Water Flashcards
To pass EPA Water Exam
If increased algae growths are observed in the water supply, you can expect:
A. Decrease dissolved oxygen and pH, increased carbon dioxide
B. Increased dissolved oxygen and pH, decrease carbon dioxide
C. Increase color and hardness, decrease dissolved oxygen and pH
D. Increase dissolved oxygen and pH, decrease hardness
E. none of the above
B. increase dissolved oxygen and pH, decrease carbon dioxide
You are going to fill an up ground reservoir from a stream which is subject to feedlot runoff. What test should be performed to check the water before pumping?
A. Turbidity, sulfates, nitrates B. Hardness, turbidity, pH C. Nitrates, dissolved oxygen, chlorides D. Faster settling rates and a decrease in coagulant dosage E. none of the above
C. Nitrates, dissolved oxygen, chlorides
If you observe an increase in phosphate content of lake water, what would you expect to occur in the plant operation?
A. Filter bed expansion and longer filter runs
B. An increase in algae growth and an increase in coagulant dosage
C. An increase in algae growth and an decrease in coagulant dosage
D. Faster settling rates and a decrease in coagulant dosage
E. none of the above
B. An increase in algae growth and an increase in coagulant dosage
Aeration will do which of the following? A. Increase dissolved oxygen and pH, decrease hydrogen sulfide & CO₂ B. Increase nitrogen, decrease pH C. Increase oxygen, decrease nitrogen D. None of the above
A. Increase dissolved oxygen and pH, decrease hydrogen sulfide & CO₂
Acids, bases, and salts lacking carbon are A. Ketones B. aldehydes C. Organic compounds D. Inorganic compounds
D. Inorganic compounds
Water that's to be analyzed for inorganic metals should be acidified with A. Dilute hydrochloric acid B. concentrated hydrochloric acid C. Dilute nitric acid D. Concentrated nitric acid
D. Concentrated nitric acid
What's the principal scale-forming substance in water? A. Zinc orthophosphate B. Sodium carbonate C. Calcium D. Calcium carbonate
D. Calcium carbonate
High pH favors formation of
A. Haleoacetic acids
B. total trihalomethanes
C. Both haloacetic acids and total trihalomethanes
D. Neither haloacetic acids nor total trihalomethanes
B. total trihalomethanes
Which water quality parameter requires a grab sample? A. pH B. Iron C. Nitrate D. Zinc
A. pH
What is the purpose of aeration?
A. Maximum vapor interface
B. maximum adsorption of colloidal particles
C. Minimum sequesterization of iron and hydrogen sulfide
D. Total removal of oxygen from the water
A. Maximum vapor interface
If raw water has high color and low hardness, which is the best treatment. A. H₂SO₄, NaCO₃, Al₂(SO₄)₃ B. H₂SO₄, Ca(OH)₂, Al₂(SO₄)₃ C. H₂SO₄, NaOH, Al₂(SO₄)3 D. Na₂CO₃, Ca(OH)₂, Al₂(SO₄)₃ E. None of the above
C. H₂SO₄, NaOH, Al₂(SO₄)₃
What is the best pH range for color? A. 2.0-4.0 B. 4.0-6.0 C. 6.0-9.0 D. 4.0-10.0 E. 8.0-12.0
B. 4.0-6.0
Water A alk 190 TH 170 CO₂ 8 Turb 1.5 FE 0.5 Coli 80
Water B alk 50 TH 110 CO₂ 0 Turb 12 FE 0.1 Coli 2
(8A) Determine the best treatment for water A
A. Ion exchange, alum, lime, disinfection
B. alum, filtration, disinfection
C. Soda ash, filtration, disinfection
D. Aeration, alum, disinfection
E. lime, stabilization, filtration, disinfection
(8b) Determine the best treatment for Water B
A. Lime, stabilization, filtration, disinfection
B. ion exchange, blending, disinfection
C. Alum, filtration, disinfection
D. Soda ash, filtration, disinfection
E. filtration, disinfection
(8a) E. lime, stabilization, filtration, disinfection
(8b) C. Alum, filtration, disinfection
If the raw water has low non-carbonate hardness and high alkalinity, which treatment is best?
A. Na₂R B. NaHCO₃ and Lime C. Na₂CO₃ D. Lime E. Lime and Na₂R
D. Lime
Which of the following increase in water that has been treated by sodium ion exchange?
A. CaSO₄, MgSO₄, CaCl₂ B. Na₂R, CaSO₄, CaCl₂ C. Na₂SO₄, NaCl, CaCl₂ D. Na₂SO₄, NaCl, NaNO₃ E. CaCO₃, Mg(OH)₂
D. Na₂SO₄, NaCl, NaNO₃
The chemical combination of substances so as to cause separation in the “insoluble form” best describe:
A. Coagulation B. Flocculation C. Sedimentation D. Precipitation E. Disinfection
D. Precipitation
If the effective size of filter sand passes state standards, but the uniformity coefficient is high, what may you expect?
A. Sand compaction B. No sand compaction C. Increase loss of head D. Decrease loss of head E. None of the above
C. Increase loss of head
As the loss of head increases on a filter, the rate of flow controller will do which of the following?
A. Maintain present flow B. Close down area to flow C. Open up area to flow D. Shut off completely E. None of the above
C. Open up area to flow
Larger particle size and less dense anthracite filter media will produce:
A. Longer filter runs and faster rate of flow
B. Shorter filter runs and slower rate of flow
C. Longer filter runs and slower rate of flow
D. Shorter filter runs and faster rate of flow
E. None of the above
A. Longer filter runs and faster rate of flow
The effective size of the sand in a rapid sand filter should be:
A. 1.3 mm - 1.5 mm
B. 0.8 mm - 1.2 mm
C. 0.35 mm - 0.50 mm
D. 0.15 mm - 0.35 mm
C. 0.35 mm - 0.50 mm
If you have too much CO₃ (30 mg/L) going to the filters, you should expect which of the following?
A. Longer filter runs B. Shorter filter runs C. Higher filtration rates D. Less disinfection E. None of the above
B. Shorter filter runs
TON is determined by examining the water sample with or for the following:
A. Odor free water B. Algae content C. pH meter D. Odor at various distances from the sample E. None of the above
A. Odor free water
The primary problem caused by manganese is what?
A. Filter clogging B. Hardness C. Taste D. Odor E. Staining
E. Staining
At what location should KMnO₄ be added to the water?
A. Raw water B. Flocculator C. Clarifier D. Clear well E. All of the above
A. Raw water
The primary use of KMnO₄ is:
A. Increase pH B. Settling and removal of manganese C. Removal of phenols D. Non-carbonate hardness removal E. Disinfection
B. Settling and removal of manganese
If you have less Ammonia (NH₄) in the water source, you should expect:
A. Chloramines will be formed below breakpoint, more chlorine will be needed to reach breakpoint
B. Chloramines will not be formed below breakpoint, more chlorine is needed to reach breakpoint
C. Chloramines will be formed below breakpoint, less chlorine will be needed to reach breakpoint
D. More CO2 and alum will be required
E. Chloramines will not be formed below breakpoint, less Chloramines will be needed to reach breakpoint
C. Chloramines will be formed below breakpoint, less chlorine will be needed to reach breakpoint
The best treatment for phenol in water is:
A. Chlorine B. Chlorine dioxide C. Activated carbon D. Ozone E. Potassium permanganate
B. Chlorine dioxide
If you install a chlorine dioxide feed system, you must:
A. Maintain a minimum of 500 mg/L chlorine in the feed solution
B. Remove chlorine feed system
C. Have activated carbon available for spills
D. All the above
E. None of the above
A. Maintain a minimum of 500 mg/L chlorine in the feed solution
The term “phenolic value” represents:
A. The adsorption capacity of carbon B. The phenol alkalinity of water C. The disinfection capacity of Ozone D. The amount of organics in water E. None of the above
A. The adsorption capacity of carbon
Anabaena, Ceratium, and Synedra mainly cause:
A. Taste and Odors B. Filter clogging C. Color D. Filter compacting E. None of the above
A. Taste and Odors
Asterionella, Cyclotella, and Melosira algae will cause what?
A. Filter bed expansion B. Taste and odor C. Color D. Filter compacting E. Filter clogging
E. Filter clogging
What chemicals are used to generate chlorine dioxide:
A. Sodium Chloride and Carbon Dioxide B. Chlorine and Sodium Chloride C. Sodium Chloride and Chlorine D. Chlorine and Sodium Chlorite E. Calcium Oxide and Chlorine
D. Chlorine and Sodium Chlorite
Choose the incorrect reaction:
A. Ca(HCO₃)₂+Ca(OH)₂=2CaCO₃+2H₂O B. MgCO₃+Ca(OH)₂=CaCO₃+Mg(OH)₂ C. Mg(HCO₃)₂+Ca(OH)2=MgCO₃+CaCO₃+2H₂O D. CaCl₂+Ca(OH)₂=CaCO₃+CaCl₂ E. CaSO₄+Na₂CO₃=CaCO₃+Na₂SO₄
D. CaCl₂+Ca(OH)₂=CaCO₃+CaCl₂
A decrease in water temperature will effect the solubility of CaOH (Calcium Hydroxide) in what way?
A. Increase it B. Decrease it C. No effect D. None of the above E. Insufficient data, cannot determine
A. Increase it
As the temperature of water increases, you should expect:
A. Viscosity will increase, speed of reactions and settling rate will decrease
B. Viscosity will decrease, speed of reaction and settling rate will increase
C. Viscosity and settling rate increase, speed of reactions will decrease
D. Cannot determine from information given
E. None of the above
B. Viscosity will decrease, speed of reaction and settling rate will increase
If sulfur reducing bacteria are found in the distribution system, what problems should you expect?
A. Increase chlorine demands, lower pH B. Increase chlorine demand, higher pH C. Increase chlorine demand, black water D. Black water, staining E. Staining, lower pH
A. Increase chlorine demands, lower pH
Sodium carbonate is used in Lime-Soda softening to:
A. Remove Magnesium hardness B. Reduce alkalinity C. Lower pH D. Remove non-carbonate hardness E. Increase calcium oxide solubility
D. Remove non-carbonate hardness
The addition of a chemical to a colloidal dispersion resulting in particle destabilization by reduction of the forces tending to keep the particle apart best describe:
A. Coagulation B. Precipitation C. Sequesterization D. Flocculation E. Sedimentation
A. Coagulation
The process wherein the electrostatic or interionic forces cause a chemical bridging or enmeshment of colloidal particles into discrete, visible suspended particles that will readily settle under the influence of gravity best describes:
A. Coagulation B. Precipitation C. Sequesterization D. Flocculation E. Sedimentation
D. Flocculation
A Zeta-potentiometer is used to measure?
A. Ionic activity of colloidal particles B. Effectiveness of the coagulant dosage C. Mono and dichloramine residuals D. Amount of Polyelectrolytes E. Chlorine demand
B. Effectiveness of the coagulant dosage
Which laboratory apparatus is used to measure dissolved solids in water?
A. Spectrophotometer B. Atomic absorption meter C. Amperometric titration D. Zeta-potentiometer E. Conductivity meter
E. Conductivity meter
Poly phosphates are sometimes used to do which of the following?
A. Precipitate colloidal particle B. Sequester iron and manganese C. Sequester excess calcium D. B & C E. A & C
D. B & C
Negative non-carbonate hardness occurs when
A. Phenolphthalein alkalinity exceed total alkalinity
B. Total alkalinity exceed phenolphthalein
C. Total hardness exceed phenolphthalein alkalinity
D. Total alkalinity exceed total hardness
E. None of the above
D. Total alkalinity exceed total hardness
Which of the following causes hardness?
A. Magnesium and calcium B. Calcium and manganese C. Manganese and iron D. Iron and sodium E. B & D
A. Magnesium and calcium
Which two of the following bacteria causes red water?
A. Anabaena B. Fragillaria C. Leptothrix D. Crenothrix E. Trixphokix
C. Leptothrix
D. Crenothrix
If you use 10% of your total finished water to backwash your filter what remedial action must be taken?
A. Replace filter sand B. Improve pretreatment C. Increase filter runs D. Add phosphates E. Nothing, this is acceptable
B. Improve pretreatment
If lime dosage in a lime softening plant is doubled, the result would be?
A. Incrustation B. Increase filter runs C. Decrease in chlorine demand D. Increase in clear well production E. B & C
A. Incrustation
You have a well supply with a total alkalinity of 40 mg/L, total hardness of 200 mg/L, turbidity of 4.5 NTU, and a pH of 9.5. Which series of treatment should be used?
A. Lime, soda ash, carbon, chlorine B. Lime, soda ash, filtration C. Chlorine, carbon, filtration D. Sodium ion exchange, chlorine, filtration E. Lime, chlorine, carbon
D. Sodium ion exchange, chlorine, filtration
Mark the correct equation for recarbonation
A. Ca(OH)₂ + 2CO₂ = CaCO₃ + H₂O B. Ca(OH)₂ + 2CO₂ = Ca(HCO₃)₂ C. Ca(HCO₃) + CO₂ = 2CaCO₃ + H₂O D. Ca(OH)₂ + CO₂= Ca(HCO₃)₂ +H₂O E. None of these above
B. Ca(OH)₂ + 2CO₂ = Ca(HCO₃)₂
What is the maximum 2 consecutive day average for turbidity in drinking water?
A. 10.0 NTU B. 1.0 NTU C. 5.0 NTU D. 0.5 NTU E. 2.0 NTU
D. 0.5 NTU
What is the MCL for trihalomethanes (TTHM) in drinking water?
A. .001 mg/L B. 0.01 mg/L C. 0.08 mg/L D. 100 ug/L E. C & D
C. 0.08 mg/L
Air binding of a filter can be caused by
A. The reduction of pressure resulting from operating under a negative head
B. an increase in the temperature of the water during filtration
C. The release of oxygen by algae collected within the filter
D. All of the above
E. A & B
D. All of the above
If a filter has been out of the service and allowed to go dry, the filter control valve that should be used to refill the filter with water is the:
A. Effluent valve B. influent valve C. Backwash valve D. A or B E. B or C
C. Backwash valve
One of the following is not an index of water quality as it affects corrosivity. Which is it?
A. Langelier index B. ryzner index C. Aggressive index D. AWWA Index E. B & C
D. AWWA Index
Three genera of algae that contribute to loss of head in a filter:
A. Cosmarium, scenedesmus, sphaerocystis B. asterionella, Fragilaria, oscillatoria C. Staurastrum, oocystis, mallomonas D. Cyrosigma, merismopedia, cryptomonas E. Synedra,asterionella, cosmarium
C. Staurastrum, oocystis,mallomonas
One purpose of adding ammonia (NH₄) to potable water is to:
A. Adjust pH B. form combined available chlorine residual C. Remove turbidity D. Destroy TTHM precursors E. protect teeth
B. form combined available chlorine residual
The condition in the infants known as methemoglobinemia is though to be many caused by high concentrations of:
A. Boron B. Phosphates C. Fluoride D. Nitrates E. trihalomethanes
D. Nitrates
M-endo agar is used to
A. Count the number of pathogenic gram-positive organisms by the multiple-tube test
B. detect coliform organisms by the pour plate method
C. Count the number of endocrine organisms in the water by the filtration technique
D. Count the number of total coliform organisms in water by the membrane-filtration technique
E. none of the above
D. Count the number of total coliform organisms in water by the membrane-filtration technique
Trihalomethanes (TTHMs) are formed by the reaction of certain organic compounds in water with
A. Ozone B. free chlorine C. Fluoride D. Combined chlorine E. aluminum sulfate
B. free chlorine
If the septum in the diatomaceous earth filter does not receive a sufficient body coat, the result will be:
A. Shorter filter runs B. turbid effluent C. A decrease in differential pressure D. Damage filter elements E. none of the above
B. turbid effluent
Carbon dioxide in water will do which of the following?
A. Increase turbidity B. decrease turbidity C. Raise pH D. Lower pH E. act as a catalyst for soda ash
D. Lower pH
Partially closing the discharge valve on a centrifugal pump will cause:
A. The motor to draw less amperage B. the motor to run hotter C. The motor to run slower D. The motor to draw more amperage E. the motor to stay the same amperage
A. The motor to draw less amperage
Gas chlorinator, when operated at a high rate of withdrawal from the chlorine cylinder, can result in
A. An explosion B. overheating of the gas cylinder C. Ice formation on the cylinder D. A & B E. none of the above
C. Ice formation on the chlorine cylinder
The one major factor leading to reservoir turnover (elutrification) is caused by
A. The lower strata being warmer than the upper strata
B. the upper strata being more dense than the lower strata
C. The upper strata and the lower strata reaching the same temperature
D. Decaying organic matter causing a gaseous movement t
E. none of the above
B. the upper strata being more dense than the lower strata
A chlorine cylinder valve is thought to be leaking. If ammonia vapor is passed near the valve the presence of a leak would be indicated by
A. Loud noise B. rotten egg smell C. Red vapor D. Yellow vapor E. white vapor
E. white vapor
Which of the following is not expected to be found in a raw water supply?
A. Chlorine B. carbon dioxide C. Hydrogen sulfide D. Methane E. oxygen
A. Chlorine
When both chlorine and polyphosphates are added to a water supply, which should be fed first?
A. Chlorine B. polyphosphates C. Both added simultaneously D. Either may be added first E. none of the above
B. polyphosphates
The membrane filter test for coliform bacteria requires an incubation period of
A. 10 -12 hours B. 22-24 hours C. 20-24 hours D. 24-48 hours E. 24-30 hours
B. 22-24 hours
The maximum holding time for a total coliform sample in the state of Ohio is:
A. 1 day B. 2 days C. 24 hours D. 30 hours E. 8 hours
D. 30 hours
Calcium hypochlorite is formulated as a:
A. Liquid B. gas C. Powder D. Coagulant E. polymer
C. Powder
At what temperature will the fusible plugs in a chlorine cylinder melt:
A. 100-110 degrees C B. 71-74 degrees C C. 160-165 degrees F D. A & C E. B & C
E. B & C
Chlorine is how many times heavier than air?
A. 1.5 B. 2.5 C. 4.5 D. 5.5 E. chlorine is lighter than air
B. 2.5
In counting total coliform colonies, the maximum number of colonies allowed to grow on a petri dish is:
A. 20 B. 40 C. 60 D. 80 E. no limit
D. 80
Two identical pressure gauges at the foot of two storage tanks are at the same elevation. The water levels in the tanks are the same, but one holds 1,000,000 gallons while the other holds 1,000 gallons. The gauge on the 1,000 gallon tank reads 80 psi. What should the gauge read on the 1,000,000 gallon tank?
A. 800 psi
B. cannot be determined
C. 80 psi
D. 1000 psi
C. 80 psi
Water is most dense at.
A. 0 C B. 4 C C. 32 C D. 32 F E. 0 F
B. 4 C
The operator of a public water system had a water sample show a MCL violation for barium of 2.5 mg/L. Three repeat samples were analyzed. The average of all the 4 samples was 1.5 mg/L. To comply with the regulations the operator would:
A. Report the violation to the Director of the Ohio EPA within 7 days.
B. provide public notification pursuant of the Ohio EPA regulations
C. Continue monitoring for barium at least once per month until 2 successive samples comply with the MCL
D. Perform all of the above
E. perform none of the above
D. Perform all of the above
How many repeat samples are required when a regular bacteria sample is positive?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
D. 4
Where must the repeat samples be collected?
A. All at the same tap
B. spread through out the system
C. One at the same tap, one within 5 service connections upstream, 1 within 5 services connections downstream, and 1 within 5 service connections upstream or downstream
D. One at the same tap, one within five service connections upstream, one within ten service connections downstream, and one within fifteen service connections upstream or downstream
C. One at the same tap, one within five service connections upstream, one within five service connections downstream, one within five services upstream or downstream
What should an operator do in the event one or more of the repeat samples are positive
A. Notify the OEPA
B. take additional samples
C. Issue a public notice and boil advisory
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
When a system has at least one positive bacteria sample the preceding month, what is the minimum number of regular bacteria samples the operator must collect during the current month?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 7
C. 5
The SDWA prescribes MCLs for flouride based upon:
A. Annual average of minimum daily water temperatures
B. Annual average of maximum daily air temperatures
C. Monthly average of maximum daily water temperatures
D. Monthly average of maximum daily air temperatures
B. annual average of maximum daily air temperatures
USEPA established a maximum contaminant level goal for Pb of
A. 1.0 mg/L
B. 1.3 mg/L
C. More then 10% exceed 15 ppb
D. 0.0 mg/L
C. More then 10% exceed 15 ppb
Because lead contamination of drinking water often results from corrosion of plumbing materials belonging to customers, EPA established a treatment technique rather then an MCL for lead.
In order to comply with the new rule, lead and copper rule purveyors may have to perform the following
A. Install corrosion control treatment
B. remove Pb and/or Cu from the raw water source(s)
C. Replace Pb service lines
D. Begin a public education program dealing with Pb and Cu
E. all of the above
E. all of the above
A correct “first-draw” sample will be
A. Be 500ml in volume B. be 1 L in volume C. Stood motionless for 5 hours D. Stood motionless for at least 360 minutes E. both A & C F. Bothe B & D
F. Both B & D
The motor of a centrifugal pump over heats because a high volume of water is being pumped against a low head. The pump discharge valve is throttled back so that only 30% of the original volume is being pumped. What will this do the motor temperature?
A. Temp will increase
B. temp will remain the same
C. Temp will decrease
D. Temp will decrease slightly but then increase sharply
C temp will decrease
Sodium alkalinity is also known as negative non carbonate hardness (NaHCO₃) because it reacts with lime to
A. Reduce carbonate hardness
B. reduce sodium hardness
C. Reduce all forms of alkalinity
D. Reduce no carbonate hardness
D. Reduce noncarbonate hardness
Soda ash is used with the ion exchange method of softening for what purpose?
A. Adjust the corrosion index to the scale forming side
B. adjust the corrosion index to non scale forming side
C. Adjust negative noncarbonate hardness
D. Adjust sodium bicarbonate alkalinity
A. Adjust the corrosion. Index to the scale forming side
Two samples (A & B) with the same pH were stored at different temperatures; sample A at 5 degrees C and sample B at 160 degrees C. Sample A, after storage, had a pH of 8.8 and sample B, after storage, had a pH of 7.0. What happens to calcium carbonate as temperature increases?
A. CaCO₃ dissolves
B. CaCO₃ deposits
C. CaCO₃ does not change
D. CaCO₃ does not relate to pH
B. CaCO₃ deposits
Which two points on a gravity filter are used to measure head loss?
A. At the sand level and at the filter outlet
B. above the sand and above the filter outlet
C. Above the sand and at the filter outlet
D. At the filter inlet and at the filter outlet
C. Above the sand and at the filter outlet
Which statement is untrue regarding a chlorine leak?
A. Allow only trained people with proper breathing equipment to handle the leak
B. apply water to the leak to stop the flow of gas
C. Use a suitable repair kit designed for the type of cylinder in use
D. Evacuate other personnel to higher ground
E. call a local fire department
B. apply water to the leak to stop the flow of gas
You have 1.0 mg/L manganese in your finished water. What can you expect?
A. Low hardness
B. no problems
C. Staining of plumbing fixtures
D. Lowering of Cl2 demand
C. Staining of plumbing fixtures
Per SDWA, which statement is not true for chemical analysis?
A. Records must be kept for 5 years
B. date, place, time of sample, and name of sampler must be kept
C. Sample must be identified as to type
D. Data may be transferred to tabular summaries
A. Records must be kept for 5 years
You have organic color in the raw water. What is the best treatment?
A. CaCO₃, Na₂R, Na₂CO₃
B. H₂SO, Al₂(SO₄)₃, NaOH
C. Lime, Al₂(SO₄)₃, NaOH
D. Na₂R, Al₂(SO₄)₃, NaOH
B. H₂SO, Al₂(SO₄)₃, NaOH
With less NH₃ in the raw water, what will you notice?
A. Chloramines formed after breakpoint, less Cl₂ needed to reach breakpoint
B. Chloramines formed before breakpoint, less Cl₂ needed to reach breakpoint
C. Chloramines formed after breakpoint, more Cl₂ needed to reach breakpoint
D. Chloramines formed before breakpoint, more Cl₂ needed to reach breakpoint
B. Chloramines formed before breakpoint, less Cl₂ needed to reach breakpoint
Blue Baby Syndrome is caused by what?
A. High phosphates
B. High nitrates
C. Low Cl₂ residual
D. High Ag
B. High nitrates
You find 4 coliforms on a distribution sample plate. You should:
A. Get one check sample from the same sampling point
B. get 2 consecutive samples from the same sampling point
C. Resample and report to OEPA
D. Get 4 repeat samples
D. Get 4 repeat samples
The fusible plug on a chlorine cylinder will melt at which temperature?
A. 143-155 degrees F
B. 157-162 degrees F
C. 165-178 degrees F
D. 175-186 degrees F
B. 157-162 degrees F
Aeration will do which of the following:
A. Increase D.O. and pH, decrease H₂S and CO₂
B. Decrease D.O. And pH, increase H₂S and CO₂
C. Increase D.O. and H₂S, decrease pH and CO₂
D. Decrease D.O. and H₂S, increase pH and CO₂
A. Increase D.O. and pH, decrease H₂S and CO₂
How do you soften non-carbonate hardness?
A. Lime
B. Lime and zeolite
C. Na₂CO₃
D. Caustic
D. Caustic
Plant turbidity samples are required to be taken at a minimum of every 4 hours. What percent of a months worth of samples must be below 0.5 NTU?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 90%
D. 95%
D. 95%
CT values are expressed in what units?
A. ug/L-minutes
B. mg/L-minutes
C. kg/L-minutes
B. mg/L-minutes
What is the best treatment for phenols?
A. ClO₂
B. Cl₂
C. O₃
D. KMnO₄
A. ClO₂
Activated carbon is rated according to what?
A. Sieve size
B. Causticity
C. pH
D. Phenolic value
D. Phenolic value
Too much carbonate deposition on the filters will cause what?
A. Longer filter runs
B. Shorter filter runs
C. Higher turbidity
D. Lower turbidity
B. Shorter filter runs
You find 1.3 mg/L Barium at a customers sink outlet. You should:
A. Notify customer and resample within 48 hours at the sample location
B. Do nothing
C. Notify the media within 72 hours and resample same day at the same location
D. Report to OEPA within 7 days and initiate 3 additional analyses at the same point
B. Do nothing
MCL Barium is 2.0 mg/L
What is the optimum filter rate for a rapid sand filter according to standard practices?
A. 0.5-1 gpm/sq.ft.
B. 2-4 gpm/sq.ft.
C. 10-13 gpm/sq.ft.
D. 15-20 gpm/sq.ft.
B. 2-4 gpm/sq.ft.
What is the best chemical to treat with if you have low hardness and high alkalinity?
A. Lime
B. lime and zeolite
C. Na2CO3
D. Caustic
A. Lime
Sodium ion exchange increases what in the finished water?
A. Ca(SO₄), MgSO₄, Mg(OH)₂
B. Na₂SO₄, NaCl, NaNO₃
C. Na₂CO₃, CaCl₂, MgCO₃
D. NaOH, Ca(OH)₂, Na₂CO₃
B. Na₂SO₄, NaCl, NaNO₃
The action level for copper at the customers tap is based on what percentage?
A. 95% of samples being above 1300 ug/L
B. 5% of samples being above 1300 ug/L
C. None of the above
C. None of the above
MCL 1.3 mg/L
SMCL 1.0 mg/L
90% of samples
Which sets of parameters are needed to calculate CT values?
A. Reactor Cl2 residual, pH,temp. in Celcius, raw flow gpm, reactor width,baffling factor
B. Reactor Cl2 residual, pH, temp in Fahrenheit, finished flow gpm, reactor depth, baffling factor
C. Reactor Cl2 residual, raw water flow gpm, reactor volume, baffling factor
D. Reactor Cl2 residual, raw flow gpm, reactor depth, baffling factor
C. Reactor Cl2 residual, raw water flow gpm, reactor volume, baffling factor
You install a ClO2 set up in your plant. You must:
A. Maintain a 500 mg/L Cl2 in solution containing Chlorites
B. Maintain a 500 mg/L chlorites in solution containing Cl2
C. Keep a two week supply of ClO2 on hand as a minimum
D. Keep a one week supply of Cl2 on hand as a minimum
A. Maintain a 500 mg/L Cl2 in solution containing chlorites
As the temperature of water decreases, the ability of the floc particles to settle will do what?
A. Decrease
B. Increase
C. Stay the same
A. Decrease
What is the best pH range for color removal?
A. 1-4
B. 3-5
C. 4-6
D. 6-8
C. 4-6
KMnO₄ is primarily used for:
A. Taste and odor control
B. Settling and manganese removal
C. Chemical regeneration
D. Disinfection
B. Settling and manganese removal
Name the taste and odor algae.
A. Volvox, coliform, aphanizominon
B. Cyclotella, asterionella, Melosira
C. Anabaena, Ceratium, Synedra
C. Anabaena, Ceratium, Synedra
Effective size of sand passes state standards, but uniformity coefficient is high. You can expect:
A. Sand compacting
B. Sand non-compacting
C. Decrease loss of head
D. Increase loss of head
D. Increase loss of head
As the loss of head increases on a filter, the rate of flow controller will do what?
A. Openup to area of flow
B. Close to area of flow
C. Try to remain at same opening
A. Open up to area of flow
SDWA approved method for Cl2 residual:
A. OTA
B. Amperometric colorimeter
C. DPD
D. NTU
C. DPD
TON is measured by using what?
A. Conductivity meter
B. Odor free water
C. pH probe
B. Odor free water
At the same flow rate, what will bethe effect on the velocity when the pipe diameter is doubled?
A. Increase velocity twofold
B. Decrease velocity twofold
C. Increase velocity fourfold
D. Decrease velocity fourfold
D. Decrease velocity fourfold
Which is the least corrosive water?
A. High calcium, low alkalinity
B. high alkalinity, high calcium
C. High alkalinity, low calcium
D. High calcium, high residual Cl2
B. high alkalinity, high calcium
You are going to fill your up ground reservoir from a stream which is subject to feed lot runoff. What do you test for?
A. NO₃, D.O., Cl
B. SO₄, PO₄, Cl
C. CO, NO₃, SO₄
D. Algae, Cl, coliform
A. NO₃, D.O., Cl
Choose the incorrect formula:
A. Ca(HCO₃)₂+Ca(OH)₂=2CaCO₃+2H₂O B. MgCO₃+Ca(OH)₂=CaCO₃+Mg(OH)₂ C. Mg(HCO₃)₂+Ca(OH)₂=MgCO₃+CaCO₃+2H₂O D. CaCl₂+Ca(OH)₂=CaCO₃+CaCl₂ E. CaSO4+Na2CO₃=CaCO₃+Na2SO4
D. CaCl₂+Ca(OH)₂=CaCO₃+CaCl₂
Which statement is untrue regarding a ClO₂ system in your plant?
A. Maintain a 500 mg/L Cl₂ in solution containing chlorites
B. the solution has a jgreenish-yellow color
C. Feed water should be softened to less than 100 mg/L
D. 2NaClO₂+Cl₂–>2ClO₂+2NaCl
C. Feed water should be softened to less than 100 mg/L
Partially closing the discharge valve on a centrifugal pump will cause:
A. The motor to draw less amperage
B. the motor to run hotter
C. The motor to run slower
D. The motor to draw more amperage
A. The motor to draw less amperage
Which laboratory apparatus is used to measure dissolved solids in water?
A. Spectrophotometer
B. Arnperometric titrator
C. Conductivity meter
D. Zeta-potentiometer
C. Conductivity meter
Larger particle size and less dense filter media will produce:
A. Shorter filter runs and slower rate of flow
B. longer filter runs and faster rate of flow
C. Longer filter runs and slower rate of flow
D. Shorter filter runs and faster rate of flows
B. longer filter runs and faster rate of flows
If lime dosage in a lime softening plant is doubled, the result would be?
A. Incrustation
B. increase filter runs
C. Decrease in chlorine demand
D. Increase in clear well production
A. Incrustation
For breakpoint chlorination the optimum pH for chlorine feed is:
A. 6.5-7.5
B. less then 7.0
C. Greater then 8.0
D. 7.0-8.0
D. 7.0-8.0
The motor of a centrifugal pump overheats because a high volume of water is being pumped against a low head. The pump discharge valve is throttled back so that only 30% of the original volume is being pumped. What will this do to the motor temperature?
A. Temperature will increase
B. temperature will remain the same
C. Temperature will decrease
D. Temperature will decrease slightly but then increase sharply
C. Temperature will decrease
Sodium alkalinity is also known as negative noncarbonate hardness (NaHCO₃) because it reacts with lime to:
A. Reduce carbonate hardness
B. reduce sodium hardness
C. Reduce all forms of alkalinity
D. Reduce noncarbonate hardness
Reduce noncarbonate hardness
What should you notice after well water has been aerated?
A. Increase D.O. And pH, decrease H₂S and CO₂
B. increase D.O. And H₂S, decrease pH and CO₂
C. Decrease D.O. And pH, increase H₂S and CO₂
D. Decrease D.O. And H₂S, increase pH and CO₂
A. Increase D.O. And pH, decrease H₂S and CO₂
The pH is a measure of?
A. Conductivity
B. waters ability to neutralize acid
C. Hydrogen ion activity
D. Dissolved solids
C. Hydrogen ion activity
The primary source of volatile organic contamination (VOC) of water supplies is?
A. Agricultural
B. Industrial solvents
C. Acid rain
D. Agricultural fertilizers
B. industrial solvents
Hydrogen sulfide gas causes?
A. Corrosion of structures and equipment
B. high pH values
C. Destruction of algae
D. Destruction of bacteria
A. Corrosion of structures and equipment
The type of corrosion caused by the use of dissimilar metals in a water system is?
A. Caustic corrosion
B. galvanic corrosion
C. Oxygen corrosion
D. Tubercular corrosion
B. galvanic corrosion
Chlorine reacts with nitrogenous compounds to form?
A. Ammonia nitrate
B. free chlorine
C. Chlorinated hydrocarbons
D. Chloramines
D. Chloramines
If solids in water have an average specific gravity of 1.20, they are?
A. 12% heavier then water
B. 20% heavier then watere
C. 2% heavier then water
D. 20% lighter then water
B. 20% heavier the water
Cavitation in pumps may be caused by pumping?
A. Against discharge heads higher than design
B. excessive amounts of abrasive solids
C. Flow rates considerably higher then design flows
D. With impeller speed below manufacturers recommendations
C. Flow rates considerably higher than design flows
Trihalomethanes (THM) precursors are_________compounds?
A. Chloramines
B. methane
C. Natural organic
D. Synthetic organic
C. Natural organic
Three most commonly used coagulants in water treatment are?
A. Aluminum hydroxide, lime, and sodium hydroxide
B. aluminum sulfate, ferric chloride, and ferrous sulfate
C. Lime, sodium hydroxide, and chlorine
D. Soda, lime, and chlorine
B. aluminum hydroxide, ferric chloride, and ferrous sulfate
In order for a chemical to function satisfactorily as a coagulant, it must?
A. Destroy bacteria
B. react with the alkalinity in the water causing floc formations
C. React with the lime
D. Remove taste and odors
B. react with the alkalinity in the water causing floc formations
Alkalinity in water serves as?
A. A measure of the concentration of calcium
B. a mild disinfectant
C. A measure of the water capacity to neutralize an acid
D. A corrosion inhibitor
C. A measure of the water capacity to neutralize an acid
Greensand is often used as a filter medium for wate with high?
A. Turbidity
B. manganese concentrations
C. Bacteria counts
D. Magnesium concentrations
B. manganese concentrations
Chemicals that cause alkalinity in water are?
A. Calcium carbonate and calcium oxide
B. calcium sulfate and sodium sulfate
C. Magnesium chloride and iron chloride
D. Sodium chloride and calcium chloride
A. Calcium carbonate and calcium oxide
The process in which dye or fluoride is added to the water to test for velocity?
A. Velocity test
B. tracer study
C. Dye test
D. Velocity study
B. tracer study
In direct filter plant which process is skipped?
A. Flocculation
B. coagulation
C. Flash mix
D. Sedimentation
D. Sedimentation
Which is not a polymer?
A. Anionic
B. cationic
C. Nonionic
D. Covalent
D. Covalent
The chemical transformation of a substance in solution into an insoluble form is?
A. Coagulation B. sequestration C. Precipitate D. Flocculation E. sedimentation
C. Precipitate
Which of the following conditions, when found in the water supply, would tend to increase the corrosiveness of the water on metals?
A. High dissolved CO₂ content
B. high alkalinity
C. Low dissolved CO₂ content
D. Low dissolved minerals
A. High dissolved CO₂ content
The principal reason for using soda-ash in the lime-soda softening process is to?
A. Absorb
B. remove non-carbonate hardness
C. Adjust corrosion index to scale forming side
D. Maintain proper sulfate-carbonate
B. remove non-carbonate hardness
What is the amount of time water should set in the distribution line before a lead and copper sample is drawn?
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 6 hours
D. 6 hours
Which chemical is considered the most effective for removing or destroying the effect phenols have in water?
A. ClO₂
B. Cl₂
C. Activated carbon
D. KmNO₄
A. ClO₂
Which raw materials are used to generate chlorine dioxide?
A. Sodium chlorate and chlorine
B. sodium chlorite and chlorine
C. Sodium chloride and chlorine
D. Sodium hypochlorite and chlorine
B. Sodium chlorite and chlorine
When selecting a coagulant and a coagulant aid you should check for which of the following?
A. Temperature B. pH C. Hardness D. Alkalinity E. All of the above
E. All of the above
What makes non-carbonate hardness?
A. Hydroxides B. carbonates C. Nitrates D. Bi-carbonates E. soda ash
A. Hydroxides
Temperature decreases what happens?
A. Settling increases, chemical use increases
B. settling decreases, chemical use decreases
C. Settling decreases, chemical use increases
D. Settling stays the same, chemical use stays the same
E. doesn’t matter because I’m moving to florida
C. Settling decreases, chemical use increases
Filter sand size increase do to?
A. Over feed soda-ash B. over feed carbonization C. Under feed carbonization D. Under feed soda-ash E. too long of a filter back wash
A. Over feed soda-ash
Required to monitor for which inorganic?
A. Fluoride, arsenic, nitrates and nitrites B. Arsenic, antimony, and cadmium C. Fluoride, asbestos, and cyanide D. Mercury, selenium, and thallium E. Nitrate, nitrite, and selenium
A. Fluoride, arsenic, nitrates, and nitrites
How to calculate pump draw down?
A. Static level - cone of depression B. Ground level - pump centerline C. Pump centerline - drawdown level D. Cone of depression - pump centerline E. Cone of depression - static level
A. Static level - cone of depression
What does MRDL stand for?
A. Mean Residual Detection Limit B. Maximum Residual Detection Limit C. Minimum Reaident Duration Length D. Minimum Range Detection Length E. Minimum Range Detection Limit
E. Minimum Range Detection Limit
Which of the following is not a physical characteristic of water?
A. Temperature B. Color C. Taste D. Odor E. Hardness
E. Hardness
Which of the following is not a sludge thickening process?
A. Drying beds B. Slow sand filter C. Spiractor equipment D. Belt press E. Micro waving
B. slow sand filter
Which process does not remove Fe and Mn?
A. Base exchange B. filtration C. Flocculation D. Oxidation E. aeration
C. Flocculation
What is the minimum distance from a sewer line to a water main laying horizontal to each other under ground?
A. There are no limits B. 20' C. 22' D. 10' E. 5'
D. 10’
What is the minimum distance a water line can be placed under a sewer main under ground?
A. 24" B. 36" C. 48" D. 18" E. None of the above
E. None of the above
What is the minimum distance a water line can be placed over a sewer main underground?
A. 24" B. 36" C. 18" D. 48" E. None of the above
C. 18”
How are three phase motors usually protected?
A. Circuit breakers B. fuses C. Amp meters D. Transformers E. overload relays
E. overload relays
What does MPN stand for?
A. Maximum Population Number B. Minimum Population Number C. Maximum Phosphorus Number D. Most Probable Number E. Most Potable Number
D. Most Probable Number
What does IDLH stand for?
A. Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health
B. Immediate Dial Left on Hand Operation
C. Indefinite Direction Left-Hand Turn
D. Immediately Dangers do to Lightning and Hale
E. Indefinite Destruction to Life and Health
A. Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health
What does a Vacuum Regulator - Check Unit do Ina chlorine feed system?
A. Regulations chlorine feed rate manually
B. Maintains a constant vacuum on chlorinator
C. Discharges solution mixture of chlorine and water
D. Mixes or injects chlorine gas into water supply
E. Provides source of air to reduce excess vacuum
B. Maintains a constant vacuum on chlorinator
The unit used to measure current strength
A. Ampere B. Watt C. Volt D. Kilowatt hour E. Current
A. Ampere
Why are zinc and magnesium commonly used as sacrificial anodes in water tanks and for buried pipes?
A. Last longer than other metals in corrosive waters
B. They will not corrode
C. They form a protective coating over other metals
D. They corrode preferentially to aluminum and iron
E. They are the cheapest thing that we can find
D. They corrode preferentially to aluminum and iron
Which of the following chemical factors influence corrosion?
A. pH B. Dissolved solids C. Dissolved oxygen D. Hardness E. Alkalinity
A. pH
Which chemicals should be added to achieve calcium carbonate saturation in waters with high levels of hardness and alkalinity?
A. Soda ash B. Hydrated lime C. Calcium hydroxide D. Caustic soda E. Quicklime
B. Hydrated lime
What are the health effects from copper in drinking water?
A. Stomach and intestinal distress B. Increased blood pressure C. Cancer D. Deficits in hearing E. All of the above
E. All of the above
How can a water utility anticipate the onset of a taste and odor episode?
A. By sampling and analyzing raw water
B. By keeping complete and accurate records of outbreaks
C. By expecting health department to warn utility in advance
D. By relying on consumers to anticipate outbreaks
E. Just wait for them to happen and apologize
A. By sampling and analyzing raw water
Where is powdered activated carbon often applied?
A. At flocculation tanks B. After filtration C. After chlorination D. Out in distribution system E. at the flash mixer
E. at the flash mixer
What is the best early warning of waste water contamination of the source of wat?
A. An increase in raw water flows B. A failure of a bacteriological test C. An increase in coliform counts D. A sudden drop in chlorine residual E. a sudden bloom of algae
D. A sudden drop in chlorine residual
Your water treatment plant uses 39.6 lbs of cationic polymer to treat a flow of 2.71 MGD. What is the polymer dosage?
A. .07 ppm
B. 1.75 ppm
C. 14.61 ppm
D. 3.23 ppm
B. 1.75 ppm
A physical link between a potable water supply and one of unknown or questionable quality is ________.
A. A cross connection
B. a Tier 1 violation
C. A boil water advisory
D. A back flow prevention assembly
A. A cross connection
The purpose of stabilization is ________.
A. To prevent floc from rising in the basin
B. to prevent sludge from entering filters
C. To prevent corrosion or excessive scale from entering the distribution system
D. To prevent excessive turbidity at the top of the filters
C. To prevent corrosion or excessive scale from entering the distribution system
Core sampling is a viable way to check the condition of your __________.
A. Raw water
B. coagulation process
C. Finished water
D. Filters
D. Filters
The best cross connection device is ___________.
A. Air gap
B. double check
C. Atmospheric vacuum breaker
D. Barometric loop
A. Air gap
________ ________ are used to cause particles to become destabilized and begin to clump together.
A. Coagulant aids
B. nonsettable solids
C. Zeta particles
D. Primary coagulants
D. Primary coagulants
The hydrologic cycle relates to _________.
A. The treatment processes
B. an old Harley
C. Movement of water in the environment
D. The moons pull on tide waters
C. Movement of water in the environment
Surface waters are more difficult to clean up or remediate than groundwater.
A. True
B. False
B. False
Figure the weir overflow rate if your flow is 3.1 cuft/sec and the diameter of the weir is 28 ft..
A. 1391.28 gpm/ft of weir
B. 15.8 gpm/ft of weir
C. .035 gpm/ft of weir
D. 296 gpm/ft of weir
B. 15.8 gpm/ft of weir
_________ has been implicated in more waterborne disease outbreaks than any other factor.
A. Improper treatment
B. main breaks
C. Improper or inadequate flushing
D. Back flow
D. Backflow
Your treatment facility uses 97 lbs of chlorine a day to disinfect the 4 MGD you treat. Those 97 lbs results in a chlorine concentration of 2.9 ppm. When checking the furthest area of your system you discover that residual is .6 ppm chlorine. What is your demand?
A. 3.5 ppm
B. 1.7 ppm
C. 2.3 ppm
D. 3.5 ppm
C. 2.3 ppm
The basin in Wahootchie’s water plant measure 60 feet long by 40 feet wide by 8 feet deep. The flow through this plant is 4.1 cuft/sec. What is the detention time?
A. 1 hour 18 minutes
B. 144 minutes
C. 449 minutes
D. 2 hours 24 minutes
A. 1 hour 18 minutes
This device is approved to protect against back flow and backsiphonage in high hazard applications.
A. Double check valve assembly
B. Vacuum pressure breaker
C. A hose bib
D. Reduced pressure zone assembly
D. Reduced pressure zone assembly
One method of determining if your finished water has the likelihood to be corrosive is ___________.
A. Van der Waals formula
B. Zeta potential
C. Langeliers Saturation Index
D. Hydrological Cycles
C. Langeliers Saturation Index
The filters in the treatment plant are 40 feet by 20 feet by 7 feet deep. The flow is 1500 gpm. What is the filtration rate?
A. .26 gpm/sq ft
B. 1.9 gpm/sq ft
C. 2.6 gpm/sq ft
D. 3.7 gpm/sq ft
B. 1.9 gpm/sq ft
A sanitary survey is used to determine _________.
A. Source water characteristics and effectiveness of treatment
B. the hygienic and operational aspects of the plant
C. Compliance with the SDWA and other EPA mandates
D. Whether the CCR is complete and accurate
A. Source water characteristics and effectiveness of treatment
In solid contact units, the three main operational fundamentals are ________________.
A. Sedimentation, slurry, and suspended solids
B. mixing, clarifying, and filtration
C. Chemical dosage, recirculation rate, and sludge control
D. Weighing agents, alkalinity, and PAC
C. Chemical dosage, recirculation rate, and sludge control
Particle counters can be used in place of ____________ in the treatment process to obtain better control.
A. Flash mixers
B. variable drives
C. Filter coring
D. Turbidimeters
D. Turbidimeters
In their soluble or reduced state, iron and manganese are _______.
A. Alkalinity enhancers
B. colorless
C. Negatively charged
D. Won’t dissolve in water
B. colorless
________ corrosion is the corrosivity of dissimilar metals.
A. Saline
B. hydroxyl
C. Excessive
D. Galvanic
D. Galvanic
The two types of back flow are ________________.
A. Backsiphonage and backpressure
B. backpressure and cavitation
C. Air gap and rpz
D. Dynamic and backsiphonage
A. Backsiphonage and backpressure
25 MGD is equivalent to ___________.
A. 1122 gpm and 1560 cu/ft of water
B. 36000 gpm and 187 cu/ft per sec
C. 17362 gpm and 38.75 cu/ft per sec
D. 15600 gpm and 466.7 cu/ft per sec
C. 17362 gpm and 38.75 cu/ft per sec
When chlorine is used as a disinfectant in water there reaches a point when the amount of chlorine added is reflected identically with the amount of free residual measured on your DPD___________.
A. Chloramination
B. breakpoint
C. Ozone
D. Liftoff
B. breakpoint
pH, by definition is _________.
A. The ability of particles to stick together
B. the ability to cause color to turn insoluble
C. Causes a water molecule to bring in a third hydrogen atom
D. The hydrogen ion concentration in water
D. The hydrogen ion concentration in water
Which of these does NOT have a primary MCL?
A. Nitrate
B. fluoride
C. Manganese
D. Copper
C. Manganese
During the coagulation/flocculation process, particle impurities can be divided into two classifications.
A. Primary coagulants and coagulant aids
B. settleable and nonsettable solids
C. Hydraulic and mechanical
D. Paddlewheel and walking beam
B. settleable and nonsettable
You have cracks appearing in your coagulation basin. If the basin is 20 feet wide and 60 feet long and the water is 12 feet deep. How many gallons will need to be pumped out of this basin so work can begin?
A. 107712 gallons
B. 9600 gallons
C. 14400 gallons
D. 211384 gallons
A. 107712 gallons
MCLG is an acronym for
A. Most Common Lucky Guess
B. Minimum Collodial Level Goals
C. Maximum Chlorine Level Gallons
D. Maximum Contaminant Level Goals
D. Maximum Contaminate Level Goals
___________ polymers are positively charged.
A. Nonionic
B. anionic
C. Cationic
D. Platonic
C. Cationic
Water if flowing through a completely filled 10 inch line at 4 cuft/sec. What is the velocity?
A. .4 fps
B. 7.3 fps
C. 2.5 fps
D. 4.0 cuft/sec
B. 7.3 fps
Generally, the more uniform the media, the ________ the rate of headless.
A. Slower
B. same
C. Smaller
D. Larger
A. Slower
The flow through a water plant is 5.25 MGD. Jar test have indicated that the desired dosage of lime is 150 mg/L. What would the correct lime feeder setting per day and per minute?
A. 3294.0 lbs a day/2.29 lbs a minute
B. 6567.8 lbs a day/4.56 lbs a minute
C. 4930.9 lbs a day/3.42 lbs a minute
D. 6587.8 lbs a day/274.5 lbs a minute
B. 6567.8 lbs a day/4.56 lbs a minute
Water is moving through a 22 inch pipe at a velocity of 3.5 fps. What is the flow?
A. 6.77 cuft/sec
B. .15 cuft/sec
C. 4.6 fps
D. 9.2 cuft/sec
D. 9.2 cuft/sec
In conventional rectangular sedimentation basins, 50% of the sludge should settle out in the __________ __________ of the basin.
A. First third
B. last half
C. Very beginning
D. Tail end
A. First third
The treatment facility treats 100,000 cuft of water a day and operates for 18 hours a day. How much water do they treat a day expressed in MGD?
A. .75 MGD
B. 1.80 MGD
C. 2.92 MGD
D. 5.75 MGD
A. .75 MGD
The Langeliers Saturation Index provided an indication of ___________.
A. The solubility of iron and manganese
B. the pH necessary to settle out color
C. The rate at which particles will settle
D. The likelihood that your source water is corrosive
D. The likelihood that your source water is corrosive
The most common operational complaint received by a water operator is __________.
A. Water rates are too high
B. taste and odor
C. Your uniforms aren’t stylish enough
D. Improper treatment techniques
B. taste and odors
The Van der Waals principle refers to __________.
A. Oppositely charged particles attract
B. the settling rate of suspended solids
C. The benefits of early oxidation
D. The backwash rates of multi media filters
A. Oppositely charged particles attract
Coupon testing is a viable indicator of __________.
A. Treatment optimization
B. the speed at which macrofloc is formed
C. The corrosive or scale forming tendencies of your water
D. The super saturation level of dissolved oxygen in your water
C. The corrosive or scale forming tendencies of your water
The time necessary to perform the coagulation, flocculation, and settling processes in treatment are correctly listed in what order, starting with coagulation?
A. Days, weeks, months
B. hours, minutes, seconds
C. Weeks, months, years
D. Seconds, minutes, hours
D. Seconds, minutes, hours
Overdosing of potassium permanganate will likely cause ___________.
A. An extremely high pH
B. pink water
C. Taste and odor
D. Inadequate settling
B. pink water
Which of the following is most likely to be used as a primary coagulant?
A. Brine
B. ammonious hydroxide
C. Ferric sulfate
D. Sodium thiosulfate
C. Ferric sulfate
Desirable media characteristics include ________________.
A. Permeability
B. solubility in water
C. Full of impurities
D. Hard and durable
D. Hard and durable
The two types of removal mechanisms for gravity filters are ______________.
A. Redundant and repetitive
B. mechanical and adsorption
C. Coagulation and flocculation
D. Regeneration and renewal
B. mechanical and adsorption
The LT2ESWTR has decreed that we test our source water for the presence of ____________.
A. Algae
B. pharmaceuticals
C. Cryptosporidium
D. Nitrate
C. Cryptosporidium
Heterotrophic plate counts measure ____________.
A. All pathogens in the sample
B. all bacteria in the sample
C. All giardiasis lamblia in the sample
D. Percent of sludge in the sample
B. all bacteria in the sample
Combined filter effluent must be less than ________NTU in 95% of all measurements (collected every 4 hours) for each month.
A. 1.0 NTU
B. 2.0 NTU
C. 3.0 NTU
D. 0.3 NTU
D. 0.3 NTU
Total coliform samples have a __________ hold time.
A. 12 hour
B. 24 hour
C. 30 hour
D. 36 hour
C. 30 hour
Extremely soft water can cause problems with pipes and fittings because it is ______________.
A. Corrosive
B. Scale forming
C. Full of suspended solids
D. Toxic
A. Corrosive
Fluoride is added to water to ____________.
A. Create a nuisance
B. aid in the development of teeth and bones
C. So there is something that has both a primary and secondary MCL
D. aid in the protective coating of pipes
B. aid in the development of teeth and bones
An atmospheric vacuum breaker backflow prevention device protects against _________________.
A. Backflow
B. Backsiphonage and backpressure
C. Neither
D. Backsiphonage
D. Backsiphonage
The best pH level for coagulation usually falls in the range of __________.
A. 4-6
B. 5-7
C. 7-9
D. 1-3
B. 5-7
Which, surface water or ground water, usually contain a higher level of pathogens?
A. Surface water
B. ground water
C. Both are equal
D. Neither
A. Surface water
High nitrate levels in the water can cause _________.
A. Rickets
B. cholera
C. Blue baby syndrome
D. Dysentery
C. Blue baby syndrome
35 degrees celsius is equivalent to ____________ degrees fahrenheit.
A. 0
B. 95
C. 1.6
D. 55
B. 95
The mixing of coagulant chemicals and raw water is called ____________.
A. Flocculation
B. aeration
C. Reverse osmosis
D. Flash mixing
D. Flash mixing
Sedimentation basins have _________ zones.
A. Five
B. four
C. Three
D. Two
B. four
The flow of a 48 inch pipe is 8590 gpm. What is the velocity?
A. 3.05 fps
B. 4.77 fps
C. 1.52 fps
D. 2.33 fps
C. 1.52 fps
Chlorine gas is _________ times _________ than air.
A. 2.5 lighter
B. 4.5 heavier
C. 3.5 lighter
D. 2.5 heavier
D. 2.5 heavier
An approved air gap separation must be __________.
A. 12 inches or 3 times the diameter whichever is greater
B. 2 1/2 times the inside diameter or a minimum of 1 inch
C. .785 x D x D
D. A barometric loop
B. 2 1/2 times the inside diameter or a minimum of 1 inch
Cathodic protection refers to __________.
A. Personal protective equipment
B. thermal electric protection
C. Corrosion
D. Filtration
C. Corrosion
The two main substances that cause water hardness are ________.
A. Benzene and cadmium
B. manganese and calcium
C. Calcium and copper
D. Magnesium and calcium
D. Magnesium and calcium
If you get a positive coliform sample what must be done?
A. Retake the original sample
B. retake the original sample plus one sample within 5 upstream service connections and one sample within 5 downstream service connections
C. Retake the original sample, one from the water plant, and one from any service connection close to the original sample site
D. Since no fecal coliform was detected, no more sampling needs to take place
B. retake the original sample plus one sample within 5 upstream service connections and one sample within 5 downstream service connections
When back washing filters, bed expansion should be between ________ percent.
A. 15-30
B. 10-20
C. 20-40
D. 30-50
A. 15-30
The electronic flow meters read 137,892,900 gallons at 8:00 am on Monday and 146,007,227 gallons at 8:00 am on Tuesday. According to the scales 122 lbs of chlorine was fed during that 24 hr period. Free chlorine readings entering the clearwell read 0.8 mg/L. What was the approximate chlorine demand of the raw water that day?
A. 2.6 mg/L
B. 1.0 mg/L
C. 3.2 mg/L
D. 4.1 mg/L
B. 1.0 mg/L
If the chlorine demand in the Podunk Water District was 1.2 ppm and the chlorine residual was 0.4 ppm what would the chlorine dosage be?
A. 0.8 ppm
B. 1.6 ppm
C. 2.0 ppm
D. 2.5 ppm
B. 1.6 ppm
How many lbs of HTH (65%) are required to treat 7 MG of water and satisfy a 2.8 ppm demand as well as a 0.6 ppm residual?
A. 198.5 lbs
B. 251.9 lbs
C. 288.7 lbs
D. 305.4 lbs
D. 305.4 lbs
A jumbled mass or collection of floc, solids, and filter media that could grow into a larger mass and reduce filter efficiency is _________.
A. Turbidity mass
B. tuberculation
C. A mudball
D. A media crack
C. A mudball
Calculate the weir overflow rate if the flow is 2.3 cuft/sec and the radius of the weir is 29 feet.
A. 5.67 gpm/ft of weir
B. 8.50 gpm/ft of weir
C. 11.34 gpm/ft of weir
D. 17.01 gpm/ft of weir
A. 5.67 gpm/ft of weir
The two main softening methods used by treatment facilities are _______________.
A. Reverse osmosis and oxidation
B. distillation and disinfection
C. Ultraviolet radiation and electrodialysis
D. Ion-exchange and lime-soda ash
D. Ion- exchange and lime-soda ash
The effective way to combat taste and odor problems is ___________.
A. Aeration and tube settlers
B. settling out by particle counting
C. Prevent them from occurring
D. Coagulation and flocculation
C. Prevent them from occurring
If a filter exceeds _______ NTU at any time the system must arrange for the state to conduct a comprehensive performance evaluation within 30 days.
A. 2.0 NTU
B. 3.0 NTU
C. 5.0 NTU
D. 10.0 NTU
A. 2.0 NTU
Which disinfection method provides a residual safeguard?
A. Ozonation
B. chlorination
C. Membrane filtration
D. Ultraviolet radiation
B. chlorination
Turbidity is used as a process control measurement because __________.
A. Everyone has a turbidimeter
B. the results are foolproof
C. The number of pathogens increase as turbidity increase
D. Turbidity removal is an extremely easy task
C. The number of pathogens increase as turbidity increases
Paula’s water plant treated their output of 4.5 MGD with 150 lbs of gaseous chlorine. What is their dosage at Patulas plant?
A. 2.5 ppm
B. 3.0 ppm
C. 4.5 ppm
D. 4.0 ppm
D. 4.0 ppm
Solids contact units (clarifiers) generally demand a higher level of operator knowledge and skill than conventional treatment techniques and processes…..
A. True
B. false
A. True
Monkeys Eyebrow’s treatment facility treats 9.5 MGD through the use of (6) filters, each measuring 20 feet wide by 20 feet long. What is their filtration rate?
A. 16.50 gpm/sq ft
B. 1.77 gpm/sq ft
C. 2.75 gpm/sq ft
D. 4.76 gpm/sq ft
C. 2.75 gpm/sq ft
Sources of taste and odor issues include ___________.
A. Raw water
B. distribution systems
C. Consumer plumbing
D. All the above
D. All the above
Most water treatment facilities will run more effectively if ____________.
A. The mayor lends a hand
B. it runs 24 hrs a day
C. It runs 12 hrs on and 12 hrs off
D. It runs 16 hours a day
B. it runs 24 hrs a day
All systems in Ohio must carry at least _______ppm chlorine residual everywhere in their system.
A. 0.2
B. 2.0
C. 4.0
D. There is no minimum
A. 0.2
Which is the most effective disinfectant when chlorine is added to water?
A. Hydrogen ion
B. calcium dioxide
C. Hypochlorous acid
D. Haleoacetic acid
C. Hypochlorous acid
Hard water can cause problems. Which of these is NOT a problem caused by hard water?
A. Scale formation in pipes
B. toxic substances occurring because of corrosion
C. White scale on laundry fixtures, sinks, cooking utensil, etc.
D. Buildup on water heater heating elements
B. toxic substances occurring because of corrosion
Filtration actually ______________ particulates.
A. Destroys
B. stores
C. Dissolves
D. Suspends
B. stores
If a filter measures 20 feet by 30 feet by 7 foot deep and the flow is 3.5 cuft/sec, what is the backwash rate?
A. 1.1 gpm/sqft
B. 3.3 gpm/sqft
C. 2.6 gpm/sqft
D. 1.7 gpm/sqft
C. 2.6 gpm/sqft
Double check valve backflow prevention are approved for high hazard applications.
A. True
B. false
B. false
Algae has a profound effect on our surface waters. During the day algae _____ _______ and at night it ______ _______.
A. Produces carbon dioxide, produces oxygen
B. secrets sludge, produces toxins
C. Produces oxygen, produces carbon dioxide
D. Sleeps soundly, parties hardy
C. Produces oxygen, produces carbon dioxide
Water is moving through a 10 inch pipe at a rate of 4.2 feet per second. What is the flow?
A. 3.51 cuft/sec
B. 7.72 cuft/sec
C. 5.61 cuft/sec
D. 2.28 cuft/sec
D. 2.28 cuft/sec
Iron and manganese removal can be accomplished by ___________.
A. Oxidation with chlorine followed by filtration
B. oxidation by aeration followed by filtration
C. Oxidation by potassium permanganate followed by filtration
D. All the above
D. All the above
When chlorine reacts with organics in the water it has the tendency to produce __________.
A. Chloramines
B. trihalomethanes and haloacetics acids
C. Macrofloc
D. Apparent color
B. trihalomethanes and haloacetic acids
Short circuiting refers to __________.
A. Pumps running backwards which stops treatment
B. a movie made in the 80’s
C. Inadequate voltage applied water treated by electrodialysis
D. Uneven flows which result in decreased treatment efficiency
D. Uneven flows which result in decreased treatment efficiency
____________ is a concentrated accumulation of chemicals and contaminants and pollutants that we attempt to remove from raw water.
A. Pathogens
B. sludge
C. Coagulants
D. Fluoride
B. sludge
The minimum number of bacteriological samples that any system can submit a month is __________.
A. 2
B. 5% of residential services
C. 6
D. 1 for every 10,000 people served
A. 2
In order to disinfect a sedimentation basin measuring 20 ft in width, 60 ft in length, and 10 foot deep to obtain 50 ppm would require how many lbs of 65% available HTH?
A. 5.0 lbs
B. 41.3 lbs
C. 37.4 lbs
D. 57.6 lbs
D. 57.6 lbs
The primary duty of a water treatment operator is to ______________.
A. Protect the public health
B. perform assigned duties
C. Obey the mayor or water board
D. Get promoted as often as possible
A. Protect the public health
What natural electrical force(s) keeps Collodial particles apart in water treatment?
A. Van der Waals force
B. ionic forces
C. Zeta potential
D. Quantum forces
C. Zeta potential
Which is a common mistake that operators make regarding flocculation units?
A. Excessive flocculation time
B. lack of food-grade NSF-approved grease on the Flocculator bearings
C. Keeping the mixing energy the same in all flocculation units
D. Too short a flocculation time
A. Excessive flocculation time
What’s the most important reason to reduce turbidity?
A. To reduce taste-and-odor problems
B. to remove pathogens
C. To reduce corrosion
D. To determine the efficiency of coagulation and flocculation
B. to remove pathogens
Which oxidant is a bluish toxic gas with a pungent odor?
A. Bromine
B. iodine
C. Ozone
D. Potassium permanganate
C. Ozone
When supplied with air, ozone generators will produce about
A. 2 percent ozone
B. 5 percent ozone
C. 7 percent ozone
D. 12 percent ozone
A. 2 percent ozone
A trench should be no more than _________ feet wider than the diameter of the pipe.
A. 2-4 feet
B. 3-4 feet
C. 1-2 feet
D. .5-1 foot
C. 1-2 feet
Which of the following elements cause hardness in water?
A. Sodium and potassium
B. calcium and magnesium
C. Iron and manganese
D. Turbidity and suspended solids
B. calcium and magnesium
Turbidity is caused by:
A. Air bubbles
B. gases
C. Suspended particles
D. Dissolved solids
C. suspended solids
A chlorine residual of 0.2 mg/L is the same as:
A. 0.2 lbs of chlorine per 1,000,000 lbs of water
B. 0.2 lbs of chlorine per 1,000,000 gallons of water
C. 0.2 gallons of chlorine per 1,000,000 gallons of water
D. 0.2 percent chlorine in the water
A. 0.2 lbs of chlorine per 1,000,000 lbs of water
The water table refers to:
A. Pumping water level in a well
B. upper surface of the ground water
C. Aquifer depth
D. Water level in the revision
B. upper surface of the ground water
The total coliform rule is based first on:
A. Presence or absence of coliform in a sample
B. density of coliform in a sample
C. Type of coliform in a sample
D. Presence of fecal coliform in a sample
A. Presence or absence of coliform in a sample
Which of the following is NOT true about chlorine gas?
A. It is 2.5 times heavier than air
B. it is corrosive
C. It is extremely toxic
D. It is flammable
D. It is flammable
Three waterborne diseases are:
A. Mumps, measles, and flu
B. tuberculosis, diphtheria, and chickenpox
C. Typhoid fever, dysentery, and cholera
D. Scarlet fever, pneumonia, and colds
C. Typhoid fever, dysentery, and cholera
When water temperature increases, the effectiveness of chlorine:
A. Doesn’t change
B. affects other chemicals
C. Is less effective
D. Is more effective
D. Is more effective
pH is a measure of:
A. Solids
B. hydrogen ions
C. Suspended solids
D. Conductivity
B. hydrogen ions
What is the term for framework used to prevent caving of trench walls?
A. Confined space
B. shoring
C. Sloping
D. Trenching
B. shoring
One miligram per liter (mg/L) is equal to:
A. One ml/L
B. one ounce per 1000 gallons
C. One cc per liter
D. One part per million
D. One part per million
What is the chlorine residual in treated water, if the dosage is 2.1 mg/L and has a demand of 0.8 mg/L?
A. 0.8 mg/L
B. 1.3 mg/L
C. 2.1 mg/L
D. 2.9 mg/L
B. 1.3 mg/L
If you treat 1.2 MGD at a fluoride dosage of 0.8 mg/L, how many pounds of fluoride would this take?
A. 4 lbs
B. 6 lbs
C. 8 lbs
D. 10 lbs
C. 8 lbs
The primary maximum contaminat level (MCL) for fluoride in drinking water is:
A. 2.0 mg/L
B. 3.0 mg/L
C. 4.0 mg/L
D. 8.0 mg/L
C. 4.0 mg/L
Which of the following conditions would increase turbidity?
A. Decrease in pH
B. increase in alkalinity
C. Increase in phosphate concentration
D. Increase in organic matter
D. Increase in organic matter
Approximately how many gallons would 1000 feet of 6-inch pipe hold?
A. 1236 gallons
B. 1378 gallons
C. 1443 gallons
D. 1468 gallons
D. 1468 gallons
Chlorine in a dry form is called:
A. Hypochlorite
B. hypochlorous
C. Hydrochlorite
D. Hydroxide
A. Hypochlorite
Wear rings are installed in a pump to:
A. Hold the shaft in position
B. keep the impeller in place
C. Keep wear concentrated on economically replaceable part
D. Wear out the sleeve
C. Keep wear concentrated on economically replaceable part
An illness known as methemoglobinemia (blue baby syndrome) is attributed to:
A. Excessive turbidity
B. high chlorine content
C. Too much iron and manganese in the water
D. High nitrate content
D. High nitrate content
Disease producing organisms are called:
A. Viruses
B. coliform
C. Parasites
D. Pathogens
D. Pathogens
The rotating part of a centrifugal pump is called:
A. Rotor
B. impeller
C. Propeller
D. Incisor
B. impeller
When using a fire hydrant, the valve:
A. Should never be opened completely
B. should be opened only during specific hours
C. Should be opened to the desired amount of flow
D. Should be opened all the way
D. Should be opened all the way
If the chlorine demand of water is 2.5 mg/L and you want a residual of 0.5 mg/L, how much chlorine would need to be fed to one million gallons?
A. 25 lbs
B. 30 lbs
C. 34 lbs
D. 38 lbs
A. 25 lbs
How many gallons would be contained in a circular tank that is 100 feet in diameter and 10 feet deep?
A. 587,000 gallons
B. 657,000 gallons
C. 1,340,000 gallons
D. 2,349,000 gallons
A. 587,000 gallons
What is the maximum amount of chlorine gas that can be removed from a 150-pound cylinder in 24 hours?
A. 45 lbs
B. 75 lbs
C. There is no maximum
D. 50 lbs
A. 45 lbs
The sudden closure of a check valve will result in:
A. Water hammer
B. flow reversal
C. Cavitation
D. Water aeration
A. Water hammer
In detecting chlorine gas leaks from the disinfection assembly, an ammonia soaked rag waved above the assembly will produce:
A. A toxic odor
B. stoppage of the leak
C. An explosive environment
D. White vapor
D. White vapor
Which of the following increase chlorine demand?
A. Increase in pH
B. increase in acidity
C. Increase in organic matter
D. Decrease in volatile organic contaminants
C. Increase in organic matter
The primary reason for a dry barrel fire hydrant is to:
A. Allow easy maintenance
B. prevent water hammer
C. Keep the hydrant from freezing
D. Keep the barrel from rusting
C. Keep the hydrant from freezing
Lead and copper samples are taken at:
A. Well house
B. source
C. Distribution system
D. Customers tap
D. Customers tap
What type of pipe is commonly used in very large mains?
A. PVC
B. gray cast iron
C. Asbestos
D. Steel
D. Steel
Why are air relief valves installed?
A. To stop backflow
B. to release air in the well column
C. To prevent water hammer
D. To adjust flow in reservoirs
B. to release air in the well column
A backflow assembly must be tested:
A. Annually
B. when installed
C. When repaired
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
What does SCDA stand for?
A. Supervisory control and data acquisition
B. sample concentration and date analyzed
C. Sample concentration and data accepted
D. Supervisory control and date accepted
A. Supervisory control and data acquisition
Tastes and odors in surface water are most often caused by:
A. Clays
B. hardness
C. Algae
D. Coliform bacteria
C. Algae
A trench must be shored if it is how many feet deep?
A. 5 feet
B. 4 feet
C. 6 feet
D. 3 feet
A. 5 feet
An atmospheric vacuum breaker must be tested:
A. Every year
B. twice a year
C. When installed
D. Never
D. Never
Hydrogen sulfide gas:
A. Is a taste and odor problem
B. smells like rotten eggs
C. Is lighter then air
D. Both a and b are correct
D. Both a and b are correct
Well screens that are partially blocked with scale deposits can be easily cleaned by:
A. Pouring a solution of muriatic acid into the well and surging
B. adding a strong chlorine solution to the well
C. Pumping water back into the well at the same rate that is being pumped out
D. Dropping charges into the well so that the shock will loosen the scale
A. Pouring a solution of muriatic acid into the well and surging
Pump motors draw more power starting than during normal operating conditions because:
A. Check valves have to be pushed open
B. energy is required to get the water moving
C. The motor and pump have to start turning
D. All the above
D. All the above
Nitrate found in drinking water can be from:
A. Leaching land fills
B. leaching septic tanks
C. Runoff from farms
D. All the above
D. All the above
A permit required confined space ____________ must sign the permit?
A. Operator
B. manager
C. Entry supervisor
D. None of the above
C. Entry supervisor
Common water complaints received from customers are:
A. Presence of total coliform
B. taste and odor
C. Problem with pH
D. Presence of fluoride
B. taste and odor
Which of the following facilities is considered a high health hazard facility?
A. Hospital
B. mortuary
C. Docks and piers
D. All the above
D. All the above
What type of backflow assembly is adequate premise protection for a high hazard facility?
A. Pressure vacuum breaker
B. double check valve assembly
C. Reduced pressure backflow assembly
D. Atmospheric vacuum breaker
C. Reduced pressure backflow assembly
What Federal agency establishes drinking water standards?
A. OSHA
B. EPA
C. DOE
D. UTC
B. EPA
What is the median value for the following numbers? 500, 100, 250, 380, 440, 700, 675
A. 380
B. 500
C. 675
D. 440
D. 440
A well screen must be installed in:
A. Deep wells
B. consolidated materials
C. Shallow wells
D. Unconsolidated materials
D. Unconsolidated materials
Where is the best place to store a self contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)?
A. Inside a cabinet in the chlorine room
B. in an unlocked cabinet outside the chlorinator room
C. Locked in a cabinet in the office
D. Locked in a cabinet just outside the chlorinator room
B. in an unlocked cabinet outside the chlorinator room
A centrifugal pump should not be run empty except momentarily because:
A. A serious counter pressure could develop and damage the pump casing
B. it is a waste of energy to run a pump without water
C. The excessive end thrust of the shaft would damage the thrust bearing
D. The parts lubricated by the water could be damaged
D. The parts lubricated by water could be damaged
Pipes of dissimilar metal should not be connected together because of problems due to:
A. Scale formation
B. corrosion
C. Water hammer
D. The Venturi effect
B. corrosion
