. Ammonia and chloroorganics d. Chloroorganics and chloramines

d. Chloroorganics and chloramines

Which is the most effective disinfectant for inactivating viruses? a. Hypochlorite ion b. Diatomic iodine c. Chloramines d. Chlorine dioxide

d. Chlorine dioxide

Which is the most effective disinfectant for inactivating protozoan cysts? a. Chloramines b. Hypochlorous acid c. Ozone d. Bromine

c. Ozone

Which chemical oxidant would be most effective in removing color and for controlling tastes and odors? a. Ozone b. Potassium permanganate c. Chloramines d. Chlorine

a. Ozone

Which chemical oxidant is the weakest? a. Oxygen b. Ozone c. Potassium permanganate d. Chlorine dioxide

a. Oxygen

Why can hypochlorus acid (HOCl) penetrate bacterial surfaces better than hypochlorite ion (OCl-)? a. Because it is a proton donor b. Because it is an acid c. Because it is a smaller molecule than OCl- despite having a hydrogen atom; the hydrogen atom helps compact the molecule d. Because it is neutral

d. Because it is neutral

Which chlorine compound will produce the least detectable chloronous taste and odor? a. Hypochlorous acid b. Monochloramine c. Dichloramine d. Nitrogen trichloride

b. Monochloramine

Which type of pumps would be the most economical to use if large volumes of sodium hypochlorite were required? a. Chemical feed pumps using piston rods b. Chemical feed pumps using plunger drives c. Centrifugal pumps d. Solenoid-operated pumps

c. Centrifugal pumps

A disadvantage to using chloramines is a. their vulnerability to nitrification b. that they cannot penetrate biofilms in the distribution system c. their propensity to form trihalomethanes d. that their residual persistence in the distribution system is low

a. their vulnerability to nitrification

Where is the best place to add corrosive inhibitors such that disinfection can take place under more advantageous conditions at a conventional water treatment plant? a. Rapid mix basin b. Pre-filter c. Pre-clearwell d. Post clearwell

d. Post clearwell

Which method can be used to control scaling but is never used to control corrosion? a. Chelation b. Controlled CaCO₃ scaling c. Polyphosphate addition d. pH and alkalinity adjustment with lime

a. Chelation

How much more soluble is ozone in water than oxygen? a. 7.6 times b. About 10.0 times c. 12.0 times d. 20.0 times

d. 20.0 times

Which is the most effective ratio of hydrogen peroxide to ozone? a. 1:2 b. 2:5 c. 1:3 d. 1:4

a. 1:2

Which is the chlorine demand of nitrite? a. 2.0 parts chlorine to 1 part nitrite b. 2.5 parts chlorine to 1 part nitrite c. 4.0 parts chlorine to 1 part nitrite d. 5.0 parts chlorine to 1 part nitrite

d. 5.0 parts chlorine to 1 part nitrite

A sodium hypochlorite solution at room temperature will lose which percentage of its available chlorine per month? a. 1 to 2% b. 2 to 4% c. 4 to 6% d. 6 to 8%

b. 2 to 4%

When supplied with air, ozone generators will produce about a. 2% ozone b. 5% ozone c. 7% ozone d. 12% ozone

a. 2% ozone

Which method for chlorine dioxide generation is most likely to have substantial amounts of chlorine in solution? a. Add chlorine to water, then this water to sodium citrate and sodium chlorate b. Add chlorine to water, then this water to hydrochloric acid and sodium chlorate c. Inject chlorine gas under vacuum into stream of chlorite solution d. Add hydrochloric acid to a chlorite solution

b. Add chlorine to water, then this water to hydrochloric acid and sodium chlorate

Which chemical used for stabilitzation of potable water is a bacterial nutrient? a. Polyphosphate b. Lime c. Soda ash d. Sodium bicarbonate

a. Polyphosphate

Once formed, hypochlorus acid instantaneously establishes equilibrium as follows: HOCl H⁺ + OCl- hypochlorus hypoclorite acid ion This equilibrium reaction at 20℃ has which characteristic a. It contains 50% of HOCl and OCl- at a pH of 7.3 b. The reaction depends on concentration c. It responds slowly to pH changes d. It is completely reversible

d. It is completely reversible

Ultraviolet light used in disinfection is generated by mercury or a. germanium b. antimony c. cesium d. cadium

b. antimony

The production of earthy-musty compounds, geosmin, and 2-methylisoborneol (MIB) by cyanobacteria are difficult to remove except when using a. lime b. ozone c. aeration d. filtration

b. ozone

Which chemical oxidant would be most effective for removing synthetic organics? a. Oxygen b. Chlorine c. Chloramines d. Chlorine dioxide

d. Chlorine dioxide

The advantage to using the oxidant oxygen is that it a. is non-corrosive b. has no by-products c. causes small amount of scaling problems d. is a strong oxidant

b. has no by-products

Which method for chlorine dioxide generation is best for large-scale application? a. Add chlorine to water, then this water to sodium citrate and sodium chlorate b. Add chlorine to water, then this water to hydrochloric acid and sodium chlorate c. Inject chlorine gas under vacuum into a stream of chlorite solution d. Add hydrochloric acid to a chlorite solution

c. Inject chlorine gas under vacuum into a stream of chlorite solution

Which is the commercial purity of fluorosilic acid? a. 20 to 30% b. 20 to 40% c. 30 to 40% d. 35 to 48%

a. 20 to 30%

Which type of fluoride chemical should be used in down flow saturators? a. Tablets of sodium fluorosilicate b. Granular sodium silicofluoride c. Crystalline sodium fluoride d. Powdered sodium fluoride

c. Crystalline sodium fluoride

The decomposition products of sodium hypochlorite into chlorate and O₂ would be caused by which factor? a. Temperature b. Metallic impurities c. UV light d. pH

c. UV light

Which are the only two metals that can contact sodium hypochlorite; all other metals must be eliminated from storage vessels, piping, valves, and feed equipment? a. Titanium and tantalum b. Titanium and germanium c. Vanadium and germanium d. Vanadium and selenium

a. Titanium and tantalum

Sites that require chlorine vaporizers typically have a feed rates that exceed a. 450 lb/d b. 800 lb/d c. 1,000 lb/d d. 2,000 lb/d

d. 2,000 lb/d

The deterioration of elastomeres by chloramines is enhanced by a. higher pH b. lower pH c. higher temperatures d. lower temperatures

c. higher temperatures

Most water treatment systems can limit nitrification by a. maintaining a pH of 7.0 to 7.5 b. maintaining a chlorine to ammonia-nitrogen ratio between 4.5:1 and 5.0:1 c. limiting excess free ammonia to below 0.5 mg/L nitrogen d. maintaining temperature between 18 and 28℃

b. maintaining a chlorine to ammonia-nitrogen ratio between 4.5:1 and 5.0:1

If the percentage of chlorine delivered to a water treatment plant in liquid form is 12.5% chlorine, which chemical is it most likely to be? a. Calcium hypochlorite b. Sodium hypochlorite c. Chlorine d. Chlorine dioxide

b. Sodium hypochlorite

How many steps are in the coagulation process? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

a. 3

Polymers used as flocculants are a. water-soluble inorganic electrolytes b. water-insoluble organic polyelectrolytes c. water-insoluble inorganic electrolytes d. water-soluble organic polyelectrolytes

d. water-soluble organic polyelectrolytes

Which is the zeta potential? a. Electrical charge on a suspended particle b. Electrical resistance of a suspended particle c. Electrical potential of a suspended particle d. Electrical charge of a suspended particle as it relates electrochemically to the coagulant being used

a. Electrical charge on a suspended particle

All colloids are a. sols b. hydrophobic c. electrically charged d. emulsoids

c. electrically charged

Collodial particle movement and aggregation caused by thermal energy is called a. orthokinetic flocculation b. parakinetic dynamism c. Brownian movement d. thermodynamic flocculation

c. Brownian movement

When used with alum, which chemical improves coagulation? a. Ferric chloride b. Ferric sulfate c. Sodium aluminate d. Aluminum sulfate

c. Sodium aluminate

The coagulant alum reacts with natural alkalinity in the water forming a. aluminum hydroxide b. aluminum carbonate c. aluminum bicarbonate d. aluminum oxide

a. aluminum hydroxide

When ferric coagulants react with natural alkalinity in the water they form a. ferric hydroxide b. ferric carbonate c. ferric bicarbonate d. ferric oxide

a. ferric hydroxide

Detention time in mechanical mixers usually ranges from a. 5 to 15 seconds b. 15 to 45 seconds c. 1 to 2 minutes d. 2 to 4 minutes

b. 15 to 45 seconds

The aluminum ions in alum neutralize the negatively charged particles in the raw water in about a. 1 to 2 seconds b. 3 to 5 seconds c. 5 to 8 seconds d. 5 to 12 seconds

a. 1 to 2 seconds

Suspended and collodial solids found in natural waters are usually a. positively charged b. negatively charged c. neutral d. polyionic

b. negatively charged

After the oxidation treatment, H₂S in the water turns a milky-blue color because of elemental sulfur (solid sulfur). Which is the best procedure to remove this sulfur? a. Adsorption b. Sedimentation c. Coagulation and filtration d. Lime-soda ash softening

c. Coagulation and filtration

Particles will stay in suspension as long as the a. ionic forces are stronger than the van der Waals forces b. zeta potential is stronger than the van der Waals forces c. van der Waals forces are stronger than the ionic forces d. van der Waals forces are stronger than the zeta potential

b. zeta potential is stronger than the van der Waals forces

The most probable effective ratio of the coagulants aluminum sulfate to hydrated lime is a. 1:1 aluminum sulfate to hydrated lime b. 3:1 aluminum sulfate to hydrated lime c. 5:1 aluminum sulfate to hydrated lime d. 6:1 aluminum sulfate to hydrated lime

b. 3:1 aluminum sulfate to hydrated lime

Which should the "tip speed" of the flocculator be in water, assuming the water is not extremely cold? a. 0.2 ft/sec b. 0.5 ft/sec c. 1.0 ft/sec d. 2.0 ft/sec

c. 1.0 ft/sec

Coagulants consisting of trivalent ions are how much more effective than bivalent ions? a. 50 to 60 times b. 100 to 120 times c. 200 to 250 times d. 1,000 times

a. 50 to 60 times

When tip velocities of the impellers reach speeds greater than _____ localized shearing of floc occurs. a. 6.0 fps b. 8.0 fps c. 10.0 fps d. 10.5 fps

b. 8.0 fps

In the flash mixing process, which type of rapid mixing system has the most significant head loss? a. Mechanical mixers b. Static mixers c. Pumps and conduits d. Baffled chambers

b. Static mixers

When these types of chemicals are used, flash mixing becomes less critical, but thorough mixing (flocculation) remains very important. a. Ferric or ferrous chloride b. Aluminum sulfates c. Lime, soda ash, or caustic soda d. Polymers

d. Polymers

Weighing agents are used primarily to treat water that is a. low in color and mineral content and high turbidity b. high in color and mineral content and low in turbidity c. low in turbidity and mineral content and high in color d. high in turbidity and mineral content and low in color

c. low in turbidity and mineral content and high in color

The flash mixing process that has the best control features are a. mechanical mixers b. static mixers c. pumps and conduits d. baffled chambers

a. mechanical mixers

The zeta potential on a particular sample of water is +2. The degree of coagulation is best described as a. poor b. fair c. excellant d. maximum

d. maximum

The most effective ratio of the coagulant ferric sulfate to the oxidant chlorine is a. 2:1 ferric sulfate to chlorine b. 4:1 ferric sulfate to chlorine c. 5:1 ferric sulfate to chlorine d. 8:1 ferric sulfate to chlorine

d. 8:1 ferric sulfate to chlorine

Mixing of a coagulant is least influenced by flow when using a. a static mixer b. a baffled chamber c. a pump (adding coagulant on suction side) d. pipe grids that have been perforated

c. a pump (adding coagulant on suction side)

When alum or ferric coagulants are used to treat water, the reactions are governed by all the following. Which one is critical to floc formation? a. Initial application at point of highest mixing intensity b. Temperature and ratio of turbidity to coagulant c. Alkalinity d. Amount of turbidity

a. Initial application at point of highest mixing intensity

Seimentation depends on a. size of flocculated particles b. gravity c. the depth of the basin d. the type of coagulant used

b. gravity

Most clarifiers are designed to have a theoretical detention time of about _____ when the plant is at its maximum flow. a. 1 hour b. 2 hours c. 3 hours d. 4 hours

d. 4 hours

Which percentage of source water turbidity do sedimentation basins typically remove? a. 80% or more b. 90% or more c. 95% or more d. 96% or more

b. 90% or more

How many zones are defined in all sedimentation basins? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

b. 4

Which sedimentation zone is particularly affected by the other zones? a. Influent zone b. Settling zone c. Effluent zone d. Sludge zone

b. Settling zone

The material that accumulates on the surface of a dissolved-air flotation unit is called a. scum b. sludge c. float d. floc cake

c. float

At what rate are overflow rates from outlet weirs of conventional basins commonly designed not to exceed? a. 10,000 gpd/ft b. 20,000 gpd/ft c. 25,000 gpd/ft d. 30,000 gpd/ft

b. 20,000 gpd/ft

Name the two major areas in solids-contact clarifiers. a. Reaction and settling zones b. Reaction and mixing zones c. Mixing and settling zones d. Sludge and reaction zones

c. Mixing and settling zones

Lamella plates are usually inclined a. 20.0 to 30.0 degrees b. 33.7 degrees c. 55.0 degrees d. 67.7 degrees

c. 55.0 degrees

Which high rate process has the objective of producing pin-sized floc? a. Tube settlers b. Superpulsators c. Actiflo process d. Dissolved air flotation

d. Dissolved air flotation

Slime growth in uncovered sedimentation basins can be eliminated by coating the walls with a. copper sulfate and lime b. copper sulfate c. lime and potassium permanganate d. copper sulfate and potassium permanganate

a. copper sulfate and lime

Which is the most probable result of high winds on a sedimentation basin? a. Sheared floc b. Short-circuiting c. Density currents d. Floc will be partially resuspended and it will be more difficult to settle floc

b. Short-circuiting

How often is the vent valve opened to release the vacuum that produces pulsating energy in a pulsator clarifier? a. Every 5 to 10 seconds b. Every 40 to 50 seconds c. Every 2 to 3 minutes d. Every 4 to 6 minutes

b. Every 40 to 50 seconds

Typically, the time between backwashing of Trident contact adsorption clarifiers averages a. 4 to 8 hours b. 16 to 24 hours c. 1 to 2 days d. 3 to 5 days

a. 4 to 8 hours

Which will result if the influent water to a sedimentation basin contains more suspended solids than the water in the basin? a. Too much sludge will settle at the inlet of the basin b. Poor floc formation c. Septic conditions will began to occur d. Density current

d. Density current

Horizontal tube settlers a. are actually inclined about 5 degrees b. work independently with the downstream filter(s) c. require jet sprayers to clean the collected sludge out of the tubes d. have high maintenance requirements due to frequent cleaning

a. are actually inclined about 5 degrees

Which high rate process applies a vacuum? a. Tube settlers b. Superpulsators c. Actiflo process d. Dissolved air flotation

c. Actiflo process

Dissolved air flotation has a _____ removal of Cryptosporidium oocysts. a. 0.5-log b. 1.0-log c. 1.5-log d. 2.0-log

d. 2.0-log

In dissolved-air flotation units, mechanical rubber scrappers travel over the tank surface and push the float over a ramp called a a. trap b. beach c. launder d. loading plate

b. beach

Which is the most effective method of reducing nematode concentrations in surface water treatment plants? a. Coagulation b. Free chlorine c. Rapid sand filters d. Settling

d. Settling

Which is the angle of inclination from the horizontal for the plates in a superpulsator clarifier? a. 30 degrees b. 33 degrees c. 45 degrees d. 60 degrees

d. 60 degrees

Which high rate process has the highest surface overflow rate? a. Tube settlers b. Superpulsators c. Actiflo process d. Dissolved air flotation

c. Actiflo process

How high can surface overflow rates for the Actiflo process reach? a. 8 gpm/ft² b. 12 gpm/ft² c. 16 gpm/ft² d. 20 gpm/ft²

c. 16 gpm/ft²

Which is the best process for the removal of radium (226 and 228)? a. Anion exchange b. Coagulation, sedimentation, and filtration c. Aeration and stripping d. Chemical oxidation

b. Coagulation, sedimentation, and filtration

Manganese greensand filters can be regenerated by using a. a surface wash and an air-water backwash b. brine water during backwashing c. potassium permanganate solution during backwashing d. first a brine solution during the first backwashing cycle followed by potassium permanganate solution for the second backwash cycle

c. potassium permanganate solution during backwashing

Which material is manganese greensand and which is the coating? a. Quartz sand coated with manganese hydroxide [Mn(OH)₂] b. Garnet sand coated with manganese dioxide [MnO₂] c. Ilmenite sand coated with manganese hydroxide d. Glauconite sand coated with manganese dioxide

d. Glauconite sand coated with manganese dioxide

Which is the layer of solids and biological growth that forms on the top of a slow sand filter? a. Biosolids film b. Bio-carbonated scale layer c. Schmutzdecke d. Saprophytic layer

c. Schmutzdecke

Which filter type utilizes pressure for filtration? a. Diatomaceous earth filter b. High-rate filter c. Rapid sand filter d. Deep-bed monmedium

a. Diatomaceous earth filter

Slow sand filter runs can be as long as a. 3 months b. 4 months c. 6 months d. 1 year

c. 6 months

Gravity rapid sand filters can have head losses as high as a. 6 ft. b. 8 ft. c. 10 ft. d. 12 ft.

b. 8 ft.

Which group of algae is usually associated with "blinding filters"? a. Green algae b. Blue-green algae c. Pigmented flagellates d. Diatoms

d. Diatoms

Depending on water temperature, which is the typical backwashing flow rate for a manganese greensand filter bed? a. 7 to 8 gpm/ft² b. 8 to 10 gpm/ft² c. 10 to 12 gpm/ft² d. 12 to 14 gpm/ft²

c. 10 to 12 gpm/ft²

The typical filter run time for a high-rate filter system is a. 8 hours b. 24 hours c. 48 hours d. 72 hours

b. 24 hours

Below are four membrane technologies. Which is the correct sequence from larger to smaller pore sizes? a. Microfiltration, reverse osmosis, ultrafiltration, and nanofiltration b. Microfiltration, ultrafiltration, nanofiltration, and reverse osmosis c. Reverse osmosis, ultrafiltration, microfiltration, and nanofiltration d. Ultrafiltration, microfiltration, reverse osmosis, and nanofiltration

b. Microfiltration, ultrafiltration, nanofiltration, and reverse osmosis

Optimum water quality in manganese greensand filters can be attained by backwashing and regenerating the greensand before the effluent manganese level goes above a. 0.02 mg/L b. 0.05 mg/L c. 0.10 mg/L d. 0.12 mg/L

b. 0.05 mg/L

Granular media filters should remove suspended solids including iron and manganese greater than a. 10 µm b. 15 µm c. 20 µm d. 25 µm

a. 10 µm

Which filter media material is given an abrasive number? a. Garnet b. Activated carbon c. Sand d. Greensand

b. Activated carbon

Which is the typical filtration rate for high-rate filters? a. 0.5 to 2.0 gpm/ft² b. 3.0 to 12.0 gpm/ft² c. 15.0 to 20.0 gpm/ft² d. >25.0 gpm/ft²

b. 3.0 to 12.0 gpm/ft²

After backwashing and stratifying newly installed manganese greensand, approximately which percentage of the greensand should skimmed off? a. 3% b. 5% c. 8 to 9% d. 12 to 15%

c. 8 to 9%

The media in a slow sand filter is a. stratified fine. b. stratified medium c. stratified coarse d. unstratified

d. unstratified

Clumping of filter media or ion exchange resin is caused by a. electrostatic charges b. media or resin breakdown, respectively c. temperature and pH of the clay in the water d. iron manganese oxides reacting with the coagulant

a. electrostatic charges

Backwash water is which percentage of the totaled filtered water in a conventional rapid sand filter system? a. 1% b. 2 to 4% c. 5 to 6% d. 6 to 10%

b. 2 to 4%

Why does anthracite always stay on top of sand during backwashing? a. Because the grain sizes are smaller b. Because it is lighter and less dense c. Because of its shape d. Because of its porosity

b. Because it is lighter and less dense

The length of filter runs for manganese greensand filters can be increased by a. adding a high molecular weight polymer filter aid b. keeping the pH above 9.0 and lowering it after filtration c. keeping the pH below 7.3 and raising it after filtration d. adding a layer of anthracite above the greensand

d. adding a layer of anthracite above the greensand

Which is the most common type of valves used on filters? a. Gate b. Globe c. Butterfly d. Ball

c. Butterfly

Manganese greensand removes manganese and iron by a combination of a. adsorption and oxidation b. adsorption and absorption c. adsorption and precipitate screening d. absorption and precipitate screening

a. adsorption and oxidation

Which is the best means to remove Giardia lamblia? a. Coagulation, flocculation, and filtration b. Ion exchange c. Powdered activated carbon d. Activated alumina

a. Coagulation, flocculation, and filtration

Which is the best method for removing trihalomethanes precursors? a. Reverse osmosis b. Powdered activated carbon c. Lime softening d. Aeration and stripping

a. Reverse osmosis

Reverse osmosis membranes will compact faster a. with higher iron content b. with higher temperature c. with higher chlorine d. if the pH is greater than 8.5

b. with higher temperature

Which is the best method for the removal of arsenic (+3)? a. Reverse osmosis b. Coagulation, sedimentation, and filtration c. Cation exchange d. Activated alumina

a. Reverse osmosis

Which is the filtration rate for filters with granular activated carbon as a medium? a. 0.5 to 1.0 gpm/ft² b. 2.0 gpm/ft² c. 4.0 gpm/ft² d. 5.0 to 6.0 gpm/ft²

b. 2.0 gpm/ft²

When manganese greensand filters are run in the continuous regeneration mode [continous regeneration of the MnO₂(s) surfaces], the free chlorine residual in the filter effluent should be kept at a. 0.50 mg/L b. 1.00 mg/L c. 1.20 mg/L d. 1.75 mg/L

a. 0.50 mg/L

The sorption kinetics and sorption capacity of Mn (II) by MnOx(s)-coated filter media increase with a. increasing solution pH b. decreasing alkalinity c. increasing alkalinity d. decreasing temperature

a. increasing solution pH

Direct filtration is used to treat raw water that has average turbidities a. below 10 ntu b. up to 25 ntu c. 40 to 50 ntu d. above 50 ntu

b. up to 25 ntu

Diatomaceous earth filters a. have a relatively high installation cost b. have relatively high operating costs c. are used only for water with low turbidity d. produce very little backwash sludge

c. are used only for water with low turbidity

Besides regenerating manganese greensand beds, potassium permanganate will also regenerate a. anthracite filter beds b. granular activated carbon beds c. pyrolusite filter beds d. polystyrene upflow clarifier beds

c. pyrolusite filter beds

Why is there a limited effect of organic absorption when granular activated carbon (GAC) is used as a filter medium above the sand layer? a. GAC has a low porosity b. GAC repels much of the organics due to the attached coagulants c. Backwashing does not remove the organics absorbed over time nor does it regenerate the GAC d. The water being filtered has limited contact time with the GAC

d. The water being filtered has limited contact time with the GAC

An advantage of a variable declining-rate filtration system is that a. it does not require a loss-of-head indicator b. it does not require a rate-of-flow controller c. individual filters keep a constant filtration rate d. flow rate changes do not impact the system

b. it does not require a rate-of-flow controller

Which is the probable solution if chironomids can be seen in the finished water? a. Increase chlorination and backwash b. Isolate distribution are, superchlorinate, flush mains and customer lines c. Add powdered activated carbon to the filters, then backwash d. Use chloramines, or, if already using, temporarily increase by 100%

a. Increase chlorination and backwash

Which should be determined first before an in-gound sedimentation tank is drained? a. The solids content b. The hazardous metals content c. Sludge volume and volume of process area to make sure it will be large enough d. Water table level

d. Water table level

Which is the recommended number of solar drying lagoons? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

b. 3

Which sludge dewatering process has a low consumption of energy, is easy to operate, has small land requirements, and can produce a dry filter cake of between 35 and 40% solids? a. Centrifuge b. Vacuum filters c. Filter press d. Belt filter press

a. Centrifuge

Which sludge dewatering process requires a precoat of diatomaceous earth and its use has declined due to other newer methods? a. Centrifuge b. Vacuum filters c. Filter press d. Belt filter press

b. Vacuum Filters

Which sludge dewatering process is best for alum sludges (which are difficult to dewater) when the cakes are very dry, filtrate is clear, and solids capture is very high? a. Centrifuge b. Vacuum filters c. Filter press d. Belt filter press

c. Filter press

Softener resin is regenerated by passing a sufficient volume and concentration of which through the resin bed? a. Caustic soda b. Dilute hydrochloric acid c. Brine d. Sodium sulfate

c. Brine

Sequestration is a process in which iron and manganese are a. precipitated with a chemical, but not filtered out of the water b. kept in solution by certain chemicals c. oxidized and thus made insoluble d. reduced and thus made insoluble

b. kept in solution by certain chemicals

Which chemical is often used with lime softening? a. Ferric chloride b. Ferric sulfate c. Sodium aluminate d. Sodium silicate

b. Ferric sulfate

If sequestration of iron and manganese is used, the chlorine residual in the waer system should always be maintained at or above a. 0.2 mg/L b. 0.4 mg/L c. 0.5 mg/L d. 1.0 mg/L

a. 0.2 mg/L

Which must be added for the magnesium carbonate hardness in the softening process? a. Lime b. Two times as much lime c. Soda ash d. Lime and soda ash

b. Two times as much lime

Which must be added for magnesium noncarbonated hardness in the softening process? a. Lime b. 2 times as much lime c. Soda ash d. Lime and soda ash

d. Lime and soda ash

Once the ion-exchange resin can no longer remove hardness, it is said to be a. wasted b. consumed c. expended d. exhausted

d. exhausted

Which of the following is the most effective method for the removal of hardness? a. Granular activated carbon b. Lime softening c. Anion exchange d. Coagulation, sedimentation, and filtration

b. Lime softening

When should polyphosphates be added to the process to control iron and manganese? a. 20 to 30 minutes before chlorine addition b. A few minutes before chlorine application c. At the same time as chlorine application d. 20 to 30 minutes after chlorine addition

b. a few minutes before chlorine application

The major advantage for using activated silica is that it will a. reduce sensitivity to pH changes b. inhibit bacterial growth c. increase alkalinity d. strengthen the floc

d. strengthen the floc

Which chemical is used to stabilize water after it has been lime-softened? a. Sulfuric acid b. Carbon dioxide c. Sodium hydroxide d. Zinc orthophosphate

b. Carbon dioxide

Sodium polyphosphate a. will produce a protective coating b. will increase pH and alkalinity c. is a sequestering agent d. little or no noncarbonated hardness

c. is a sequestering agent

Usually, raw water can be softened with lime alone when it contains a. mostly calcium hardness b. mostly magnesium hardness c. very little carbonate hardness d. little or no noncarbonated hardness

d. little or no noncarbonated hardness

In the lime-soda ash softening process, the soda ash dosage is based a. only on carbonate and magnesium hardness to be removed b. on carbonate hardness and carbon dioxide to be removed c. primarily on noncarbonated and magnesium hardness d. only on the amount of noncarbonated hardness to be removed

d. only on the amount of noncarbonated hardness to be removed

Powdered activated carbon is usually added to the treatment process a. before the normal coagulation-flocculation step b. before the sedimentation basin c. after the sedimentation basin d. in the filters

a. before the normal coagulation-flocculation step

Softening resin exchanges what for the calcium and magnesium that it removes from the water? a. Sodium b. Hydroxide c. Potassium d. Hydrogen ions (H+)

a. Sodium

Sequestration of iron and manganese prevents them from being a. oxidized and made insoluble b. reduced and made insoluble c. reduced and made soluble d. utilized by bacteria

a. oxidized and made insoluble

Ion exchange processes can typically be used for direct groundwater treatment as long as turbidity and ______ levels are not excessive. a. calcium carbonate b. iron c. carbon dioxide d. sodium sulfate

b. iron

Which color is oxidized iron? a. yellow b. brown c. red d. dark brown

c. red

Recarbonation after lime-soda ash softening is required to remove calcium carbonate that is in suspension to prevent a. deposition of the calcium carbonate in the clear well and distribution system b. scale formation in distribution system c. custormer complaints of turbidity and color d. cementation of filter media

d. cementation of filter media

Which chemical will cause corrosion if overfeeding occurs? a. Sodium hydroxide b. Carbon dioxide c. Sodium hexametaphosphate d. Tetrasodium polyphosphate

b. Carbon dioxide

Which would be the best chemical treatment or method to use to effectively reduce the concentration of taste-and-odor compounds caused by actinomycetes species? a. Activated carbon adsorption b. Chlorine c. Potassium permanganate d. Chlorine dioxide

a. Activated carbon adsorption

The process of decomposing a substance by electricity is called a. cathodic corrosion b. galvanic corrosion c. electrolysis d. ionization

c. electrolysis

Sequestration is effective only for groundwater that has relatively low levels of dissolved iron and manganese and a. no dissolved oxygen b. no carbonate hardness c. is slightly acidic d. is slightly basic

a. no dissolved oxygen

Which treatment procedure should be followed after a well has been shock chlorinated? a. An alkaline neutralization solution should be added b. Oxygen gas should be bubbled throughout the well water c. A dissolution-dispersion step using acidification and surfactants d. Three well volumes should be purged to flush the well and reduce the chlorine concentration

c. A dissolution-dispersion stemp using acidification and surfactants

Which type of hardness usually calls for a two-stage softening process? a. Calcium hardness above 100 mg/L b. Magnesium hardness c. Noncarbonated hardness d. Carbonate hardness

c. Noncarbonated hardness

The activated alumina process is sensitive to a. humic substances b. pH c. high total dissolved solids d. fluoride

b. pH

How much will the alkalinity of the treated water increase for each mg/L of lime added? a. 0.42 mg/L b. 0.64 mg/L c. 1.00 mg/L d. 1.28 mg/L

d. 1.28 mg/L

When should core samples be collected from filters using granular activated carbon? a. Every six months b. At the time of installation and every six months thereafter c. Every year after installation d. At the time of installation and every year thereafter

b. At the time of installation and every six month thereafter

Which of the following is the best process to remove lead? a. Activated alumina b. Anion exchange c. Chemical oxidation d. Lime softening

d. Lime softening

The ion exchange softening process does not alter which properties of the water? a. Chloride and bromide concentrations b. pH and alkalinity c. Heavy metals concentrations d. Nitrogen and phophorus concentrations

b. pH and alkalinity

A flocculant is required for iron removal if most of the iron passes through a _____ filter membrane> a. 5 µm b. 10 µm c. 15 µm d. 20 µm

a. 5 µm

Which would be the most probable solution to control algae in the water plant if the algae were clogging the filters? a. Add copper sulfate before the filters b. Use activated carbon c. Increase backwashing rate and frequency d. Add a long chain polymer filter aid

b. Use activated carbon

Activated silica is prepared by the water treatment operator. Which is the actual chemical that is delivered to the water treatment plant? a. Na₂SiO₃ b. Ca₂SiO₄ c. Al₂SiO₅ d. K₂SiO₃

a. Na₂SiO₃

Raw water requires both lime and soda ash when there are nominal amounts of which type of hardness is the water? a. Magnesium hardness b. Iron hardness c. Calcium hardness d. Manganese hardness

a. Magnesium hardness

The double-stage process in excess-lime softening a. causes greater removal of iron b. accomplishes greater removal of magnesium c. eliminates the need for soda ash for removing noncarbonated hardness d. removes the recarbonation requirement

b. accomplishes greater removal of magnesium

The reaction CO₂ + Ca(OH)₂→ CaCO₃ + H₂O is complete when the pH reaches a. 7.6 b. 8.0 c. 8.3 d. 8.5

c. 8.3

Trihalomethanes can form along with other disinfectant by-products due to lime, excess lime, or lime soda ash softening of water because of the a. temperature produced in the process increasing chemical reactions b. high pH that is required to operate the process c. coagulants used along with the softening process d. gases produced in the process reacting with organics acids in the water

b. high pH that is required to operate the process

When backwashing an ion exchange unit, how much should the bed expand from water introduced from the bottom of the ion exchange column? a. 25 to 35% b. 35 to 50% c. 50 to 75% d. 75 to 85%

c. 50 to 75%

Which bed expansion during backwashing must be achieved for filters using granular activated carbon? a. 20% b. 25% c. 30% d. 50%

d. 50%

Which type of aerator causes aeration to occur in splash areas and can be used to oxidize iron and to partially reduce dissolved gases? a. Slat-and-coke-tray aerator b. Packed tower c. Cascade aerator d. Cone aerator

c. Cascade aerator

Which type of aerator is much more efficient in removing dissolved gases and for oxidizing iron and manganese? a. Packed tower b. Slat-and-coke-tray aerator c. Cascade aerator d. Draft aerator

d. Draft aerator

The lime-soda ash softening process is enhanced best with which other application? a. Increase alkalinity with caustic soda b. Aeration c. Solids-contact unit d. Oxidation with chlorine

c. Solids-contact unit

After first stage recarbonation, which is almost completely dissolved? a. Calcium crystals b. Calcium carbonate crystals c. Magnesium crystals d. Magnesium carbonate crystals

b. Calcium carbonate crystals

Which are the exchange capacities of natural zeolites? a. 1 to 2 kilograins/ft³ b. 3 to 5 kilograins/ft³ c. 5 to 8 kilograins/ft³ d. 9 to 12 kilograins/ft³

b. 3 to 5 kilograins/ft³

Which best describes the purpose of granular activated carbon? a. Particulate removal and particulate adsorption b. Particulate screening and particulate absorption c. Particulate absorption and particulate removal d. Particulate adsorption and particulate absorption

a. Particulate removal and particulate adsorption

Which is the best process for removing trihalomethanes? a. Activated alumina b. Coagulation, sedimaentation, and filtration c. Anion exchange d. Aeration and stripping

d. Aeration and stripping

The most common cation exchange resins are a. weak-base resins b. strong-base resins c. weak-acid resins d. strong-acid resins

d. strong-acid resins

Sequestration of iron and manganese is usually not recommended for waters where the concentration of iron, manganese, or both exceeds a. 1.0 mg/L b. 2.0 mg/L c. 3.0 mg/L d. 5.0 mg/L

a. 1.0 mg/L

Which coagulant aids use extremely small dosages? a. Polyelectrolytes b. Activated alumina c. Weighing agents d. Aluminum chloro-hydrate (ACH)

a. Polyelectrolytes

The design parameter for predicting granular activated carbon (GAC) performance is called a. empty-bed contact time b. GAC saturation point c. GAC potential d. GAC saturation potential

a. empty-bed contact time

Which is the most effective method for the removal of synthetic organic chemicals? a. Lime softening b. Granular activated carbon c. Aeration and stripping d. Chemical oxidation

b. Granular activated carbon

Which is the most effective process for removing radon? a. Reverse osmosis b. Aeration and stripping c. Activated alumina d. Coagulation, sedimentation, and filtration

b. Aeration and stripping

Lime softening in the presence of calcium and magnesium sill form which magnesium precipitate? a. MgSO⁴ b. MgCO₃ c. Mg(OH)₂ d. MgCO₂

c. Mg(OH)₂

The cartridge filters that are sometimes used immediately between reverse osmosis units should be replaced when the difference in pressure between the inlet and outlet gauges reaches a. 10 b. 15 c. 25 d. 30

b. 15

Which is the problem if a sequestering agent does not suppress color and/or turbidity appears? a. Chlorine is being fed too far ahead of the sequestering agent b. Chlorine is being fed too close to the sequestering agent c. Lime or soda ash is being fed too far ahead of the sequestering agent d. Lime or soda ash is being fed too close to the sequestering agent

a. Chlorine is being fed too far ahead of the sequestering agent

The performance of sodium silicate in the sequestration of iron is reduced with a. increasing temperatures b. low pH values c. high pH values d. increasing levels of calcium and magnesium

d. increasing levels of calcium and magnesium

Chose the most effective means of removing toxins produced by cyanobacteria. a. Oxidation with potassium permanganate followed by lime-softening b. Aeration and oxidation with chlorine c. Conventional treatment-coagulation-flocculation, sedimentation, filtration, and disinfection d. Activated carbon and ozone

d. Activated carbon and ozone

Biological treatment of water using microbes has which disadvantage? a. Increased chlorine demand b. Effluent water conducive to microbial growth in the distribution system c. Risk of introduction of pathogenic microorganisms into the finished water if not properly designed d. Production of tastes and odors in the finished water if not properly maintained

c. Risk of introduction of pathogenic micoroorganisms into the finished water if not properly designed

The concentration of solids in the lower level of a sludge blanket in a softening facility's solid contact basin should be a. 2 to 7% b. 5 to 15% c. 15 to 20% d. 25 to 30%

b. 5 to 15%

Activated silica for anion removal is most efficient when the a. temperature is above 12℃ b. total dissolved solids are below 300 mg/L c. total dissolved solids are below 500 mg/L d. pH is lower than 8.2

d. pH is lower than 8.2

In the ion exchange softening process, how mch will the total dissolved solids increase for each 1 mg/L of calcium removed and replaced by sodium? a. 0.15 mg/L b. 0.28 mg/L c. 0.40 mg/L d. 0.56 mg/L

a. 0.15 mg/L

In ion exchange, a bumping order based on valence exists. Which would be the preferred ion? a. Aluminum b. Calcium c. Sodium d. Hydrogen

a. Aluminum

Which is the most probable cause of tastes and odors persisting or getting worse when powdered activated carbon (PAC) is used? a. PAC is added at the inlet b. PAC is added during flocculation c. PAC and chlorine are added too close to each other d. PAC is added to water with too high an alkalinity

c. PAC and chlorine are added too close to each other

Which is the normal air-to-water ratio at peak flow in a packed tower aerator? a. 10:1 b. 15:1 c. 25:1 d. 35:1

c. 25:1

Precipitation softening water treatment facilities that do not recarbonate need to a. monitor filters for carbonate deposition b. add more coagulants c. add more coagulants and disinfectants d. have longer sedimentation detention times

a. monitor filters for carbonate deposition

After granular activated carbon (GAC) has all adsorption sites filled, which option(s) should be taken? a. Replace or recatalyze the GAC b. Recharge the GAC c. Reactivate followed by recharging the adsorption sites on the GAC d. Replace or reactivate the GAC

d. Replace or reactivate the GAC

Which is the most efficient process for removing organic mercury? a. Coagulation, sedimentation, and filtration b. Lime softening c. Activated alumina d. Granular activated carbon

d. Granular activated carbon

Which is the most efficient process for the removal of nitrate? a. Strong base anion exchange b. Granular activated carbon c. Chemical oxidation d. Coagulation, sedimentation, and filtration

a. Strong base anion exchange

When activated carbon is used to remove natural organic matter, it should be used a. after filtration b. after settling c. before chlorine addition d. in conjunction with a lime slurry

c. before chlorine addition

The cross section of the (repeating) layers in an electrodialysis membrane would be as follows: a. Cation permeable membrane, nonionic permeable membrane, cation permeable membrane b. Cation permeable membrane, nonionic permeable membrane, anion permeable membrane c. Cation permeable membrane, plastic spacer, cation permeable membrane d. Cation permeable membrane, plastic spacer, anion permeable membrane

d. Cation permeable membrane, plastic spacer, anion permeable membrane

An electrodialysis system will operate at temperatures as high as a. 78℉ b. 88℉ c. 100℉ d. 110℉

d. 110℉

In the operation of an electrodialysis system, the most commonly encountered problem is a. leaky membranes b. broken membranes c. scaling or membrane fouling d. the associated pumping equipment

c. scaling or membrane fouling

Which catalytic agent transforms chromium-3 into chromium-6 in the distribution system? a. High pH b. Phosphates c. Organics d. Oxidants

d. Oxidants

Which is the best method for analysis of hexavalent chromium (chromium-6)? a. Ion chromatography b. Atomic absorption c. Sulfuric acid-nitric acid digestion d. Titration using 0.02N silver nitrate

a. Ion chromatography

Turbidity analyses on samples should be measured a. as soon as possible b. within 2 hours c. withing 4 hours d. within 8 hours

a. as soon as possible

Which sample quantity should be collected for a hardness analyses? a. 100 mL b. 250 mL c. 500 mL d. 1,000 mL

a. 100 mL

Which is the minimum size turbidity sample that should be collected? a. 10 mL b. 25 mL c. 100 mL d. 250 mL

c. 100 mL

Which sample should not be collected in a glass container? a. Haloacetic acid b. Fluoride c. Trihalomethanes d. Volatile organic compounds

b. Fluoride

Bacteriological sample storage refrigerator temperatures should range from a. -5 to 5℃ b. 0 to 2℃ c. 1 to 5℃ d. 5 to 8℃

c. 1 to 5℃

How long can a preserved sample that is to be analyzed for manganese content be stored? a. 24 hours b. 48 hours c. 7 days d. 6 months

d. 6 months

Samples to be analyzed for manganese are preserved with a. nitric acid b. citric acid c. sulfuric acid d. phophoric acid

a. nitric acid

In the total coliform Colisure test, if coliforms are present, the special medium will turn a. yellow to brown b. red to purple c. yellow d. brown

b. red to purple

Which is the chemical formula for ammonia? a. NH b. NH₂ c. NH₃ d. NH₄

c. NH₃

Electrically charged atoms such as Na⁺ and Cl⁻ are called a. cations b. ions c. radicals d. compounds

b. ions

How often should a softening treatment plant analyze for hardness? a. Every 4 hours b. Every 8 hours c. Every 12 hours d. Daily

d. Daily

Which test would be used to determine total alkalinity? a. Marble test b. Phenolphthalein test c. Methyl orange test d. Violet-green test

c. Methyl orange test

Which method is used to calculate the calcium carbonate stability of water? a. Marble test b. Langelier Index c. Alkalinity test d. Calcium carbonate solubility index

b. Langelier Index

Who is responsible for sample preservation? a. The sampler b. The laboratory technician c. The laboratory analyst d. The laboratory supervisor

a. The sampler

If hardness samples need to be stored, which preservative should be used? a. Sulfuric acid b. Nitric acid c. Hydrochloric acid d. Acetic acid

b. Nitric acid

How long can samples be held for fluoride analysis? a. 24 hours b. 5 days c. 7 days d. 1 month

c. 7 days

Which water quality parameter can be properly determined by collecting a composite sample? a. Zinc b. pH c. Chlorine residual d. Dissolved gases

a. Zinc

Water that is to be anlyzed for inorganic metals should be acidified to a pH that is a. <4.5 pH units

a. <2.0 pH units

Nematodes are a. small snails b. insects c. roundworms d. pelecypods

c. roundworms

An actinomycetes bacterial colony on an agar plate would have a a. smooth dull rounded appearance b. smooth, shiny mucous-like appearance c. dull powdery appearance with fuzzy border d. smooth mucous-like appearance with an irregular border

c. dull powdery appearance with fuzzy border

Which level of threshold odor number (TON) will result in customer complaints? a. 5 TON b. 7 TON c. 8 TON d. 10 TON

a. 5 TON

Suspended solids that are referred to as settleable solids will settle unaided to the bottom of a sedimentation basin within a. 2 hours b. 4 hours c. 6 hours d. 8 hours

b. 4 hours

Which would be considered very hard water measured in mg/L as CaCO₃ for the Sawyer, Briggs, or Ficke classification? a. >120 mg/L b. >160 mg/L c. >180 mg/L d. >300 mg/L

d. >300 mg/L

Water that is too soft will cause a. calcium scale b. carbonate scale c. soap scum d. water spots

c. soap scum

Why is it important to measure total organic carbon (TOC)? a. TOC correlates with production of disinfection by-products b. TOC indicates the relative amounts of bacterial contamination c. TOC indicates the relative amounts of microbial activity d. TOC increases biofouling on the filters

a. TOC correlates with production of disinfection by-products

Which element is found in all acids? a. Hydrogen b. Carbon c. Oxygen d. Chlorine

a. Hydrogen

When a base reacts with an oxide of a nonmetal it will produce a. a salt b. an acid c. a hydroxide d. a binary acid

a. a salt

When anhydrides react with water they produce a. bases and oxides b. acids and hydroxides c. oxides and acids d. acids or bases

b. acids and hydroxides

Oxides of nonmetals in water will a. cause acidity b. cause alkalinity c. produce amphiprotic compounds d. produce neutral compounds

a. cause acidity

Which formula is correct for the Langelier Index? a. LI = -log(alkalinity) + TDS/log(CaCO₃) b. LI = pH - pHs c. LI = Alkalinity + TDS - log(pH) d. LI = Temperature + calcium content - log(alkalinity)

b. LI = pH - pHs

Giardia lamblia species are a. viruses b. bacteria c. protozoans d. metazoans

c. protozoans

The specific gravity of water is based on using a temperature of a. 0℃ b. 4℃ c. 20℃ d. 25℃

b. 4℃

Jar testing procedures are applicable to a. conventional treatment b. sludge blanket clarifiers c. upflow clarifiers d. conventional softening

a. conventional treatment

The incubation time for the membrane filter method is a. 18 hours b. 24 hours c. 36 hours d. 48 hours

b. 24 hours

Which type of glassware is used in dispensing solutions during titration? a. Mohr pipette b. Burette c. Volumetric pipette d. Kjeldahl flask

b. Burette

Samples confirmed in the presence-absence test must also be tested for a. Salmonella b. Shigella c. Eschericia coli d. Giardia lamblia

c. Eschericia coli

Which should the heterotrophic plate count value be in water that has been properly treated? a.

Why should a jar test procedure be done as quickly as possible after collecting the raw water sample? a. Changes in dissolved gases will significantly affect results b. Changes in pH will significantly affect results c. Changes in temperature will significantly affect results d. Changes in alkalinity will significantly affect results

c. Changes in temperature will significantly affect results

Which is the preferred method of hardness analysis? a. Titration with 0.50 normal hdrochloric acid solution b. Titration with 0.02 normal sulfuric acid solution with methyl blue indicator c. Titration with ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid d. Titration with acetic acid

c. Titration with ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid

Which method is used for fluoride analysis? a. Acid titration b. Caustic titration c. SPADNS d. EDTA

c. SPADNS

When EDTA is added to a sample being tested for hardness, the end point causes the dye in the sample to change to a. red b. yellow c. blue d. pink

c. blue

Which type of pipette has a single ring near the top? a. Mohr pipette b. Transfer pipette c. Koch pipette d. Standard pipette

b. Transfer pipette

Titration for alkalinity analyses uses which one of the following to determine the end point? a. pH meter b. Colorimeter c. Methylene red d. Methylene di-amine

a. pH meter

The number of grains per gallon (gpg) can be converted to mg/L hardness by a. multiplying by 17.12 b. multiplying by 17.72 c. dividing by 17.12 d. dividing by 17.72

a. multiplying 17.12

Hardness samples that have been acidified can be stored for a. 2 days b. 5 days c. 7 days d. 28 days

d. 28 days

Which type of bottle should be used and how should it be cleaned for taste and odor samples? a. Plastic, cleaned with detergent and rinsed with de-ionized water b. New glass bottles only c. Glass bottles, cleaned with detergent and rinsed with distilled water d. New glass or plastic bottles only, rinsed with de-ionized water

c. Glass bottles, cleaned with detergent and rinsed with distilled water

After a sample to be analyzed for manganese has been acidified, its pH must be a. < 2 pH units b. < 3 pH units c. < 4 pH units d. < 5 pH units

a. < 2 pH units

Conductivity (as it pertains to water) is a. the measure of ions in the water and is indirectly proportional to the number of free electrons in solution b. the measure of the positive and negative metals ions in water c. the measure of a solution's ionic strength and an indirect measure of the total dissolved solids d. the measure of the electrical strength, and is directly proportional to the number of free electrons in the water

c. the measure of a solution's ionic strength and indirect measure of the total dissolved solids

When should a water treatment plant take aciton on odors in finished water? a. 1 TON b. 3 TON c. 5 TON d. 8 TON

b. 3 TON

Dissolved metals in a water sample are considered to be metals that are a. unacidified and pass through a 0.25 µm membrane b. acidified and pass through a 0.25 µm membrane c. unacidified and pass through 0.45 µm membrane d. acidified and pass through a 0.45 µm membrane

c. unacidified and pass through 0.45 µm membrane

Salmonella species are a. bacteria b. viruses c. protozoans d. flagellates

a. bacteria

Standard Methods defines QA as a. producing data that is precise and unbiased b. a set of analytical procedures c. a set of regulations promulgated by the USEPA d. a set of USEPA procedures and regulations

a. producing data that is precise and unbiased

Atoms that have the same atomic number, but a different mass number are called a. isotopes b. radioactive c. radicals d. isomers

a. isotopes

The oxidation number of an element is also called its _____ number. a. ion b. valence c. radical d. isotope

b. valence

When oxidation occurs a. electrons are lost by the species being oxidized b. electrons are gained by the species being oxidized c. electrons are shared with the oxygen atom d. oxygen is always added to the species being oxidized

a. electrons are lost by the species being oxidized

When reduction occurs a. electrons are lost by the species being reduced b. electrons are gained by the species being reduced c. electrons are shared with the oxygen atom d. oxygen is always lost to the species being reduced

b. electrons are gained by the species being reduced

A double replacement reaction is the same as a. a composition reaction b. a decomposition reaction c. an ionic reaction d. a redox reaction

c. an ionic reaction

Which is the strongest oxidizing agent? a. Cl₂ + 2e¯ b. Cu⁺⁺ + 2e¯ c. Al⁺³ + 3e¯ d. Sn⁺⁴ + 2e¯

a. Cl₂ + 2e¯¯

Which will show Brownian motion? a. Solute b. Colloids c. Solvent d. Electrolyte

b. Colloids

Molarity is the number of a. gram equivalent weights of solute per liter of solution b. gram atomic weight per oxidation number c. moles of solute per kilogram of solvent d. moles of solute per liter of solution

d. moles of solute per liter of solution

Which would increase in solubility as the temperature decreases a. Magnesium carbonate b. Chlorine gas c. Iron hydroxide d. Sulfuric acid

b. Chlorine gas

Crystalline compounds that contain water are called a. Hygroscopic crystals b. Hydroxides c. Hydrous crystals d. Hydrates

d. Hydrates

Which is it called when water molecules associate with ions? a. Ionic hydration b. Ionic dissociation c. Hydration of ions d. Index of water solubility

c. Hydration of ions

If a hydrocarbon has one or more of its hdrogen atoms replaced with a hydroxyl (OH¯) group it is called a. a ketone b. an ester c. an aldehyde d. an alcohol

d. an alcohol

How are total calcium analyses reported? a. As percent hardness b. as percent Ca c. In mg/L as CaCO₃ d. In mg/L as Ca

c. In mg/L as CaCO₃

Which is the most probable solution if midges can be seen in the finished water? a. Isolate distribution are, superchlorinate, flush mains and customer lines b. Use chloramines, or if already using, temporarily increase by 100% c. Increase chlorination and backwash d. Add powdered activated carbon to the filters, then backwash

c. Increase chlorination and backwash

Typically, which constituent would account for the least amount of total dissolved solids (TDS)? a. Chloride b. Calcium c. Dissolved organic matter d. Bicarbonates

c. Dissolved organic matter

Which algal genera in the Chlorophyta Phylum are filamentous and can form tangled mats in ponds? a. Oocystis b. Rhizoclonium c. Actinastrum d. Volvox

b. Rhizoclonium

If phenolphthalein alkalinity equals total alkalinity, which species is present? a. OH¯ b. NO₃¯ c. HCO₃¯ d. CO₃¯²

a. OH¯

If phenolphthalein alkalinity is zero, which species is present? a. OH¯ b. NO₃¯ c. HCO₃¯ d. CO₃¯²

c. HCO₃¯

In general, for every 10 electrical conductivity units there are approximately how many mg/L of dissolved solids? a. 2 to 3 mg/L b. 6 to 7 mg/L c. 12 to 13 mg/L d. 16 to 18 mg/L

b. 6 to 7 mg/L

Ionic sompounds are formed when a. an acid is added to a mixture b. an acid is added to a compound c. a transfer of electrons occurs d. electrons are shared

c. transfer of electrons occurs

The measure of attraction that atoms have for each other when they share electrons is called a. ionization energy b. van der Waals forces c. polarization d. electronegativity

d. electronegativity

Which genera of cyanobacteria release a variety of odorous organic sulfur compounds, especially after dying? a. Microcystis b. Phormidium c. Anabaena d. Oscillatoria

a. Microcystis

If two combining atoms have an electronegativity difference that is more than 1.6, a. ionic bonding will occur b. poarization will occur c. covalent bonding will occur d. they will repel each other

a. ionic bonding will occur

Which sulfur bacteria are photosynthetic? a. Chromatium b. Desulfotomaculum c. Thiotrix d. Beggiatoa

a. Chromatium

Which is the quantitative relationship of chemical reactants and their products known as? a. Mass balance b. Mass ratio c. Stoichiometry d. A chemical reaction

c. Stoichiometry

If a water molecule has both of its hydrogen atoms replaced by alky groups, it is called a. a ketone b. an ester c. an aldehyde d. an alcohol

b. ester

In general, an electrical conductivity change of 10 units represents approximately ______ of dissolved solids> a. 1.0 mg/L b. 2.0 to 2.5 mg/L c. 6.0 to 7.0 mg/L d. 10.0 mg/L

c. 6.0 to 7.0 mg/L

Which is the first level of TDS that is considered unfit for human consumption? a. 1,000 mg/L b. 2,500 mg/L c. 4,000 mg/L d. 5,000 mg/L

c. 4,000 mg/L

Which sulfur bacteria are photosynthetic? a. Beggiatoa b. Thiobacillus c. Chlorobium d. Desulfuromonas

c. Chlorobium

Which chemical is used in desiccators to remove moisture from the air in the desiccator? a. Calcium oxide b. Sodium chloride c. Calcium sulfate d. Sodium oxalate

c. Calcium sulfate

Which laboratory incubator is most useful for total coliform and HPC (Heterotrophic Plate Count) analyses? a. Water-bath incubator b. Dry-heat incubator c. Autoclave d. Low-temperature incubator

b. Dry-heat incubator

Which type of incubator is used when reactions must be performed with mixtures or reagents at a specific temperature? a. Low-temperature dessicators b. Dry-heat dessicators c. Water-bath d. Low-heat desiccators

c. Water-bath

Which type of special photometer is used to analyze for heavy metals in water? a. Electrophotometer b. Magnetophotometer c. Spectrophotometer d. Atomic absorption spectrophotometer

d. Atomic absorption spectrophotometer

In the Multiple-Tube Fermentation method, which type of culture media is used in the confirmed test? a. Lactose agar b. Green lactose bile broth c. Eosin methylene red agar d. Glucose bile tubes

b. Green lactose bile broth

All positive samples in the presence-absence test must be confirmed using a. brilliant green bile tubes b. eosin methylene red agar c. lauryl tryptose broth d. eosin 12-amino acid broth

a. brilliant green bile tubes

The bicarbonate alkalinity equals the total alkalinity if the pH is a. 4.3 b. 8.3 c. 4.3 or more d. 8.3 or less

d. 8.3 or less

Which formula is correct for determining the pHs (saturation)? a. pHs= Temperature-log(alkalinity)+TDS/log(CaCO³) b. pHs= TDS+log(Ca⁺²)-log[OH¯]+pH/log(marble test result) c. pHs=Alkalinity+TDS+temperature-log(pH) d. pHs=Temperature+TDS-log(Ca⁺²)-log(alkalinity)

d. pHs=Temperature+TDS-log(Ca⁺²)-log(alkalinity)

How is the term "lead free" defined, when used with respect to solders and flux? a. Containing not more than 0.01% lead b. Containing not more than 0.02% lead c. Containing not more than 0.04% lead d. Containing not more than 0.05% lead

b. Containing not more than 0.01% lead

What is the maximum contaminant level goal for Giardia lamblia? a. zero b. 1 cyst per liter c. 2 cysts per liter d. 5 cysts per liter

a. zero

Which is the maximum residual disinfection level goal for chlorine? a. 3 mg/L b. 4 mg/L c. 5 mg/L d. 8 mg/L

b. 4 mg/L

If a water system collects at least 40 samples per month for the analyses of total coliforms, which percent of total coliform positive samples are acceptable for the system to remain in compliance with the maximum contaminant level for total coliforms? a. No more than 2% b. No more than 3% c. No more than 4% d. No more than 5%

d. No more than 5%

If a water system collects less than 40 samples per month for the analyses of total coliforms, how many samples can be total coliform positive and the system still remain in compliance with the maximum contaminant level for total coliforms? a. Zero b. 1 c. 2 d. 3

b. 1

Which is the maximum contaminant level for bromate? a. 0.010 mg/L b. 0.020 mg/L c. 0.050 mg/L d. 0.10 mg/L

a. 0.010 mg/L

Which is the best available technology (BAT) for removing combined radium-226 and radium-228 from source water? a. Enhance coagulation b. Greensand filtration c. Lime Softening d. Aeration

c. Lime softening

Which log removal must water systems achieve for the removal and/or inacttivation of Giardia lamblia cysts between a point where the raw water is not subject to recontamination by surface water runoff and a point downstream before or at the first customer? a. At least 2-log removal b. At least 2.5-log removal c. At least 3-log removal d. At least 4-log removal

c. At least 3-log removal

Water systems are required to achieve at least ______ removal and/or inactivation of viruses between a point where the raw water is not subject to recontamination by surface water runoff and a point downstream before or at the first customer> a. 2 log b. 2.5 log c. 3 log d. 4 log

d. 4 log

One criterion that a public water system must meet to avoid filtration is for the turbidity level not to exceed ______ in representative samples of the source water immediately before the first or only point of disinfectant application in at least 90% of the measurements made for the previous 6 months that the system served water to the public on an ongoing basis. a. 0.3 ntu b. 0.5 ntu c. 1.0 ntu d. 5.0 ntu

d. 5.0 ntu

A public water system that does not provide filtration must have a residual disinfection concentration in the distribution system, measured as total chlorine, combined chlorine, or chlorine dioxide, which cannot be undetectable in more than _____ of the samples each mont, for any two consecutive months that the system serves water to the public. a. 1% b. 2% c. 3% d. 5%

d. 5%

For water systems using conventional treatment or direct filtration, the turbidity level of representative samples of a system's filtered water must be less than or equal to ______ in at least _____ of the samples collected each month, according to the Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule. a. 0.3 ntu; 90% b. 0.3 ntu; 95% c. 0.5 ntu; 95% d. 1.0 ntu; 95%

b. 0.3 ntu; 95%

Which are the turbidity requirements for slow sand filtration? a.

d. ≤ 1.0 ntu in 95% of the measurements collected each month

Which are the turbidity requirements for diatomaceous earth filtration? a.

d. ≤ 1.0 ntu in 95% of the measurements collected each month

Measurements for pH, turdity, temperature, and residual disinfectant concentrations must be performed by a person approved by the a. County Public Health Department b. National Sanitary Foundation c. State d. US Enviromental Protection Agency

c. State

Who certifies laboratories for the measurement of total coliforms, fecal coliforms, and heterotrophic plate counts? a. American Standard Testing Methodology b. ASTM International or NSF International c. American Water Works Association d. USEPA or State

d. USEPA or State

Which is the maximum holding time for fecal coliforms using the Fecal Coliform Procedure? a. 8 hours b. 12 hours c. 24 hours d. 36 hours

a. 8 hours

Samples to be analyzed for total coliforms by the total coliform Fermentation Technique, must be kept during transit at a temperature below a. 4℃ b. 8℃ c. 10℃ d. 12℃

c. 10℃

For water systems that collect inorganic samples more frequently than annually (for antimony, arsenic, barium, beryllium, cadmium, cyanide, fluoride, mercury, nickel, selenium, and thallium), compliance with the maximum contaminant levels is determined by a. a running annual average at any sampling point b. individual samples each time at any sampling point c. an average of all samples at any sampling point d. an average of the last two samples at any sampling point

a. a running annual average at any sampling point

How should a distribution operator preserve a sample to be analyzed for asbestos? a. Preserve with HNO₃ b. Preserve with NaOH c. Preserve with H₂SO₄ d. Preserve by keeping it at 4℃

c. Preserve with H₂SO₄

Which is the appropriate holding time for nitrate, if the sample is chlorinated and not acidified? a. 24 hours b. 48 hours c. 72 hours d. 14 days

d. 14 days

A follow-up sample is required if the concentration in the composite sample is greater than or equal to _____ for any contaminant listed in the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations, § 141.61 (a) - Organic Chemicals. a. 0.0001 mg/L b. 0.0005 mg/L c. 0.001 mg/L d. 0.005 mg/L

b. 0.0005 mg/L

Which analytical test can be performed by any person acceptable to the State? a. Nitrate b. Alkalinity c. Aresenic d. Toluene

b. Alkalinity

If a water supplier fails to comply with any national primary drinking water regulation, including monitoring requirements, the water supplier must report to the state the failure to comply withing a. 24 hours b. 48 hours c. 10 days d. 1 month

b. 48 hours

When is it acceptable for a water supplier not to report analytical results to the state? a. When all constituents analyzed are below detection limit b. When all constituents analyzed are below the maximum contaminant levels c. When a state laboratory performs the analyses d. When the samples have been waived by the state

c. When a state laboratory performs the analyses

How long does a public water system have for completing and submitting to the primacy agency that it has fully complied with a public notification requirement? a. 5 days b. 10 days c. 14 days d. 21 days

b. 10 days

When must a water supplier monitor for unregulated contaminants? a. When a water supplier serves more than 3,300 people b. When the water supplier serves more than 10,000 people c. When the supplier is a public water system and the state has asked them to participate d. When the water supplier wishes to participate

b. When the water supplier serves more than 10,000 people

If a water system is required to monitor unregulated contaminants, it must collect the samples in one continous a. 12-month period b. 24-month period c. 36-month period d. 60-month period

a. 12-month period

If a water system does not collect a sample for unregulated contaminant monitoring according to federal instructions for a listed contaminant, the deviation must be reported to the UCMR sampling coordinator or state within a. 7 days b. 10 days c. 14 days d. 30 days

a. 7 days

How often must a public water system using surface water in whole or in part collect and analyze one sample per water plant at the entry to the distribution system for sodium concentration levels? a. Once per month b. Quarterly c. Annually d. At least every three years

c. Annually

How often must a public water system using groundwater collect and analyze one sample per water plant at the entry to the distribution system for sodium concentration levels? a. Once per month b. Quarterly c. Annually d. At least every three years

d. At least every three years

The prohibition on the use of lead for any plumbing in a residential or nonresidential facility connected to a public water system that monitors water for human consumption does not apply to a. repair of cast iron pipes using leaded joints b. repair of copper tubing c. the use of solders which have between 2% and 5% lead d. the use of flux which has between 2% and 3% lead

a. repair of cast iron pipes using leaded joints

Which is the sample size for lead and copper analyses? a. 100 mL b. 250 mL c. 500 mL d. 1,000 mL

d. 1,000 mL

The first draw samples from taps for lead and copper analyses shall have stood motionless in the plumbing system pipes of each sampling site for at least a. 4 hours b. 5 hours c. 6 hours d. 8 hours

c. 6 hours

Lead and copper samples collected by customers at their taps must be acidified within a. 3 days b. 5 days c. 10 days d. 14 days

d. 14 days

Which is not an acceptable method of sampling for lead and copper analyses lead service lines? a. Tapping directly into the lead service line b. At the tap after flushing the volume of water between the tap and the lead service line c. at the tap after the water has remained motionless for at least 4 hours d. At the tap after allowing the water to run until there is a significant change in temperature

c. at the tap after the water has remained motionless for at least 4 hours

When can a large water system serving more than 100,000 people, reduce the number of sampling sites for lead and copper? a. When the system meets the lead and copper action level for 2 consecutive six-month monitoring periods b. When the system meets the lead and copper action level for 3 consecutive six-month monitoring periods c. When the system meets the lead and copper action level for 2 consecutive annual monitoring periods d. Whe the system meets the lead and copper action level for 3 consecutive annual monitoring periods

a. When the system meets the lead and copper action level for 2 consecutive six-month monitoring periods

When can a water system that meets the lead and copper action levels for two consecutive six-month periods reduce the number of samples and reduce the frequency of sampling so that it only is required to sample every 3 years? a. When the 90th percentile for lead is ≤ 0.003 mg/L and for copper is ≤ 0.50 mg/L b. When the 90th percentile for lead is ≤ 0.004 mg/L and for copper is ≤ 0.60 mg/L c. When the 90th percentile for lead is ≤ 0.005 mg/L and for copper is ≤ 0.65 mg/L d. When the 90th percentile for lead is ≤ 0.007 mg/L and for copper is ≤ 0.70 mg/L

c. When the 90th percentile for lead is ≤ 0.005 mg/L and for copper is ≤ 0.65 mg/L

All water systems that exceed the lead and copper action level shall monitor water quality paramets. Which sample criteria shall be followed if exceptions are not granted? a. 1 sample for each water quality parameter, per entry point to the distribution system during each monitoring period b. 2 samples for each water quality parameter, per entry point to the distribution system during each moitoring period c. 3 samples for each water quality parameter, per entry point to the distribution system during each monitoring period d. 3 samples for each water quality parameter, per entry point to the distribution system during each monitoring period, and one blind sample for each water quality parameter

b. 2 samples for each water quality parameter, per entry point to the distribution system during each moitoring period

When a water system is required to monitor water quality parameters because it exceeded the lead and copper action level, which parameter mst be measured every two weeks at each entry point to the distribution system? a. Alkalinity b. Disinfectant residual c. pH d. Orthophosphate

c. pH

When a water system is required to monitor water quality parameters because it exceeded the lead and copper action level and the system uses a corrosion inhibitor, which parameter must be measured every two weeks at each entry point to the distribution system? a. Orthophosphate b. Total alkalinity c. Calcium carbonate d. Dosage rate of the chemical corrosion inhibitor

d. Dosage rate of the chemical corrosion inhibitor

Water systems are required to monitor for water quality parameters when they exceed the lead and copper action levels. If these systems maintain the range of values for the water quality parameters that reflect optimal corrosion control treatment during each of two consecutive six-mont monitoring periods, then, although they must still monitor at the entry point(s) to the distribution system, they are allowed to a. reduce the number of sites sampled b. reduce the frequency of sampling from 6-month periods to annually c. eliminate all water quality parameters monitored, except pH and alkalinity d. eliminate all water quality parameters monitored, except pH, and they must record in mg/L the dosage for any chemical alkalinity adjustment

a. reduce the number of sites sampled

If a water system that monitors for water quality parameters because it exceeded the lead and copper action levels maintains the range of values for the water quality parameters reflecting optimal corrosion control treatment during three consecutive years of monitoring the system may a. reduce the number of sites sampled b. reduce the frequency of sampling from 6-mont periods to annually c. eliminate all water quality parameters monitored d. eliminate all water quality parameters monitored, except pH and alkalinity

b. reduce the frequency of sampling from 6-mont periods to annually

Groundwater systems that have failed to meet the lead and copper action levels shall take a minimum of a. one sample at representative sampling points throughout the distribution system b. two samples at representative sampling points throughout the distribution system c. one sample at every entry point to the distribution system that is representative of each well after treatment d. two samples at every entry point to the distribution system that is representative of each well after treatment

c. one sample at every entry point to the distribution system that is representative of each well after treatment

Surface water systems that have failed to meet the lead and copper action levels shall take a minimum of a. one sample at representative sampling points throughout the distribution system b. two samples at representative sampling points throughout the distribution system c. one sample after any application of treatment or in the distribution system at a point which is representative of each source after treatment d. two samples after any application of treatment or in the distribution system at a point which is representative of each source after treatment

c. one sample after any application of treatment or in the distribution system at a point which is representative of each source after treatment

Water systems monitoring for lead and copper and water quality parameters must report all the results within the first _____ after each monitoring period. a. 7 days b. 10 days c. 14 days d. 21 days

b. 10 days

Any water system subject to the NPDWR Subpart I, Control of Lead and Copper, shall retain on its premises original records of all sampling data and analysis, reports, surveys, letters evaluations, schedules, State detrminations, and any other information ofr no fewer than a. 10 years b. 12 years c. 15 years d. 20 years

b. 12 years

Which test must a water utility perform to determine monitoring frequency and specific radionuclide analyses? a. Extraction and concentration of the radioactive compounds b. ICP mass spectroscopy c. Gross alpha particle activity scan d. Aodic stripping voltametry

c. Gross alpha particle activity scan

Under the Stage 1 Disinfectants and Disinfection By-products Rule, jar testing may be conducted as part of the enhanced coagulation requirements to a. determine alternative total organic carbon removal requirements for a particular plant b. determine optimum flash mix conditions c. evaluate alternative coagulation chemicals d. determine turbidity and color removal

a. determine alternative total organic carbon removal requirements for a particular plant

The USEPA recommends water systems using a surface water source to collect samples for hexabalent chromium (chromium-6) on a a. monthly basis b. quarterly basis c. semi-annual basis d. annual basis

b. quarterly basis

The USEPA recommends water systems using a groundwater source(s) to collect samples for hexavalent chromium (chromium-6) on a a. monthly basis b. quarterly basis c. semi-annual basis d. annual basis

c. semi-annual basis

Which is the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations maximum contaminant level for total chromium that includes hexavalent chromium (chromium-6)? a. 0.001 mg/L b. 0.050 mg/L c. 0.1 mg/L d. 0.5 mg/L

c. 0.1 mg/L

A water system using conventional filtration treatment does not have to use enhanced coagulation to achieve the total organic carbon (TOC) percent removal if the total trihalomethanes (TTHM) and the sum of haloacetic acids (HAA5) running annual averages are a. ≤ 0.020 mg/L and ≤ 0.010 mg/L for TTHM and HAA5, respectively b. ≤ 0.030 mg/L and ≤ 0.020 mg/L for TTHM and HAA5, respectively c. ≤ 0.040 mg/L and ≤ 0.030 mg/L for TTHM and HAA5, repectively d. ≤ 0.050 mg/L and ≤ 0.040 mg/L for TTHM and HAA5, respectively

c. ≤ 0.040 mg/L and ≤ 0.030 mg/L for TTHM and HAA5, repectively

A water system that uses enhanced softening, but cannot achieve the required total organic carbon (TOC) removals, can still comply by using results from lowering the treated water alkalinity to less than _____ as CaCO₃ measured monthly and calcuated quarterly as a running annual average. a.

A water system that detects nitrate at levels above _____, but below the MCL, must include in the Consumer Confidence Report a short informational statement abouth the impacts of nitrate to children. a. 0.5 mg/L b. 1.0 mg/L c. 2.0 mg/L d. 5.0 mg/L

d. 5.0 mg/L

How long must a water system monitor the CT 99.9% values daily to determine the total logs of inactivation for each day of operation? a. 6 months b. 12 months c. 2 years d. 3 years

b. 12 months

Water system parameters for calculating CT (pH, temperature, residual disinfectant concentration, and disinfectant contact time) must be determined a. when the disinfectant is at its lowest point for each day the system operates b. when the disinfectant is at its lowest point and the pH at its highest for each day the system operates c. when the disinfectant is at its lowest point and the temperature is at its highest for each day the system operates d. each day during peak hourly flows

d. each day during peak hourly flows

A water system that calculates the logs of inactivation for Giardia lamblia must also calculate the logs of inactivation for viruses, if it uses which type of disinfectant? a. Sodium hypochlorite b. Calcium hypochlorite c. Chlorine dioxide d. Chloramines

d. Chloramines

If a water system changes its disinfection sampling point, disinfection type, process, or any other modification identified by the state, it must a. perform a sanitary survey b. develop a disinfection benchmark c. develop a disinfection profile d. start over or go back to routine monitoring of disinfection by-products

b. develop a disinfection benchmark

Filtered water systems can avoid source water monitoring for Cryptosporidium and E. coli if the system provides a total of at least _____ of treatment for Cryptosporidium. a. 3-log b. 4-log c. 5-log d. 5.5-log

d. 5.5-log

A system must begin a second round of source water monitoring no later than _____ following initial bin classification (average source water Cryptosporidium concentration) or determination of the mean Cryptosporidium level, as applicable. a. 3 years b. 5 years c. 6 years d. 9 years

c. 6 years

Unfiltered water systems with a mean Cryptosporidium level greater than _____ must provide at least a 3-log Cryptosporidium inactivation. a. 0.01 oocysts/L b. 0.05 oocysts/L c. 0.10 oocysts/L d. 0.50 oocysts/L

a. 0.01 oocysts/L

If a water supplier fails to comply with any National Primary Drinking Water Regulation, including monitoring requirements, the waer supplier must report to the state the failure to comply within a. 24 hours b. 48 hours c. 10 days d. 1 month

b. 48 hours

If benzene, toluene, ethylbenzene, or xylene is detected in water from groundwater well(s) at a level exceeding 0.0005 mg/L, how often must the system monitor at each sampling point where the contaminant(s) were detected? a. Monthly for a minimum of 6 months b. Quarterly for a minimum of 2 quarters c. Biannually for 2 years for a minimum of 4 times d. Yearly for 3 years

b. Quarterly for a minimum of 2 quarters

How many consecutive annual samples with no detection results for an organic contaminant must a water system achieve before it may apply to the state for a waiver? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

a. 3

How soon must a small water system notify the state in writing after it becomes aware of lead-containing and/or copper-containing material in the system? a. Within 7 days b. Within 14 days c. Within 30 days d. Within 60 days

d. Within 60 days

A public water system that uses surface water or groundwater under the direct influence of surface water and provides filtration treatment is required by the primacy agency to report an acute violation of the filtered water turbidity standard if any turbidity measurement collected during the month exceeds a. 0.3 ntu b. 2.0 ntu c. 3.0 ntu d. 5.0 ntu

d. 5.0 ntu

The federal Safe Drinking Water Act requires a water system to provide a plant schematic shoring the origin of all flows that are recycled. Which oter requirement for this recycle provision must be shown on the schematic? a. The hydraulic conveyance used to transport the recycled flows b. The chemical injection points for treating the recycled flows c. All water quality sampling points for the recycled flows d. All maximum turbidity reads for all recycled flows each month the water system recycled flows

a. The hydraulic conveyance used to transport the recycled flows

The most common solution feeder used for liquid coagulants and coagulant aids is the a. metering pump b. peristaltic pump c. progressive cavity pump d. centrifugal pump

a. metering pump

Fixed screens or bar screens usually have openings ranging from a. 0.25 to 0.50 inches b. 0.50 to 1.00 inches c. 1.00 to 3.00 inches d. 3.00 to 5.00 inches

c. 1.00 to 3.00 inches

Which is the simplest instrument for measuring levels? a. Pressure-activated level transmitters b. Bubbler units c. Float-type sensor d. Sonic type indicators

c. Float-type sensor

Electricity is the study of the movement that effects large numbers of a. electrons b. neutrons c. neutrinos d. positrons

a. electrons

The bearings are protected from water leaking out of the stuffing box by the a. shaft sleeve b. lantern ring c. slinger ring d. packing gland

c. slinger ring

The purpose of the lantern ring is to a. distribute lubrication to the packing b. prevent water from getting into the stuffing box c. seal the low-pressure zone from the high-pressure zone d. hold the shaft in place

a. distribute lubrication to the packing

How often should chlorine supply lines be replaced? a. Every 6 months b. Every year c. Every 2 years d. Every 3 years

b. Every year

Which is the most common well operational problem? a. Pugging of the pump with sediment b. Pump failure c. Plugging of the well screen d. Corrosion of the well's metal parts

c. Plugging of the well screen

Why are roller bearings used? a. To increase torque b. To increase thrust c. To reduce shaft erosion corrosion d. To reduce friction and heat

d. To reduce friction and heat

Which type of pump is typically used for dispensing chemical solutions? a. Centrifugal b. Diaphragm c. Peripheral d. Pneumatic ejector

b. Diaphragm

Bar screen assemblies are installed in a waterway at a(n) _____ angle from the horizontal. a. 40 to 60° b. 60 to 80° c. 80 to 90° d. 90 to 120°

b. 60 to 80°

Which disadvantage do peristaltic pumps have? a. They are expensive b. They cannot handle many non-flammable liquids c. They are not very precise d. They require periodic flexible tubing replacement

d. They require periodic flexible tubing replacement

Which is the purpose of the vacuum in the line to the chlorine injector? a. To apply suction so chlorine gas is fed to the system b. To shut off chlorine gas flow in case of a leak c. To adjust chlorine gas flow by applying variable vacuum pressures d. To apply vacuum when one cylinder or bank of cylinders becomes empty and a switchover to a full container or containers is required

b. To shut off chlorine gas flow in case of a leak

Which device creates the vacuum that is required to operate the chlorinator? a. Injector b. Regulating diaphragm c. Pressure regulating valve d. Vacuum valve

a. Injector

Which is the maximum chlorine gas withdrawal rate from a one-ton container at 70°F? a. 200 lb/d b. 300 lb/d c. 400 lb/d d. 450 lb/d

c. 400 lb/d

When opening a chlorine cylinder valve, a. pull or tug at the wrench b. use a wrench that is 12 inches long for added leverage c. use common bleach to check for any chlorine leaks d. open only one turn to permit maximum withdrawl rate

d. open only one turn to permit maximum withdrawl rate

Which type of pump is generally used for feeding a fluoride solution because it is accurate and will operate agains pressure? a. Centrifugal pump b. Diaphragm pump c. Radial flow velocity pump d. Axial flow velocity pump

b. Diaphragm pump

Auxiliary equipment for fluoridation includes a. a compound meter to measure solution makeup water for flow to the saturator b. a flow meter for measuring total flow such that pacing can be provided c. a day tank desined to hold 5 to 7 days supply for safety d. a required extension hopper that is always located next to the primary hopper

b. a flow meter for measuring total flow such that pacing can be provided

Screen openings in raw water intakes are designed for flows of a. 1 ft/sec b. 2 ft/sec c. 3 ft/sec d. 4 ft/sec

b. 2 ft/sec

Which type of flow meter should be used for chlorinators, which require very low flows? a. Rotameter b. Loss of head meter c. Positive displacement meter d. Magnetic meter

a. Rotameter

Aspirators should always be equipped with a. an atmospheric vacuum breaker b. a water seal c. an inert gas source d. noncollapsible tubing

a. an atmospheric vacuum breaker

If chlorine is added before the water enters the microstrainer, which of the following will occur? a. Algae will be killed, making it easier to clean off the mesh b. Iron will be precipitated, eliminating soluble iron from adhering to the mesh c. Tastes and odors caused by algae wil increase significantly d. Free chlorine may corrode the mesh

d. Free chlorine may corrode the mesh

Which chlorine gas feeder can also feed liquids? a. Constant differential pressure b. Variable differential pressure c. Sonic flow d. Induction mixer

d. Induction mixer

The voltage rating on a fuse should be _____ the voltage of the circuit on which it is applied. a. slightly larger than b. equal to c. equal to or greater than d. slightly lower than

c. equal to or greater than

In a centrifugal pump, which part physically separates the high pressure zone in the volute from the low pressure zone at the impeller's "eye"? a. Wear rings b. Packing gland c. Shaft sleeves d. Slinger ring

a. Wear rings

When removing the volute case at the gasket from a pump, which tool(s) should be used? a. Hammer and screwdrivers b. Chisels c. Soft-faced hammer d. Screwdrivers or chisels

c. Soft-faced hammer

How should a pump's shaft be stored when not in use? a. Stored vertically, on end b. Stored horizontally in foam or other soft material c. Stored in a shaft box and coated with a light oil to prevent corrosion d. Stored horizontally in a long box on foam that is saturated with a light oil

a. Stored vertically, on end

Which should be used to clean an old bearing? a. Solvent b. Mild detergent c. Kerosene d. Ethyl alcohol

a. Solvent

How often should amperage and voltage tests be performed on three-phase motors? a. Monthly b. At least every three months c. At least every six months d. At least once per year

b. At least every three months

When should a mechanical seal be replaced? a. Before any leakage occurs b. When it first starts to leak c. When it leaks a small amount d. When leakage becomes excessive

d. When leakage becomes excessive

Which type of lubrication is best used on pump bearings for light to moderate, high speed, horizontally-shafted pumps? a. Water b. Oil c. Vegetable based grease d. NSF approved animal based grease

b. Oil

Which is a principal problem associated with preliminary treatment screening? a. Corrosion b. Chain comes out of foot sprocket c. Foot shaft freezes up due to debris at bottom d. Spray pipes and nozzles clog

a. Corrosion

Which is the formula for kinetic head? a. 2Vg/2h b. V²g/2h c. V²/2g d. V/2g

c. V²/2g

Which type of centrifugal pump can have water enter from two sides (double suction)? a. End suction pump b. Split-case pump c. Vertical turbine pump d. Close coupled pump

b. Split-case pump

A split case pump has three impellers. Which type of multistage pump is this? a. One stage b. Two stage c. Three stage d. Six stage

c. Three stage

A load, perpendicular to a pump shaft, applied to a bearing is called a. shear load b. thrust load c. radial load d. axial

c. radial load

Which type of coupling is used when the coupled shafts are of two different sizes? a. Split coupling b. Flexible disc coupling c. Flange coupling d. Jaw coupling

c. Flange coupling

Excessive up-thrust on line shaft turbines is caused by a. misalignment of shaft b. pumping too much water c. an impeller that is too small or worn d. a vertical clearance between bottom of pump bowl and impeller that is too small

b. pumping too much water

Besides providing the enclosure for the impeller, the volute case is also cast and machined to provide a seat for the a. lantern ring b. impeller rings c. mechanical seal d. slinger ring

b. impeller rings

Which is a type of rigid coupling? a. Chain coupling b. Split coupling c. Gear coupling d. Jaw coupling

b. Split coupling

The bearings that maintain the axial positioning of a shaft are called a. sleeve bearings b. line bearings c. thrust bearings d. rolling bearings

c. thrust bearings

Which type of bearing can operate well against radial loads, but can only with stand very low thrust loads? a. Self-aligning, spherical roller bearings b. Single-row, tapered roller bearings c. Self-aligning double-row ball bearings d. Angular contact bearings

c. Self-aligning double-row ball bearings

A pump fails to prime because the suction lift is too high. Which is the best solution? a. Inspect, clean, or repair the priming unit b. Open suction piping air bleed-off valve c. Check external water seal unit d. Re-evaluate the pump's requirements and correct the condition

d. Re-evaluate the pump's requirements and correct the condition

Which type of pump has little chance of losing its prime, but has the disadvantage of having a lack of access for maintenance or repair? a. Recessed impeller or vortex pump b. Turbine pump c. Submersible pump d. Positive displacement pump

c. Submersible pump

Which type of pump adds energy to the fluid flow intermittently? a. Recessed impeller or vortex pump b. Turbine pump c. Submersible pump d. Positive displacement pump

d. Positive displacement pump

Diaphragm pumps do not work very well if they have to lift liquids more than about a. 4 feet b. 8 feet c. 12 feet d. 20 feet

a. 4 feet

The streaming current detector is based on what principle? a. Zeta potential b. Particle reaction kinetic principle c. Electromotive Principle d. Chemical thermodynamic principle

c. Electromotive Principle

Which does the streaming current detector actually measure for determining the effectiveness of the coagulant chemical? a. Charge density b. Electrical resistance c. Electrical potential d. Net particle charge of water

b. Electrical resistance

Which is the normal rotational speed of a microstrainer? a. 1 rpm b. 2 rpm c. 5 rpm d. 10 rpm

c. 5 rpm

A low vacuum condition on a chlorinator can be caused by a. a plugged chlorine supply line b. a failed injector c. an empty chlorine container d. a switchover valve that failed

b. a failed injector

A high vacuum condition on a chlorinator can be caused by a. the solenoid valve being stuck open b. a failed injector c. an empty chlorine container d. a stuck diaphragm regulator

c. an empty chlorine container

Which metal has the highest corrosion potential? a. Aluminum b. Copper c. Cast iron d. Brass

a. Aluminum

Which flow measuring device is mechanical? a. Weir b. Flume c. Venturi d. Loss of head meter

d. Loss of head meter

Which is the last step in well construction? a. Placement of the well seal b. Disinfection c. Installation of the pump d. Pump test to confirm capacity

d. Pump test to confirm capacity

Aspiration is the removal of a. air from a container by suction b. fluid from a container by suction c. oxygen from water by an exothermic reaction d. oxygen from water by biological or chemical action

b. fluid from a container by suction

Which type of chlorine gas feeding equipment requires an external instrument and is often called closed-loop control? a. Automatic residual control gas feeder b. Compound-loop control gas feeder c. Automatic proportioning control gas feeder d. Semiautomatic control gas feeder

a. Automatic residual control gas feeder

Which is the best material to use for fittings, lighting, and ventilation systems in a room that houses an ammonia hydroxide tank? a. Aluminum b. Stainless steel c. Brass d. Monel

b. Stainless steel

Wire size is selected according to which criteria? a. Distance from energy source to equipment b. Number of resistors and winding for all equipment on that circuit c. Number of amperes to be carried d. Number of volts to be carried

c. Number of amperes to be carried

Field experience has shown that streaming current detectors require very intensive maintenance at water plants utilizing treatment chemicals containing a. alum b. iron salts c. short chain polymers d. cationic polymers

b. iron salts

Sleeve bearings that are used in a vertical pump's column may be lubricated by a. lithium b. unsealed grease packed bearings c. sealed grease packed bearings d. oil drip system

d. oil drip system

Grease that is water resistant is made with a. graphite b. animal fat c. calcium d. potassium phosphate

c. calcium

What is the normal temperature for centrifugal pump motor bearings? a. 160°F b. 180°F c. 195°F d. 200°F

b. 180°F

Where is scale most likely to form in a hypochlorinator? a. In the push rod b. In the plunger c. In the suction and discharge hoses d. In the spring

c. In the suction and discharge hoses

Which will a flexible diaphragm coupling compensate for in a parallel misalignment? a. 1/32 of an inch b. 1/16 of an inch c. 1/8 of an inch d. 1/4 of an inch

c. 1/8 of an inch

The booster pump used to provide water pressure necessary for a chlorine system's injector to operate properly is usually a a. low-head, low-capacity positive-displacement pump b. high-head, high-capacity positive-displacement pump c. high-head, low-capacity centrifugal-type pump d. low-head, high-capacity centrifugal-type pump

d. low-head, high-capacity centrifugal-type pump

Which type of continuous control will maintain control action when signal is lost? a. Floating proportional control b. Proportional control c. Proportional plus reset control d. Proportional plus reset plus derivative control

a. Floating proportional control

Which method for measuring water levels has a distinct disadvantage where freezing occurs? a. Pressure-activated level transmitters b. Bubbler units c. Float-type sensor d. Sonic type indicators

c. Float-type sensor

Which is the general test period to confirm design capacity for a public water supply well that is in an unconfined aquifer? a. At least 24 hours b. At least 48 hours c. At least 72 hours d. At least 96 hours

c. At least 72 hours

Because vaporizers operate under pressure, they must be designed to meet the _____ code. a. American Institute of Physics b. ASTM International c. American Society of Mechanical Engineers d. Building Officials and Code Administrators of America

c. American Society of Mechanical Engineers

Which temperature range of superheat is considered sufficient, when comparing the off-gas temperature from the vaporizer to its position on the chlorine or ammonia vapor pressure curves? a. 5 to 10℃ b. 10 to 20℃ c. 20 to 30℃ d. 30 to 40℃

a. 5 to 10℃

In vaporizer systems, expansion chambers must be installed in a liquid line between any two valves to protect against over-pressurizing the liquid line. The expansion chamber must be sized to protect which percentage of the line volume? a. 15% b. 20% c. 25% d. 50%

b. 20%

Volumetric feeders are a. usually more difficult to operate than gravimetric feeders b. more expensive to purchase than gravimetric feeders c. less expensive to maintain than gravimetric feeders d. more accurate than graimetric feeders

c. less expensive to maintain than gravimetric feeders

Which type of continuous control requires meters, transmitters, and transducers? a. Feedback control b. Feedforward control c. Floating control d. Proportional control

a. Feedback control

Which type of continuous control has a controller that constantly tries to change the output if there is deviation from the set point? a. Proportional plus reset plus derivative control b. Proportional control c. Floating proportional control d. Proportional plus reset control

d. Proportinal plus reset control

Which gas is commonly called swamp gas? a. Hydrogen sulfide b. Methane c. Carbon monoxide d. Radon

b. Methane

Which statement concerning contact with chlorine is true? a. If chlorine contacts the eyes, flush for 15 minutes with water, then neutralize with appropriate electrolytes that are safe for the eyes b. Flush the eyes and give a sedative to the person that contacted chlorine, as it usually leads to excited behavior c. Apply an appropriate ointment to the area of the skin that liquid chlorine came in contact with d. Chlorine inhalation may lead to delayed reactions such as pulmonary edema

d. Chlorine inhalation may lead to delayed reactions such as pulmonary edema

If sodium hypochlorite comes into contact with the eyes, it should be immediately flushed with water a. for at least 15 minutes b. for at least 20 minutes c. for at least 30 minutes d. until the burning sensation stops

a. for at least 15 minutes

Manganese causes a a. brown stain b. yellow stain c. black stain d. yellow stain for mn⁺² and black stain for mn⁺³

c. black stain

When is the typical minimal demand on a public water system? a. 12 midnight b. 3 a.m. c. 7 a.m. d. 12 noon

b. 3 a.m.

When is the typical peak demand on a public water system? a. 12 midnight b. 10 a.m. c. 3 p.m. d. 7 p.m.

d. 7 p.m.

Which water quality complaint is the most common for most utilities? a. Appearance of the water b. Taste and odors c. Stained laundry and plumbing fixtures d. Illness caused by the water

b. Taste and odors

Which is true regarding the storage and handling of 150 lb chlorine cylinders? a. Chlorine cylinder storage facilities should be made of brick or block material and only have one secured door for protection b. Chlorine cylinders stored outside should be stored on elevated racks to help prevent corrosion c. Lifting a chlorine cylinder should be done by putting a chain through the holes in the protective hood d. Chlorine cylinders should be moved by a hand truck with the restraining chain three-fourths of the way up the cylinder

b. Chlorine cylinders stored outside should be stored on elevated racks to help prevent corrosion

Chemical splash goggles (no face shield) are required PPE when working with potential exposure to 3 to 20% sodium hypochlorite solutions at temperatures below 100℉ only when a. handling the material b. an initial line break occurs c. inspecting the dome and no product is flowing d. loading that is remotely activated

c. inspecting the dome and no product is flowing

In permit entry confined space, who is responsible for knowing the conditions within that confined space? a. Standby attendant b. Entry supervisor c. Authorized entrant d. Authorized attendant

b. Entry supervisor

Currently in the United States, which is the most frequently diagnosed waterborne disease? a. Gastroenteritis b. Giardiasis c. Legionnaires disease d. Dysentery

b. Giardiasis

Infectious hepatitis is caused by a type of a. mycobacterium b. basiomycetes c. virus d. Gonidium

c. virus

The largest percentage of reported cases for the transmission of the Giardia disease is a. water b. food c. swimming in infested waters d. person-to-person contact

d. person-to-person contact

Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) units a. are very different than the units used by SCUBA divers b. are fitted with a low-air-pressure alarm that sounds, alerting the wearer to leave the contaminated site c. should not be stored in storage rooms far away from the chlorine location, but two units should be stored in the chlorine feed room and two in the chlorine room d. should have all straps rolled up so they properly fit in their cases

b. are fitted with a low-air-pressure alarm that sounds, alerting the wearer to leave the contaminated site

At which concentrations is ammonia gas first detectable by humans? a. 2 to 7 ppm b. 7 to 15 ppm c. 10 to 15 ppm d. 20 to 50 ppm

d. 20 to 50 ppm

In permit entry confined space, who is responsible for knowing the behavioral effects of exposure? a. Authorized entrant, entry supervisor and the standby attendant b. Entry supervisor and authorized attendant c. Authorized attendant d. Standby attendant

c. Authorized attendant

In humans, Salmonella will cause a. hemochromatosis b. chlolera c. gastroenteritis d. dysentery

c. gastroenteritis

Which disease has a high mortality rate? a. Cholera b. Infectious hepatitis c. Giardiasis d. Cryptosporidiosis

a. Cholera

Hypochlorite solutions are a. highly volatile b. highly acidic c. highly viscous d. soluble in organic solvents

a. highly volatile

Introducing water into a strange tank containing ammonia vapors can cause a. a rapid exothermic reaction b. a rapid endothermic reaction c. the tank to collapse d. an explosion

c. the tank to collapse

Which metal reacts with wet chlorine to form an acid? a. Platinum b. Silver c. Copper d. Tantalum

c. Copper

The IDLH (Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health) represents the maximum concentration from which, if respiratory equipment failed, one could not escape within _______ without a respirator and without experiencing any escape impairing or irreversible health effects. a. 10 minutes b. 20 minutes c. 30 minutes d. 60 minutes

c. 30 minutes

A benefit of water conservation would be a. reduced demand on supply source b. loss of revenue for the utility c. possible stimulation of water service growth d. difficulty dealing with drought conditions

a. reduced demand on supply source

Tastes and odors become more noticeable when the a. pH increases b. pH decreases c. temperatures increases d. dissolved oxygen increases

c. temperature increases

At which concentration level can most customers notice iron tastes? a. 0.1 mg/L b. 0.5 mg/L c. 1.0 mg/L d. 2.0 mg/L

b. 0.5 mg/L

When the iron content of drinking water is too high, coffee can turn very dark. This is caused by a. iron being oxidized more readily in the coffee, that is iron reacing with oxygen b. iron reacting with chlorogenic acids in the coffee c. iron reacting with benzene in the coffe d. iron reacting with tannic acid in the coffee

d. iron reacting with tannic acid in the coffee

he principal source of excess lead and copper at the customer's tap is from a. transmission lines b. distribution appurtenances c. household plumbing systems d. raw groundwater or surface

c. household plumbing systems

Which emergency kit is for chlorine ton containers? a. Kit A b. Kit B c. Kit C d. Kit D

b. Kit B

Gaseous ammonia may be fatal when it reaches levels of a. 400 to 700 ppm b. 800 to 1,100 ppm c. 1,100 to 1,700 ppm d. 2,000 to 3,000 ppm

d. 2,000 to 3,000 ppm

Which is the size range of Cryptosporidium? a. 4 to 6 µm b. 6 to 8 µm c. 10 to 12 µm d. 12 to 18 µ

a. 4 to 6 µm

Which species causes typhoid? a. Salmonella b. Shigella c. Klebsiella d. Pseudomonas

a. Salmonella

Which chemical, when it contacts moisture, will produce a cake that is both difficult and hazardous to handle? a. Quicklime b. Calcium oxide c. Calcium hydroxide d. Soda ash

d. Soda ash

Which is the highest recommended stacking height for bags of powdered activated carbon and granular activated carbon? a. 5 ft b. 6 ft c. 8 ft d. 10 ft

b. 6 ft

How many fusible plugs do 1-ton ammonia cylinders have? a. 0 b. 2 c. 4 d. 6

b. 2

Ammonia gas produces general discomfort in humans at concentrations of a. 10 to 20 ppm b. 65 to 80 ppm c. 150 to 200 ppm d. 300 to 350 ppm

c. 150 to 200 ppm

Prolonged Entamoeba histolytica disease can cause amoebic abscesses which usually occur in the a. liver b. urinary tract c. small intestine d. kidney

a. liver

Which is the current OSHA-PEL level for ammonia? a. 10 b. 35 c. 50 d. 75

b. 35

Which is the size range for viruses? a. 10 to 25 nanometers b. 300 to 900 nanometers c. 0.12 to 1.25 µm d. 0.75 to 6.30 µm

a. 10 to 25 nanometers

Which is the working strength of sodium hydroxide solution in a chlorine neutralization tank? a. 15% b. 20% c. 25% d. 30%

b. 20%

Which mixture may be produced if ammonia hydroxide is accidentally unloaded into a sodium hypochlorite tank? a. Cyanide b. Strychnine c. An explosive mixture of nitrogen trichloride d. An explosive mixture of nitroglycerin

c. An explosive mixture of nitrogen trichloride

Which is the goal for the reduction in water consumption in a Stage III drought or emergency? a. 25 to 30% b. 35 to 40% c. 40 to 45% d. 45 to 50%

a. 25 to 30%

Which is the goal for the reduction in water consumption in a Stage IV drought or emergency? a. More than 40% b. More than 50% c. More than 60% d. More than 75%

b. More than 50%

Which national law regulates the storage, transportation, treatment, and disposal of solid and hazardous wastes? a. The Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) b. The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (Superfund) c. The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) d. The Safe Drinking Water Act

c. The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)

The minimum standards for specific chemical substance have requirements that are itemized in a. OSHA Safety Standards b. Code of Federal Regulations c. NSF International Standards d. AWWA Standards

b. Code of Federal Regulations

Which is the rationale for establiching the three categories of public water systems? a. Billing purposes b. Federal funding c. State and local funding d. Exposure differences to contaminants

d. Exposure differences to contaminants

The American Water Works Association recommends that water treatment chemicals be purchased in quantities that maintain a minimum supply at all times of a. 14 days b. 15 days c. 20 days d. 30 days

d. 30 days

The Norwalk virus causes a. liver disease b. severe kidney infection c. stomach flu symptoms d. lung lesions

c. stomach flu symptons

When ingested Giardia cysts mature and multiply, which problem do they cause? a. Interfere with nutrient absorption b. Destroy the lining of the stomach c. Secrete a toxin, which causes diarrhea d. Kill millions of cells in the large intestine, which causes diarrhea

a. Interfere with nutrient absorption

Microsporidiosis spores range in size from _____ in diameter. a. 0.1 to 1.0 µm b. 2.0 to 3.0 µm c. 5.0 to 10.0 µm d. 25.0 to 75.0 µm

b. 2.0 to 3.0 µm

Which emergency kit is for chlorine tank trucks? a. Kit A b. Kit B c. Kit C d. Kit D

c. Kit C

Which plan is a mutual aid program for chlorine incidents that occur during transportation or at user locations? a. North American Chlorine Emergency Plan b. Chemical Transportation Emergency Plan c. Chlorine Institue Plan d. Transportation Emergency Assistance Plan

a. North American Chlorine Emergency Plan

Which is the discharge concentration limit for chlorine vapor from a neutralization system? a. 1 ppm b. 2 ppm c. 5 ppm d. 10 ppm

c. 5 ppm

Sites using chlorine in a single process are required by the US Environmental Protection Agency to write a risk management plan (RMP), if chlorine exceeds a. 2,000 lb b. 2,500 lb c. 4,000 lb d. 6,000 lb

b. 2,500 lb

When a water source is destroyed or damaged due to some disaster that causes total contamination, which would be a long term goal? a. Clean up the source of contamination caused by the disaster b. Draw water from an adjoining system or systems c. Supply customers with bottled water d. Commence conservation or rationing

a. Clean up the source of contamination caused by the disaster

Water utilities that make a sewer system available to customers that previously had a private septic system can expect the water use to increase by a. 20 to 25% b. 30 to 50% c. 50 to 100% d. more than 150%

c. 50 to 100%

Which is a potential problem for water conservation? a. Reduced costs b. Possible stimulation of water service growth c. Energy savings d. Reduction of wasterwater flow

b. Possible stimulation of water service growth

The injection of water into the ground for aquifer recharge is subject to federal and state approval. This approval is under the rules of which program? a. US Environmental Protection Agency b. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act c. Federal Groundwater Rules d. Federal Underground Injection Control Program

d. Federal Underground Injection Control Program

The "rate of reasonable sharing" of water is usually called the a. Riparian doctrine b. Legal use doctrine c. Priority use doctrine d. Beneficial use doctrine

a. Riparian doctrine

When a landowner can "capture" all the water under only their land, it is called a. correlative rights b. absolute ownership c. reasonable use d. appropriation-permit systems

b. absolute ownership

When a landowner has the right to groundwater as long as it does not harm a neighbor, it is called a. correlative rights b. absolute ownership c. reasonable use d. appropriation-permit systems

c. reasonable use

Which rule applies when prorating the available water supply based on the overlying size of the land parcel? a. Correlative rights b. Absolute ownership c. Reasonable use d. Appropriation-permit systems

a. Correlative rights

Which rule applies when the most important issue is priority, where water rights are based on who has used the water for the longest time? a. Correlative rights b. Absolute ownership c. Reasonable use d. Appropriation-permit systems

d. Appropriation-permit systems

The US Environmental Protection Agency estimates that the radioactivity in potable water contributes about which percentage of the annual dose received by an average person? a. 0.1 to 3.0% b. 3.0 to 5.0% c. 4.0 to 7.0% d. 5.0 to 10.0%

a. 0.1 to 3.0%

Which has the USEPA chosen to suggest assaying water for as indicators for the inactivation of viruses? a. Total coliforms b. Fecal coliforms c. E-coli d. Coliphages

d. Coliphages

Which date does the climatic year for the U.S. Geological Survey use in its publication of stream flow records? a. October 1 b. June 1 c. July 1 d. January 1

a. October 1

Coccidioidomycosis is caused by a. viruses b. bacteria c. fungi d. protozoans

c. fungi

Consistency is maintained by providing certified laboratories with a known concentration of a contaminant. Who oversees tha analytical results of the samples provided to the certified laboratories? a. USEPA and state primacy programs b. Primacy agency for each state c. Ameican Chemical Society d. US Department of Public Health

a. USEPA and state primacy programs

Which percentage equipment standby for chlorination facilities do most state regulations require? a. 50% b. 75% c. 90% d. 100%

d. 100%

Water treatment plants are increasingly using hypochlorination because it is a. relatively safe compared to using gaseous chlorine b. very inexpensive compared to other disinfectants. c. a stronger oxidant than gaseous chlorine d. not going to form trihalomethanes

a. relatively safe compared to using gaseous chlorine

Which bacteria genus has the bacteria species that cause anthrax? a. Clostridium b. Enterococcus c. Bacillus d. Yersinia

c. Bacillus

Which adverse effects does the secondary contaminant iron have? a. Unappealing to drink, undesireable taste, and possible indication of corrosion b. Discolored laundry brown and chaged taste of water, coffee, tea, and other beverages c. Undesirable metallic taste and possible indication of corrosion d. Added total dissolved solids and scale, indication of sewage contamination, and tastes

b. Discolored laundry brown and changed taste of water, coffee, tea, and other beverages

Which gas occurs mainly in groundwater, is heavier than air, and is odoriferous? a. Hydrogen sulfide b. Carbon dioxide c. Radon d. Methane

a. Hydrogen sulfide

Which gas is radioactive, occurs in many groundwater supplies, and is colorless and odorless? a. Neon b. Argon c. Boron d. Radon

d. Radon

Groundwater pH is generally a. Exactly 7.0 units b. 4.0 to 6.0 units c. 6.0 to 8.5 units d. 8.5 to 9.5 units

c. 6.0 to 8.5 units

Surface water pH is generally a. Exactly 7.0 units b. 4.0 to 6.0 units c. 6.5 to 8.5 units d. 8.5 to 9.5 units

c. 6.5 to 8.5 units

The movement of water from leaves, grasses, and other plants to the atmosphere is called a. organic evaporation b. condensation c. transpiration d. capillary action

c. transpiration

A term used to describe cloud formation is a. transpiration b. evaporation c. condensation d. precipitation

c. condensation

A diatom is a type of a. bacterium b. algae c. virus d. protozoan

b. algae

Which radioactive nuclide is a gas? a. Radium b. Uranium c. Radon d. Thorium

c. Radon

Which is the term applied to all suspended matter in water? a. Colloids b. Nonsettleable particulates c. Stabilized particulates d. Turbidity

d. Turbidity

Which is the safe dosage for most species of fish when using copper sulfate to control algae in a body of water? a. 0.3 mg/L b. 0.5 mg/L c. 0.8 mg/L d. 1.0 mg/L

b. 0.5 mg/L

A lake would be considered polluted if it had a preponderance of a. green algae b. blue-green algae c. yellow-green algae d. golden-brown algae

b. blue-green algae

Which of the following is easiest to control at the water treatment plant? a. Giardia b. Cryptosporidium c. Coliform bacteria d. Viruses

c. Coliform bacteria

Enteric protozoans a. usually have four stages in their life cycles b. are easy to culture c. have cysts that can penetrate filters d. can be found in very high densities in most lakes

c. have cysts that can penetrate filters

Which type of adverse effects does the secondary contaminant color have? a. Unappealing appearance and indication that dissolved organics may be present b. Added total dissolved solids and scale, indication of contamination, and tastes c. Taste, scale, corrosion, and hardness d. Undesirable taste and appearance

a. Unappealing appearance and indication that dissolved organics may be present

The most common forms of manganese found in nature are a. sulfides, inosilicates, and native metal b. sulfides and phosphates c. oxides, carbonates, and hydroxides d. phyllosilicates, tectosilicates, and inosilicates

c. oxides, carbonates, and hydroxides

Precursors to the formation of trihalomethanes (THMs) would most likely come from which source? a. Domestic and commercial activies b. Wastewater treatment plants and industrial waters c. Humic materials d. Reactions that occur within the treatment plant

c. Humic materials

Immediately below the water table is the a. piezometric surface b. capillary zone c. saturated zone d. recharge zone

c. saturated zone

Which type of wells are commonly used near the shore of a lake or near a river? a. Monitoring wells b. Bedrock wells c. Gravel wall wells d. Radial wells

d. Radial wells

Many streams would dry up after a rain if it were not for a. human construction influences b. surface runoff c. capillary action d. groundwater flow

d. groundwater flow

Which range represents the usual levels of carbon dioxide in surface waters? a. 0 to 5 mg/L b. 5 to 10 mg/L c. 10 to 25 mg/L d. 25 to 40 mg/L

a. 0 to 5 mg/L

Microorganisms from smallest to largest are as follows: a. Viruses, protozoans, and bacteria b. Bacteria, viruses, and protozoans c. Viruses, bacteria, and protozoans d. Protozoans, bacteria, and viruses

c. Viruses, bacteria, and protozoans

Water channels will most likely occur in which type of rock? a. Sandstone cemented with calcite b. Limestone c. Volcanic breccia d. Mélange

b. Limestone

An artesian aquifer could occur in a(n) a. confined aquifer b. unconfined aquifer c. water table aquifer d. shale formation

a. confined aquifer

Immediately above the water table is the a. aquifer zone b. unsaturated zone c. unconfined aquifer d. recharge zone

b. unsaturated zone

Which would most likely be the source of contaminants that include pesticides, herbicides, and nitrates? a. Land application of wastewater b. Agricultural activities c. Municipal landfills d. Liquid waste leaching ponds

b. Agricultural activities

Which statement is true concerning dissolved oxygen (DO)? a. Warm water contains more DO than cold water b. Cold water contains more DO than warm water c. Saline water contains more DO than fresh water d. Temperature and salinity have no impact on DO

b. Cold water contains more DO than warm water

The copper sulfate dose for controlling algae in lakes is predominately based on a lake's a. temperature b. pH c. turbidity d. alkalinity

d. alkalinity

To obtain the best and most lasting control of algae, which is the optimum alkalinity range of the water being treated when using copper sulfate for algae control? a. 101 mg/L

a. <50 mg/L

For operational corrosion control, the total alkalinity concentration should be measured every a. 8 hours b. 12 hours c. 4 hours d. week

a. 8 hours

How often should the Langelier Index of the raw and treated water be calculated? a. Every 8 hours b. Every 12 hours c. Every day d. Every week

c. Every day

The process whereby water moves with the air currents in the atmosphere is called a. transpiration b. evaporation c. interception d. advection

d. advection

The polarity of water causes the hydrogen part of one water molecule to be weakly bonded to the oxygen of another water molecule. This bonding is called a. ionic b. covalent c. van der Waals d. hydrogen bonding

d. hydrogen bonding

Oligotrophic is defined as a(n) a. organism that requires very little light b. organism that feeds on the bottom c. low nutrient body of water with abundant oxygen d. organism that is sessile in the immature stage, but later becomes free swimming in the adult stage

c. low nutrient body of water with abundant oxygen

Where will lake water first become anaerobic? a. In the hypolimnion b. In the mesolimnion c. In the thermocline d. In the epilimnion

a. In the hypolimnion

Which type of hardness is considered permanent hardness? a. Carbonate hardness b. Noncarbonated hardness c. Calcium hardness d. Magnesium hardness

b. Noncarbonated hardness

Streams that flow only occasionally are called a. annual streams b. perennial streams c. ephemeral streams d. intermittent streams

c. ephemeral streams

Which is the main problem that dinoflagellates cause in water supplies? a. Oxygen depletion b. Clogging filters c. Taste and odors d. Toxicity

c. Taste and odors

Which group of algae do Euglena species belong to? a. Green algae b. Blue-green algae c. Flagellates d. Diatoms

c. Flagellates

The purple or green sulfur bacteria a. are able to photosynthesize b. require sulfur as well as a rich oxygen environment for their metabolism c. oxidize elemental sulfur to form sulfides d. produce organic acids, sulfuric acids, and hydrogen sulfide during their metabolism

a. are able to photosynthesize

Which organisms are prokaryotes and release odorous compounds such as geosmin and 2-methylisoborneal? a. Methylomonas b. Chlorobium c. Clostridium d. Cyanobacteria

d. Cyanobacteria

Which type of adverse effect does the secondary contaminant zinc have? a. Unappealing taste and possible indication of contamination b. Added total dissolved solids and stained laundry c. A laxative effect and undesirable metallic taste d. Undesirable taste and a milky appearance

d. Undesirable taste and milky appearance

Which statement is true concerning dissolved oxygen? a. Dissolved oxygen will increase the absorption of carbon dioxide b. High dissolved oxygen has adverse health effects c. Most consumers do not prefer high levels of dissolved oxygen in the water d. Dissolved oxygen may oxidize iron and manganese

d. Dissolved oxygen may oxidize iron and manganese

Which is the most common radionuclide in water? a. Radium b. Uranium c. Radon d. Thorium

a. Radium

How much water a material will hold depends on its a. size and volume b. permeability c. hydraulic conductivity d. porosity

d. porosity

Which would most likely be the source of contamninants that include nitrates, sulfates, organic compounds (solvents), sodium, and microbiological contaminants? a. Septic tanks and leech fields b. Agricultural activities c. Infiltration of urban runoff d. Municipal landfills

a. Septic tanks and leech fields

Bored wells, constructed with an auger driven into the earth, are limited in depth to approximately a. 20 ft b. 30 ft c. 50 ft d. 60 ft

d. 60 ft

During a pumping test for a public water supply well, which must be held constant? a. The pumping water level b. The pump's amperage c. The drawdown d. The pumping rate

d. The pumping rate

Destratification of a lake will often reduce a. turbidity b. nutrients c. fish d. algae

d. algae

Zebra mussels multiply and spread so fast because a. the female produces over 250,000 eggs in a single season b. the larvae are free swimming for 2 or 3 months before attaching themselves c. they commonly adhere to boats so they move around and disperse eggs d. they can live out of water for as long as 3 months

c. they commonly adhere to boats so they move around and disperse eggs

Which raw water characteristic may require the addition of a weighing agent? a. High pH b. Low water temperature c. High organic content d. Low turbidity

d. Low turbidity

Which is an unconsolidated material? a. Limestone b. Sand c. Fratured rock d. Volcanic rock

b. Sand

Beta radiation consists of a(n) a. Electron b. Neutron c. Proton d. Muon

a. Electron

Which is the unit of gamma radiation? a. Muon b. Neutrino c. X-ray d. Photon

d. Photon

Which of the following causes lung cancer? a. Uranium b. Radium c. Radon d. Thorium

c. Radon

Which genera of cyanobacteria primarily release neurotoxins? a. Nodularia b. Microcystis c. Anabaena d. Cylindrospermopsis

c. Anabaena

Which one of the following would be best to use for controlling algae in large water bodies? a. Hydrogen peroxide b. Granular activated carbon c. Powdered activated carbon d. Magnesium sulfate

c. Powdered activated carbon

Trout can be killed if the copper sulfate application exceeds what dosage level? a. 0.08 mg/L b. 0.10 mg/L c. 0.12 mg/L d. 0.14 mg/L

d. 0.14 mg/L

Which method would be the most effective treatment for zebra mussels at the inlet? a. Continuous dosing of chloramines at 0.5 to 1.0 mg/L b. Continuous dosing of chlorine at 0.5 to 1.0 mg/L c. Shock dosages of potassium permanganate at 1.0 to 2.0 mg/L for at least 15 minutes d. Shock treatment using chlorine at a dosage of 10.0 mg/L for 30 minutes

d. Shock treatment using chlorine at a dosage of 10.0 mg/L for 30 minutes

The bulk of synthetic organic compounds (SOCs) are a. solvents b. PAHs, PCBs, and polynuclear aromatic hydrocarbons c. pesticides d. volatiles

c. pesticides

Which naturally occurring radionuclide is most prevalent in drinking water? a. Gamma b. Alpha c. Beta d. Muson

b. Alpha

If artificial radionuclides are present in the environment, which element is most likely to be found? a. Potassium 20 b. Carbon 14 c. Argon 40 d. Tritum

d. Tritum

How much water an aquifer will yield depends a. on its size or volume b. on its porosity and permeability c. almost entirely on the type of rock formation d. on the pore spaces

b. on its porosity and permeability

When drilling a well it is important to identify (log) the various formations below the surface. Which type of logging measures how controlled radiation penetrates the different formations below the surface? a. Electric logging b. Magnetic-reversal logging c. Gamma-ray logging d. X-ray loggin

c. Gamma-ray logging

Which would most likely be the source of contaminants that include inorganic compounds, petroleum products, and heavy metals? a. Land application of wastewater b. Deicing activities to control snow and ice on roads c. Liquid waste storage ponds d. Infiltration of urban runoff

d. Infiltration of urban runoff

Which is the general test period to confirm design capacity for a public water supply well that is in a confined aquifer? a. At least 24 hours b. At least 48 hours c. At least 72 hours d. At least 96 hours

a. At least 24 hours

Zebra mussels will breed only when the water temperature is above a. 8℃ b. 12℃ c. 16℃ d. 20℃

b. 12℃

A conventional water treatment plant in a rich farming area has to treat water high in nitrates. Which is its best course of action in the long term? a. Mange watershed to prevent nitrates from entering the water system b. Change its treatment to ion exchange c. Change its treatment to reverse osmosis d. Add a strong oxidation chemical before coagulation

a. Manage watershed to prevent nitrates from entering the water system

Water primarily becomes capable of dissolving iron and manganese because a. of acid rain b. oxygen reacts with iron and manganese c. oxygen is removed by the decomposition of organic materials making the water capable of dissolving iron and manganese d. erovional forces bring iron and manganese into contact with water capable of dissolving iron and manganese due to acid rain

c. oxygen is removed by the decomposition of organic materials making the water capable of dissolving iron and manganese

The outside boundary of a watershed would be defined by a a. saddle b. ridge c. river d. county, state, or country boundary

b. ridge

Which national law authorizes the government to clean up contaminants from hazardous waste sites or contaminants caused by chemical spills that could possibly threaten the environment? a. The Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) b. The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (Superfund) c. The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) d. The Safe Drinking Water Act

b. The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (Superfund)

Viruses are considered a. dissolved solids b. collodial solids c. flocculated solids d. suspended solids

b. collodial solids

In general, higher removal is required as the TOC _____ and the alkalinity _____. a. increases; decreases b. decreases; increases c. increases; increases d. decreases; decreases

a. increases; decreases

Algae can be very beneficial, but they cause a problem when they remove a. phosphorus b. ammonium c. nitrates d. iron

d. iron

Which is the source of most radioactive contamination in water? a. It is naturally occurring b. It comes from medical waste deposited in landfills that works its way into the water cycle c. It comes from improper mining operations d. It comes from nuclear power plant waste, past nuclear testing, and nuclear plant accidents

a. It is naturally occurring