waste water Flashcards

1
Q
Which of the following well types if the most protected from surface contamination?
A. artesian water
B. infiltration gallery
C. rock well
D. shallow well
A

A. Artesian well

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2
Q

One major factor that leads to reservoir turnover is:
A. the lower strata being warmer than the upper strata
B. the upper strata becoming more dense and sinking to the bottom
C. the upper and lower strata reaching the same temperature
D. decaying organic matter causing a gaseous movement

A

B.

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3
Q
Which of the following elements cause hardness in water?
A. sodium and potassium
B. nitrogen and sulfur 
C. fluoride and oxygen
D. calcium and magnesium
A

D (also known as CaCO3)

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4
Q
The primary health risk associated with volatile organic chemical (VOC'S) is:
A. Cancer
B. acute respiratory disease
C. "blue baby" syndrome 
D. reduced I.Q. in children
A

A

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5
Q

The term “primacy” means the
A. authority by the states to supersede USEPA drinking water regulations
B. authority by the USEPA to supersede state drinking water regulations
C. requirement for states to maintain drinking water regulations more stringent than the USEPA regulations
D. primary authority for implementation and enforcement of drinking water regulations=

A

D

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6
Q
Lead in drinking water can result in 
A. impaired mental functioning in children
B. Prostate cancer in men
C. stomach and intestinal disorders
D. reduced white blood cell count
A

A

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7
Q
pH is a measure of 
A. conductivity 
B. waters ability to neutralize acid 
C. hydrogen ion activity 
D. dissolved solids
A

C

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8
Q
The problem caused by dissolved carbon dioxide in the water is
A. increased trihalomethanes (THMS)
B. corrosion
C. excessive encrustation in pipes
D. tastes and odors
A

B

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9
Q
a major health risk associated with nitrites and nitrates is 
A. cancer
B. acute respiratory disease
C. "blue baby" syndrome 
D. reduced I.Q. in children
A

C

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10
Q
A primary source of volatile organic chemical (VOC) contamination of water supplies is
A. agricultural pesticides 
B. industrial solvents 
C. acid rain
D. agricultural fertilizers
A

B

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11
Q

The term “surface runoff” refers to
A. rainwater that soaks into the ground
B. rain that returns to the atmosphere from the earths surface
C. surface water that overflows the banks of rivers
D. water that flows into rivers after a rainfall

A

D

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12
Q

The term “maximum containment level goal (MCLG)” means the:

A

level of a contaminant in drinking water below which there are no known or suspected adverse health effects with a margin of safety

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13
Q
Which of the following elements does ion exchange softening increase in the finished water?
A. calcium 
B. magnesium 
C. manganese 
D. sodium
A

D

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14
Q

Which water supply tends to have the most stable water turbidity, but is much more subject to algae growth?

A

Lakes

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15
Q

The drawdown in a well is measured from

A

the static water level to the pumping water level

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16
Q

The water table is defined as the

A

upper surface of the groundwater

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17
Q

Which of the following best defines the term specific capacity?
A. amount of water a given volume of saturated rock or sediment will yield to gravity
B. amount of water a given volume of saturated rock or sediment will yield to pumping
C. rate at which water would flow in an aquifer if the aquifer were an open conduit
D. amount of water a well will produce for each foot of a drawdown

A

D

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18
Q
The most common type of well used for public water supply systems is a 
A. jetted well
B. driven well
C. drilled well
D. bored well
A

C

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19
Q

When a permit is required to enter a confined space, who may sign the permit?

A

The supervisor

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20
Q

Why should you contact other area companies with underground utilities before starting an underground repair job?

A

To ask the companies to mark the location of their utilities in the area of the repair job

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21
Q

Is it essential to ventilate a valve vault before entry in order to:

A

remove dangerous gasses

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22
Q

Flammable liquids require what type of fire extinguisher?

A

Class B

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23
Q

Turning off the power to a piece of equipment and blocking it so it cannot be turned back of is known as:

A

Lockout/Tagout

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24
Q
Bar screens are used to
A. remove turbidity 
B. remove debris 
C. cover pipes 
D. size sand
A

B

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25
Algae can shorten filter runs by
Clogging the filters
26
What is the recommended loading rate for copper sulfate for algae control at an alkalinity less than 50 mg/L?
0.9 lbs of copper sulfate per acre-ft
27
Copper sulfate shall be controlled to prevent copper in the plant effluent or distribution system in excess of how much?
1.0 mg/L
28
``` Which of the following chemicals is not recommended for the control of tastes and odors from algae? A. chlorine B. chlorine dioxide C. ozone D. potassium permanganate ```
A
29
the main objection to "red water" is that it:
stains plumbing and clothing
30
One cubic foot of water weighs:
62.4 pounds
31
``` Which of the following forms of iron is the most soluble in water? A. ferric B. ferric hydroxide C. ferrous D. ferrous oxide ```
C.
32
Aeration in water treatment plants is used to:
reduce concentrations of dissolved gases
33
``` Which of the following is colorless, odorless, lighter than air, highly flammable, and sometimes called swamp gas? A. hydrogen sulfide B. methane C. chlorine D. radon ```
B.
34
In general, when the pH of treated water is below 6.5 it indicates what?
water that tends to be corrosive
35
What effect will the addition of lime, caustic soda, or soda ash have on the pH of water?
Increase the pH
36
Alum and ferric sulfate may have poor coagulation due to:
Low alkalinity in the water
37
In conventional coagulation, the average time to develop heavy floc particles is?
30 minutes
38
``` Which of the following factors affects the settling rate of particles? A. particle size B. clarifier circumference C. filter surface loading rate D. method of prechlorination ```
A
39
A venturi tube increases the velocity and decreases the pressure as water flows through the unit. This type of tube is used to:
measure the rate of water flowing through it
40
``` Which of the following types of meters has no moving parts A. rotameter B. venturi C. proportional D. propeller ```
B
41
What chemical feeder measures chemicals by weight?
Gravimetric dry feeder
42
Manual mix chemicals require the make-up water to be delivered by:
Air gap
43
Monitoring and control equipment often communicate with the SCADA system via
4-20 mA signal
44
What is BOD?
Biological oxygen demand (BOD) represents how much oxygen is needed to break down organic matter in water.
45
What is the advanced stage of activated sludge called when bacteria oxidize their own cell mass?
Endogenous respiration
46
What chemical is typically used to neutralize leaking chlorine gas?
Sodium hydroxide
47
What is the electrical system called that prevents corrosion on steel surfaces in contact with water or soil?
Cathodic protection
48
Which is the only adjustment that will result in the belt filter press discharging more pounds of solids in the cake each hour of operation?
Increase the sludge feed rate
49
What type of trickling filter would be more likely to receive 15 million gallons per acres per day?
High rate
50
Increasing the air saturation into the recycle stream can be accomplished two ways. What is one of the methods?
Increasing the amount of air into the pressurization tank
51
What type of solids cannot be removed with typical effluent filters?
Dissolved
52
Which adjustment will normally improve denitrification in an aeration tank?
Decrease the D.O.
53
What does the following formula represent? OUR, mg/l/hr ÷ TS, gm/l = mg/hr/gm
SOUR (The Specific Oxygen Utilization Rate)
54
What are the two types of gaseous poisoning with chlorine called?
Dry and Wet
55
Given the OP data, inlet and outlet of the fermentation tanks, does this indicate good operational performance? • Fermentation Effluent OP is 20.5 mg/l • Inlet OP is 8.0 mg/l
Yes, the OP should be 2 to 3 times the concentration of the tank inlet
56
Given the following data, what level of TKN has been removed in this BNR plant? • Influent TKN is 25.5 mg/l • Effluent TKN is 1.5 mg/l • Biology has taken-up 2.0 mg/l TKN
22.0 mg/l
57
What is a typical range for gas production in a properly operated anaerobic digestion process?
11 to 20 ft3 per lb VS reduced
58
Which adjustments may be more appropriate to make if the aeration inlet OUR is 30 mg/l/hr, the aeration tank foam is very dark, and the aeration outlet ammonia level is too high?
Increase the aeration air supply and increase the WAS rate
59
Which time of day will generally produce the highest D.O. in an unaerated stabilization pond?
9 p.m.
60
What is the best tool for ensuring safe working conditions in a confined space?
Confined space entry permit
61
Which chemical is most commonly used in a wet scrubber odor control system when dealing with H2S gas?
Sodium hydroxide
62
What is the human threshold of hydrogen sulfide gas?
0.0005 mg/l
63
What is the minimum velocity in a sanitary sewer pipeline necessary to prevent settling of solids and debris?
2 fps
64
Sedimentation is a process that _______ suspended matter
settles
65
If poorly formed flox is leaving the settles basin, what should be done?
Increase the coagulant or add a coagulant aid
66
All sedimentation basins have how many zones?
4
67
For a sharp crested weir, which side of the weir would you expect to see beveled?
Downstream
68
According to EPA, sedimentation is based on a theoretical detention time of:
4 hours
69
For public water systems using surface water and groundwater under the influence of surface water, turbidity mut be measured at least
Every 4 hours
70
The filter medium in DE filters is
Diatomaceous earth
71
Which of the following do long filter runs tend to cause?
Slime growths
72
Gravity filters are cleaned of built up chemicals and dirt by process known as
Backwashing
73
What is the black filter media in a dual media or multi media filter?
Anthracite
74
Four log removal is
99.99%
75
An increase in which of the following causes the chlorine demand to increase?
Organic matter
76
Chlorine is the most commonly used in water treatment for
Disinfection
77
The total coliform rule is based first on
Presence or absence of coliforms in a sample
78
The primary origin of coliforms in water supplies is
Fecal contamination by warm blooded animals
79
Which of the following best describes the characteristics of chlorine when used for disinfection in drinking water?
green-ish yellow, nonflammable, heavier than air
80
Which of the following best describes chlorine demand?
The difference between the amount of chlorine added and the amount of residual chlorine remaining after a given contact time
81
Killing of pahtogenic organisms in water treatment is called
Disinfection
82
Sodium hypochlorite is
a commercially available chlorine solution
83
Sodium thiosulfate is used to
neutralize chlorine residuals
84
The presence of total coliforms in drinking water indicates
the potential presence of pathogens
85
A primary health risk associated with microorganisms in drinking water is
acute gastrointestinal disease
86
An operator uses _________ to test for residual chlorine
DPD
87
What is the causative organism for cholera
Vibrio
88
A single sample taken without considering time of day or the rate of flow is called a ________ sample
grab
89
total coliform samples are considered to be
flushed
90
when taking routine bac-t sample, the sampler should also check what?
coliforms
91
a household faucet must remain unused for how many hours before a first draw sample is collected for analyses of lead and copper?
6 hours
92
lead and copper are both based on
90th percentile action levels