Warrants & Structured Products Flashcards
At-the-money warrants have a delta of around ___.
It means that ____
0.5
1 cent increase the underlying price will lead to 0.5 cent change in the warrant value
Call wrrants with highe strike prices result in ____, but are not suitable if _____
High strike price
A small change in price is anticipated
Call Wrrant IV =
Put Warrant IV =
Call = Max {0, (S-X)/n}
Put = Max {0, (X-S)/n}
IV (Intrinsic Value) is zero for _____ (type of warrants)
OTM and ATM warrants
CP (Conversion Price) for Call Warrant
CP (Conversion Price) for Put Warrant
Call CP = X + nWP
Put CP = X - nWP
The warrant premium is mainly its ____
time value
Premium of warrant is ____
Difference between the price of warrant and its intrinsic value.
Premium of Call Warrants
Premium of Put Warrants
Call Warrants Premium = nWP + X - S
Put Warrants Premium = nWP + S - X
If expressed in percentage, premium is _____
the percentage by which the underlying share price should move by maturity so that the investor breaks even
Premium (%) of Call Warrants
Premium (%) of Put Warrants
Premium (%) of Call Warrants = [(nWP+X-S)/S] * 100
Premium (%) of Put Warrants = [(nWP+S-X)/S] * 100
In both put and call warrants, exercise expenses are payable by _____ to the _____
warrant holder to the warrant agent
Cash settlement of a call warrant:
Cash settlement of a put warrant:
Calll = (S-X)/n per warrant
Put = (X-S)/n per warrant
New Exercise Price of Structured Warrants =
New Exercise Price = Old Exercise Price x Adjustment Factor
Adjustment Factor = (P-SD-ND)/(P-ND), where
P = the last cum-date closing price of hte underlying
SD = Special dividend per share
ND = Normal dividend per share
Adjustment for Share Buy Backs / Cancellations of the underlying stocks of structured warrants:
New Exercise Price =
New Exercise Price = Old Exercise Price * Adj. Factor 1 * Adj. Factor 2
Adj. Factor 1 = Existing Shares /Number of shares on an ex-basis
Ad. Factor 2 = (P-CD) / P, where
P = the last cum-date closing price of the underlying
CD = Cash distribution per share held immediately prior to the Capital Reduction/Buyback
New Conversion Ratio = Old Conversion Ratio * Adjustment Factor 1 * Adjustment Factor 2
Adjustment for Share Splits of the underlying stocks of structured warrants:
New Exercise Price = Old Exercise Price * Adjustment Factor, where Adjustment Factor = Existing Shares / Number of shares on an ex-basis
New Conversion Ratio = Old Conversion Ratio * Adjustment Factor
For each currency translated warrants, the settlement amount =
For instance, a structured warrant on the Hang Seng Inde is traded in Singapore, the underlying currency HKD is different from the settlement currency SGD
MAX {0, Underlying Currency 1 * [(Refrence Level - Exercise Level)/n] x Exchange Rate (Settlement Currency / Underlying Currency)}
MAX {0, HKD 1 * [(Refrence Level - Exercise Level)/n] x Exchange Rate (SGD/HKD)}
The Conversion value or parity value of a convertible bond is _____
Conversion value =
its value if it’s converted immediately
Conversion value = market price of share * conversion ratio
What’s the min. value of convertible bond?
Greater of its conversion value or its value without the conversion option, i.e. the straight value
Market conversion premium per share for a convertible bond =
Market conversion price - share price
What’s Premium of Convertible Bond over straight value?
= (market price of convertible bond / straight value) - 1
For warrants, the downside risk of the warrant is ____
the value of warrant
For convertible bonds, the downside risk is _____
the difference between the convertible price and the staight bond value
The payback period, without factoring the time value of money, for a convertible bond is calculated as ____
Premium payback period = market conversion premium / income differential per share
Income differential per share = [coupon - (conversion ratio * dividend per share)] / conversion ratio
What’s the participation rate of a structured products?
The percentage increase in the structured product’s return for every 1% increase in the performance of the reference asset
If warrants issued as an attachment to a bond, they help ____ the coupon paybale to the holders.
This’s because ____
Decrease
The bond issue is made more attractive by the option to buy shares
Warrants can be listed and traded ____
Seperately
A zero strike warrant is essentially a _____ has an exercise price of ___, which means that it’s always _____.
The cash settlement and warrant price are euqal to ____
Synthetic Stock
Zero
In-the-money
the underlying security’s closing price.
In Singapore, company warrants can be exercised _____ (at what time)
anytime before expiry
In the case of convertible bonds, the downside is _____.
The downside of a convertible bond is ______.
The market value conversion per share can be considered as ______
Not fixed.
The downside of a convertible bond is the difference between the convertible price and the straight bond, and the value of the straight bond is not a constant.
the value of the embedded call option
Parity value of a convertible bond is _____
Market price of the underlying share x conversion ratio
What’s the market conversion price or conversion parity price?
The effective price that an investor pays for SHARES, if the investor purchases the convertible bond and converts it into shares
The market conversion price can be seen as a ____ price as _____
Breakeven price
Once the actual share price increase above the market conversion price, any further increase would result in an increase in the convertible bond’s price.
Gearing ratio of a warrant =
Share price / (Warrant price * Conversion ratio)
Investors expecting a small move in the underlying asset price should buy warrants which are _____ (type), while investors expecting a large move can buy _____.
ATM or Slightly ITM
OTM (as they’re cheaper)
In the name of a structured warrant, strike price shown ____
after the name of the underlying instrument if it’s an index
In the case of warrants, the premium is usually expressed as a percentage of _____
UNDERLYING share price
In case of a call warrant, the premium is = (2 ways)
- Warrant price - Intrinsic Value
- Conversion price - market price of the underlying
Call warrant premium = nWP + X - S and nWP + X = Call Warrant Conversion Price
All structured warrants listed on SGX-ST have the ____ style of expiry settelemnt (_____ contracts).
Asian
path-dependent contracts
Jane purchased an Asian call option (strike price $102) on the shares of PQR Limited when the spot price was $100 per share. The premium paid was $1 per share. The settlement price is determined based on the arithmetic average of the month end closing prices for the 3 months. PQR stock prices at the end of the 1st, 2nd and 3rd month are $109, $104, and $96.
The net profit/loss of Jane is ____
What if it’s a plain vanilla call option?
Net profit = Intrinsic value - premium paid = (103-102) -1 = 0
Jane breaks even.
Had it been a plain vanilla call option, the option would have been out of the money on the expiry date (spot price of $96 is less than the strike price).
In A discount certificate, exercise price is ____ the issue price.
At maturity, if the underlying asset’s closing price on expiration or valuation date(s) is at or above the exercise price, the holder will receive _____
If the closing price is below the exercise price, then the holder will receive ____
Above
A cash settlement equal to the exercise price
A cash settlement equal to the Value of the Underlying on the expiration or valuation date(s).
Under the Financial Advisors Act, one of the criteria to determine whether an individual is an HNWI or not includes that total net personal assets of the person should exceed _____ in value or the equivalent in foreign currencies.
S$2 million
Structured products that have a conversion feature to another currency or type of asset, are _____
NOT principal protected
Jane wants to hedge against a rise in GBP by investing in a Dual Currency Investment (DCI). What is the possible problem with this hedging strategy?
The GBP may rise significantly and she may not be able to buy GBP at a good rate when she subsequently needs the GBP
Jane’s daughter is studying in the United States. She wants to buy USD/SGD at 1.35 for her son’s education expenses. A one-year (365 days) dual currency investment (DCI) is available at 5% per annum with a strike price of USD/SGD 1.35. She invests SGD100,000 in the DCI when the USD/SGD spot rate is 1.37.
What is the USD/SGD breakeven point for Jane if she invests in the DCI?
If USD/SGD spot rate is 1.360 upon expiry of the DCI, what amount will Jane get back at maturity?
If USD/SGD is below the strike price on maturity, Jane will get USD77,778 = 100,000 * (1+5%) / 1.35
For breaking even (getting back the initial SGD 100,000), the USD/SGD rate should be = 100,000/77,778 = 1.2857
If USD/SGD spot rate is 1.360 upon expiry of the DCI, what amount will Jane get back at maturity?
Since the USD/SGD spot is above the strike price, Jane will get the 5% yield = 100,000 * (1+5%) = SGD105,000
Based on the following data for a Dual Currency Investment, which of the following statements is/are TRUE? Investment sum: SGD 200,000, Base currency: SGD, Alternate currency: USD, Tenor: 1 year, Interest rate: 8%, Strike price: USD/SGD 1.3500 (current rate: USD/SGD 1.3900). USD sum to be received if spot rate goes below the strike price: USD 160,000
- The breakeven USD/SGD exchange rate for the investor is ____
- The investor will receive ____ if the put is not exercised
- If USD/SGD is 1.15 at maturity, the investor will receive ____
- As long as the USD/SGD remains at ____, the investor will not lose money.
- USD160,000/SGD200,000 = USD/SGD 1.25
- SGD 200,000 * (1+8%) = SGD$216,000
- At USD/SGD 1.15, this will transalte into SGD 1.15 * 160K = SGD184K
- remains at or above the breakeven point of 1.25 (which is below the strike price)
In a Constant Proportion Portfolio Insurance (CPPI) product, Cusion Value =
Cusion Value = Total portfolio - Floor Value
In a Constant Proportion Portfolio Insurance (CPPI) product, Allocation to Risky Asset =
Allocation to risky asset = Multiplier * Cushion Value
In a Constant Proportion Portfolio Insurance (CPPI) product, Multiplier =
Multiplier = Allocation to Risky Asset / Cushion Value
In a CPPI product, as the investment moves towards maturity, the floor value approaches ____
100% of the principal sum
In a CPPI product, Crash Size =
Crash Size = 1/Multiplier
The CPPI strategy involves a ____ allocation between risk-free and risky assets. It provides protection to _____
Dynamic
protection to the capital initially invested
DPPI is similar to CPPI. Unlike CPPI, however, _____
The MULTIPLIER of DPPI is a variable instead of being a constant.