Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ABOG boards HR > Wall’s Associations > Flashcards

Wall’s Associations Flashcards

1
Q

blue sclera

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

orange tears

A

rifampin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ACE inhibitors

A

chronic cough

diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

HUS & TTP commonality

A

fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

cocaine crosses placenta by…

A

simple diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

IDA

A

microcystic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

transition from latent to active (cm)

A

6cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

sugars cross placenta by …

A

facilitated diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

longest diabmeter of fetal head

A

supra-occipital mentum (12.5cm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

maternal mortality

A

100,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

complete mole

A

daddy’s girl, 46 XX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

pulmonary fibrosis

A

bleomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

chemotherapy cell cycle

A

S phase (most)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

low AFP

A

GTN

trisomies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

women

A

right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

DVT

A

left side (90%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

CMV

A

intracranial calcifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

syncytiotrophoblasts

A

PAPP-A

bHCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

PAPP-A

A

low = BAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

inhibin A pregnancy is

A

high = BAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

macrosomia

A

4500g

4000g?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

listeriosis

A

cantaloupe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

limiting dimension of labor

A

mid pelvis

bi-spinous diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

occiput posterior pelvis

A

anthrOPoid pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

21-hydroxylase

A

autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

polycystic kidney

A

autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

anencephaly

A

multifactorial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Duchenne’s

A

X-linked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

dizygous

A

di/di pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

ventilator

A

pseudomonas PNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

cardiomyopathy

A

myocarditis

cardiomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

PTU

A

agranulocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

normal placenta

A

heat stable ALP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

cholestasis

A

heal labile ALP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

factor V leiden

A

heterozygous “do not treat”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Lewis “LIVES”

A

IgM (cannot cross placenta)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

hepatitis B

A

DNA virus

HCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

cardiomyopathy

A

EF <45%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

atypical PNA

A

mycoplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

thunderclap headache

A

intracranial aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

lemon sign

A

spina bifida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

banana sign

A

Arnold-Chiari

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

strawberry cervix

A

trichomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

blueberry muffin baby

A

CMV

rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

kernicterus

A

sulfonamides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

rubella

A

cataracts
cardiac defects
deafness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

microcephaly

A

radiation (M phase)
CMV
Zika virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

cerebral palsy

A

periventricular leukomalacia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

13

A

Patau
Bishop score
BRCA2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

tetracycline

A

teeth staining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

cat feces

A

toxo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

neonatal sepsis

A

GBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

menarche

A

12.8 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

BPAM

A

breast, pubic, axillary, menarche

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Kallman’s syndrome

A

primary amenorrhea
anosmia
5’6”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Klinefelter syndrome

A

47 XXY
azoospermia
gynecomastia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

precocious puberty work up

A

bone age
estradiol
TSH
McCune-Albright

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

McCune-Albright

A

cafe au lait spots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Sheehan syndrome

A

hemorrhage
necrosis of pituitary
poor breastfeeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

dysgerminoma

A

LDH

germ cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

cyclophosphamide

A 
POF
hemorrhagic cystitis (Mesna)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

granulosa cell

A

Call Exner bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Krukenberg

A

signet ring cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Brenner tumor

A

Walthard rests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

nuclear grooves

A

granulosa cell

brenner tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Schiller-Duval

A

endodermal sinus tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

hob nail

A

clear cell cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

psammoma bodies

A

serous tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

dilated pupils

A

cocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

pinpoint pupils

A

heroin

morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

13-18 yo mortality

A

accidents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

GAIL model

A

relative risk breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

average period blood loss

A

30-50 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

TTP

A

tx: plasmaphoresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

ITP

A

tx: steriods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

BPD at term

A

9.3 cm average

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

lithium

A

Ebstein’s anomaly
Osteoporosis
Can give in place of iodide in thyroid storm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

inhibin A (menstrual cycle)

A

AFTER ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

inhibit B (menstrual cycle)

A

BEFORE ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

greatest risk in GAIL model (breast cancer)

A

> 2 primary relatives with cancer
+
20 yo at age of first child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

an effective vaccine exists for the prevention of the adult infection with this organism (commonly found needing re-immunization)

A

rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

organism that may cause epidemics of peurperal sepsis

A

group A strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

meningococcal vaccine

A

age 13-19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

varicella zoster vaccine

A

age >60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

pneumonoccoccal vaccine(s)

A

age 65:
1 dose PCV20
OR
PCV15 followed by PPSV23

**start at age 19 if medical condition (HIV, cancer, IC, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Risk Down’s syndrome age 30

A

1/1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Risk Down’s age 35

A

1/365

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What undergoes fertilization?

A

Secondary oocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Secondary oocyte

A

Haploid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Female paraurethral gland = male…

A

Prostate gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Female round ligament = male…

A

Gubernaculum testis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Female gartner’s duct = male…

A

Vas deferens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Female bartholin = male…

A

Cowper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Uterus = male…

A

Utrical prostaticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Female vestimbular bulb = male…

A

Corpus spongiosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

NT > 3mm assoc. with

A

T21
T18
Congenital heart disease/cardiac malformation
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Fetal heart highest pO2

A

RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Fetal heart highest pCo2

A

RV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot

A 
PROVe
Pulmonary stenosis
Right ventricular hypertrophy
Overriding aorta
VSD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Active transport thru placenta

A

Amino acids
Ca
Ph
Fe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

SVR changes in pregnancy

A

SVR decreased in pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Progesterone increases

A 
Appetite
Minute ventilation
Body temperature
Nasal congestion
LDL
Depresión
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Progesterone decreases

A 
Tubal motility
Lining of uterus
Ureter mobility
Esophageal sphincter tone
HDL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Pulmonary changes in pregnancy

A

DECREASE: take the RV down to the ERv for some TLC because its FRcEE

INCREASE: IC the TV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Coagulation changes in pregnancy

A

INCREASE finrinogen, 7, 8, 10, vW, PA1 &2

DECREASE 11, 13, protein S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Limiting dimension for delivery is

A

Ischial spines

Average bispinous diameter 10.5 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Cardiac hx and mortality in pregnancy, group 3 mortality 25-50% diseases:

A

Pulmonary HTN
complicated coarctation of the aorta
Eisenmenger syndrome
Marfan with aortic root >4cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

How many mg/day iron required in pregnancy

A

4 mg/ day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

How much iron required for whole pregnancy?

How much increase from steady state?

A

Whole pregnancy: 1000mg

Increase need from steady state not preg: 800mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

How much iron absorbed per 325mg tab

A

6.5 mg elemental miron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Soluble FMS-like tyrosine kinase, oxidative stress, impaired VEGF signaling…think of

A

Peripartum cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Mortality rate 2 years after diagnosis of peripartum cardiomyopathy

A

10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Peripartum cardiomyopathy tx

A

Diuretics decrease preload
Hydralazine decrease afterload
Digoxin for inotropic effects
Heparin fir anticiagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

AD diseases

A 
Marfans 
Neurofibromatosis
Huntington chorea
VWD
PKD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Sex linked dz

A 
Diabetes insipidus
Hemophilia
Muscular dystrophy
Placental sulfatase definiency
AIS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Multifactorial

A 
NTD
anencephaly
Spina bifida
CHD
MA
endometriosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

High msafp

A 
Open NTD
Ventral wall defects
Cystic hygroma
Congenital nephrosis
Twins
Fetal death <24w
Osteogenesis imperfecta
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Cystic hygroma assoc

A

Fetal hydrops
Turners
Noonans
Increase MSAFP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Diet recs (kcal/kg)

A

30-35 kcal/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Rule of 32

A

32 wk GA = 1600-1900g

32 wk GA HC = AC

32 yo decreased fecundity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Pitocin

A

30 miu/500 cc

60 u/24h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Apgar

A

Tone and color
Hand to abdomen & RN for respirs and HR
Baby grimaces to mom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Most common vacuum injiry

Most lethal vacuum injury

A

MC: hyperbilirubinemia from cephalohematoma

Most lethal: subgaleal hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

% cesarean for breech

A

3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

No mGy rads okay

A

<50 mGy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Most teratogenic infection in pregnancy

A

Rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Most common infection in pregnancy

A

CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Most lethal infection in pregnancy

A

Parvovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Worst time to get vzv in pregnancy

A

2nd tri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Things that cause limb hypoplasia in pregnancy

A 
Tetracycline
Early CVS
amniotic band syndrome
Thalidimide
Obesity
VZV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

5 As

A 
Ask
Advise
Assess 
Assist
Arrange
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Stages of change

A 
Precontemplation
Contemplation
Preparation
Action
Maintenance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

5Rs of residence to quitting

A 
Relevance
Risks
Rewards
Roadblocks
Repitition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

CAGE

A

Cut down
Annoyed
Guilty
Eye opener

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Women

TACE

A

Tolerance
Annoyed
Cut down
Eye opener

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Pregnancy

TWEAK

A 
Tolerance
Worried
Eye opener
Amnesia
Cut down
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Moderate persistant asthma

A

FEV1 60-80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

HBV natural infection

A

Anti HBc
Anti HBs
Positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Frax treat when

A

> 3% risk hip fracture
OR
20% risk major fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Uterine artery arises from

A

Anterior branch of internal iliac (hypogastric)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Uterine vein drains into

A

Internal iliac veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Right ovarian vein drains into

A

IVC (high pressure system)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Left ovarian vein drains into

A

Left renal vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Ovarian artery arises from

A

Aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Vaginal lymphatics
Upper
Middle
Lower

A

Upper - iliac
Middle - hypogastrics
Lower - inguinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Vaginal artery supply
Upper
Middle
Lower

A

Upper - cervical branch of uterine
Middle - inferior vesical
Lower - internal pudenal and middle hemorrhoidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Nerves to uterus

A

Hypogastric plexus
Sympathetica
Frankenhaiser’s plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Pain to uterus

Pain to perineum

A

Uterus - t11-T12

Perineum - S2-4 (pudenal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Levator ani

A

Ic PR PC
iliococcygeus
Puborectalis
Pubococcygeus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Lateral vaginal mass

A 
Gartners duct cyst (mesonephric wollfian)
Obstructed hemivaginal (hematocolpos)
Vaginal cancer
Leiomyoma
Adenosis
Rhabdomyosarcoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Anaphylaxis tx

A

Epinephrine 1:1000 (0.5 ml SQ)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Herpes genitalis latent phase at what dorsalroot ganglia

A

s2-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What impact thyroid receptor antibody positive risk to fetus?

A

Risk fetal thyroid dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

GBS ppx helps decrease…

A

Early onset GBS sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Hx of DVT in prior pregnancy, negative thrombophilia w/u

A

PPX anticoagulation anteparum and postpartum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Thickened gallbladder and gallstones, in pregnancy, management

A

Expectant management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Most frequent major neurologic complication in pregnancy

A

Epilepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Stage 3 posterior POP, most common complaint

A

Splinting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Greatest risk delirium in elderly

Least risk delirium in elderly

A

Greatest risk: xanax

Least risk: antipsychotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

HSC fluid for bipolar

HSC fluid for monopolar

A

Bipolar = NaCL (conducts current, dissipates energy, monopoluar useless)

Monopolar = Glycine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

10 mm defect in bladder dome repair

A

Two layer
*1st layer interuppted
Vicryl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Most common sex chord stromal tumor in tanner stage 1 female

A

Isosexual precocious puberty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Endometrioid endometrial cancer speads via

A

Direct extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Ovarian cancer speads via

A

Intraperitoneal exfoliation

165
Q

Dove tail sign

A

Disruption of EAS

166
Q

Prolactinoma in pregnancy, when to treat and not treat

If taking cabergoline…

A 
Sx = treat
Asx = don’t treat

If taking cabergoline in pregnancy, switch to bromocriptine

167
Q

Strongest RF for breast cancer

A

Increasing lifetime of menstrual cycles

168
Q

FDA approved Tx PMDD

A

Drospirenone (YAZ) = 4th gen progesterone

169
Q

Urinalysis screening yearly starting at what age?

A

65 yo

170
Q

Most likely cause postparutm fever POD#1

A

Endometritis

171
Q

Pregnancy and new dx stage IAI (<3mm depth) cervical cancer, management

A

Stage I with negative margins, delayed intervention has not increased recurrence rates

172
Q

21 yo is 38w and wants to be delivered today, best management?

A

41w

173
Q

Nuchal arm

A

Breech

Arm posterior and flexed behind neck

174
Q

Why not use meperidine anymore?

A

Prolonged half life

Not reversible

175
Q

Paget’s disease associations

A

Eczematous rash
Underlying breast cancer
2% vulvar disease
Vulvar adenocarcinoma

176
Q

EIN and wants to preserve fertility next step

A

IUD

177
Q

Mortality rate with necrotizing fasciitis

A

30%

178
Q

Sickle cell disease in pregnancy associated with

A

IUFD
Pre-eclampsia
Placental abruption
DVT

179
Q

Most predictive factor of how well SLE female will do in pregnancy

A

Flare in last 6 mo?

180
Q

Most common adverse effect of MTX

A

Transient liver dysfunction

181
Q

Pregnancy + increased sex hormones + bilateral ovarian masses =

A

Luteoma of pregnancy

182
Q

Post meno + incidental EMS 7 mm + no PMB = next step

A

Expectant management

183
Q

Follow up reassessment for recurrent UTI after starting daily ppx tx

A

6mo

184
Q

colpo new dx of CIN III

A

LEEP

185
Q

VIN III multifocal tx

A

CO2 laser

186
Q

Diagnostic test besides testosterone to eval PCOS?

A

SHBG

187
Q

Greatest risk factor for vasa previa

A

Placenta previa

188
Q

Prerequisites for outlet forceps delivery

A

Cervix fully dilated
Fetal position known
Adequate maternal analgesia

189
Q

Best initial step to decrease pulse pressure to uterus during PPH

A

O’Leary stitch

190
Q

Suspect AFE, most improtant step?

A

ABCs - intubation and ventilation

191
Q

Cryoprecipitate components

A

Fibrinogen
Factors 3, 7, 8, 13
VWF

192
Q

FFP (fresh frozen plasma) components

A

Coagulation factors 2, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11

Increase fibrinogen 5-10 mg/dL

193
Q

Whole blood components

A

55% plasma
45% RBCs
1% WBC/PLT

194
Q

1 pack PLT transfusion should increase PLT by

A

50,000-60,000

195
Q

Blood products screened for

A 
HIV
HBV
HCV
HTLV
Syphilis
Malaria
ABO
RhD
CMV
196
Q

Volume of:
PRBC
FFP
Cryo

A 
RPBC = 250-350 mL
FFP = 250 mL
Cryo = 40 mL
197
Q

> 1mm vulvar squamous cell labia next step

A

Radial partial vulvectomy with unilateral/ipsilateral lymph node dissection

198
Q

TLH with PCN anaphylaxis allergy = abx

A

Gentamicin

Flagyl

199
Q

______ infection is most responsible for PID

A

Oviduct

200
Q

Most pertinent when oophorectomy <50 yo

A

All cause mortality

201
Q

Watched ureter efflux for 20 min after USLS next step

A

attempt passage of stent

202
Q

Precocious puberty ddx does NOT include

A

Cowden’s syndrome

203
Q

6 months after syphilis treatment, should have what dilution decrease to confirm positive treatment?

A

1:4

204
Q

LGV painful nodes matted together is called

A

Groove sign

205
Q

Granuloma inguinale best diagnostic test:

A

Microscopic evaluation of cytology specimen

206
Q

VIN II/III margins should be

A

5 mm

207
Q

Incident PPH with VWD?

A

50%

208
Q

Mortality rate with peripartum cardiomyopathy

A

50%

209
Q

Quad screen marker increased with IUFD

A

AFP

210
Q

Pregnant women with antibody screen positive for Kell antibody, 1:16. Next step

A

Test FOB for Kell antigen

211
Q

Twin Reversal arterial perfusion syndrome

A

Mono/mono

212
Q

If fails dicloxicillin (mastitis), next best treatment is..

A

Bactrim (SMX-TMP)

213
Q

why treat pregnant woman with cHTN with antiHTN Rx?

A

To prevent maternal end organ damage

214
Q

Anticoagulant contraindicated in pregnancy

A

Eliquis - rivaroxaban

215
Q

Suspect PE, what order first?

A

CXR

216
Q

SHBP binds

A

Androgens

217
Q

HRP preparations approved for ERPR pos breast cancer for vasomotor

A

None

218
Q

Alcohol abuse and upcoming surgery, most important part of eval for surgery?

A

Coags

219
Q

Orlistat MOA

A

Inhibits 30% of lipase in GI tract

220
Q

Turner mosaic 45X/46XY best first step

A

L/S bilateral gonadectomy

221
Q

Salpingostomy incision on the tube

A

Antimesenteric border

222
Q

Clamp accidently place on ureter next step

A

Cystoscopy with stent placement

223
Q

Thermal injury to ureter at level of ovarian artery best management

A

Ureteroneocystotomy

224
Q

Burch culposuspension blood vessels most likely to be injured

A

Plexus of Santorini

225
Q

Most likely post op outcome when thermal injury to bladder

A

Fistula

226
Q

stitches in McCall original

A

3

227
Q

Reversal for apixaban

A

Factor Xa concentrate

228
Q

Max dose lidocaine 1% with epi (mg/kg)

A

7.5 mg/kg

229
Q

Mill wheel murmur

A

Intracardiac air

230
Q

POD#6 Right ureteral obstruction inside pelvic brim next step

A

Nephrostomy

231
Q

Mortality rate of interstitial pregnancy

A

2.5%

232
Q

9w GA + adenocarcinoma of cervix => next step

A

CKC in 2nd tri with cerclage

233
Q

Specific cardiac finding with severe AN

A

Bradycardia

234
Q

most common congenital anomaly of female repro tract

A

Incomplete perforation hymen

235
Q

Optimal time to fix imperforate hymen

A

After thelarche

236
Q

Associated with cervial atresia / unicornuate

A

Endometriosis

237
Q

% transmission GBS

A

50%

238
Q

TVCL 1.9 cm at 18w, next step

A

Vaginal progesterone

239
Q

High spinal / respiratory muscles and diaphragm at what spinal level

A

C3-5

240
Q

What level need analgesia for :

C-section
SVD

A

C-section to T4 (nipples)

SVD to T10 (umbilicus)

241
Q

Not a teratogenic effect of isotretinoin

A

VSD

242
Q

32 yo + NILM + HRHPV positive (16/18 neg) = next step

A

One year follow up

243
Q

Vacuum <34w most significant complication

A

IVH

244
Q

First step to identify intraoperative ureteral injury

A

Cystoscopy with indigo carmine dye

?

245
Q

Most likely reason for increased rates chlamydia (and cervical dysplasia) in pt on OCP

A

Cervical ectopy

246
Q

Low risk women with >___RBC per HPF need further eval

A

25

247
Q

Thyroid parameter that decreases with OCPs

A

RT3U

248
Q

16 yo POI, how manage

A

estradiol and progestins (not OCPS)

249
Q

Best way to manage vesicovaginal fistula after rad hyst

A

Bladder drainage with Foley

250
Q

Part of brain affected after eclamptic seizure

A

Occipital

251
Q

When start MCA Doppler screening?

A

16-18w

252
Q

Side effects of Chantix

A

Nausea
Insomnia
Abnormal dreams
Depression

253
Q

10 year old vulvar pain ulcer withpurulent base/raised edges

A

EBV

254
Q

Most common cause of hemolytic disease of newborn

A

ABO incompatibility > jaundice

IgM!

255
Q

Vulvar CA s/p WLE with invasion to 0.9mm + clear margins, next step

A

Observe

256
Q

Flutamide

A

Dry skin
hepatitis
teratogenic

androgen receptor antagonist, tx hirsutism & prostate cancer

257
Q

Fox Fordyce

A

occlusion of apocrine and glands, papular eruption THE ITCHY FOX

258
Q

Nonpregnant BV increases risk of

A

HIV
PID
HSV2

259
Q

MC nonproliferative breast lesion is

A

breast cyst (age 30-50, get USN)

260
Q

Bleeding nipple ddx

A 
intraductal l papilloma
cancer
pagets
mastitis
trauma
261
Q

ductal ectasia and fat necrosis of breast

A

microcalcifications

262
Q

z-score

A

pre-menopausa
If -1.0 and athlete, requires investigation

If -2.0 and lower, considered osteoporosis in adolescent

263
Q

positive anti - I titer of 1:16

A

IgM, doesn’t cross placenta, so OBSERVE

264
Q

FDA tx for vasomotor sx and to prevent osteoporiosis in postmenopaupsal women with uerus >

A

conjugated estrogen and bazedoxifene (SERM, protects uterus and bones)

265
Q

estrogen changes/increase production of serum coagulation globulins:

A

fibrinogen
Factor VII
Factor X

(not antithrombin III, stays the same)

266
Q

zolendronate contraindicated in

A

renal failure (cr >3.5)

267
Q

cephalohematoma is between which layers

A

skull and periosteum

268
Q

subgaleal hemorrhage between layers:

A

periosteum and aponeurosis

269
Q

bromley criteria for adenomyosis

A

heterogeneous myometrium
globular uterus
cystic spaces greater or equal to 2mm
indistinct border

270
Q

3 anatomical causes of SUI

A

hypermobile urethra
loss of urethral vesicle angle
loss of intraabdominal urethra

271
Q

childhood labial adhesions treat with

A

estrogen

*if appears to be LS, then treat with steroid creams, especially with hx of sexual abuse

272
Q

MC non-proliferative breast lesion

A

breast cyst

273
Q

teratogenic window of warfarin (women with mechanical valves)

and what does it cause

A

6-12 weeks GA

di Sala syndrome: nasal hypoplasia, skeletal abnormalities, stippled epiphyses

274
Q

most likely to have successful TOLAC?

A

twin gestation

and prior VBAC

275
Q

best monitor for Follistim (recombinant FSH)

A

serum estradiol (until 2000 then hcg trigger)

276
Q

most likely predisposing event to neonatal GBS sepsis

A

chorio

277
Q

SSLS injuries (4)

A

ureteral kinking 2.9%

Pudenal nerve and lower sacral nerve S3/S4 (nerve intrapment ) 1.8%

excessive retraction: arterial middle rectal artery avulsion

needle extends past: inferior gluteal or interal pudenal artery

278
Q

mirabegron MOA

A

beta-3 adrenergic bladder detrusor agonist = bladder relaxation and allowing filling

279
Q

medications that should be stopped prior to surgery

A
  1. antihypertensives (night before)
  2. anticholinesterases (except for MG, night before)
  3. MAOIs (2 weeks before)
  4. herbal
  5. clopidogrel (7 days before)
  6. Direct oral anticoagulants (2 days before)
280
Q

medications that MAY be need to be stopped prior to surgery

A
  1. cytokine modulators (2-4 weeks, delay healing)
  2. Lithium (day before)
  3. antipsychotics (day before)
  4. ASA (7 days before unless safer for CV risk)
281
Q

______ (chorionic structure) generates chorionic villi that transport ____ between mother and fetus

A

Villous trophoblast generate chorioinc villi which primarly transport oxygen, nutrients, and other componeds between fetus and mother

282
Q

normal ABG for term newborn

A 
pH 7.18 - 7...38
pCOS2 av 50
HCO3 av 22
PO2 6-30
BE -8
283
Q

holoprosencehaly mc chromosomal abnl

A

trisomy 13

284
Q

start FH at

A

24 weeks

285
Q

type I hypersensitivity

A

IgE

anaphylaxis

286
Q

type IV hypersensitivty

A

cell mediated (Tcell) contact dermatitis, graft regjection

287
Q

type II hypersensitivity rxn

A

IgG or IgM mediated cytotoxic, blood transfusion reactions, erythroblastosis fetalsis, AIHA

288
Q

type III hypersentivity

A

immune complex-mediated, Ag-AB complexes, SLU, RA

289
Q

obstetrical conjugate

A

diagonal conjugate - 1.5 cm = obstetric conjugate

290
Q

adolescent obesity medication after no responding to lifestyle changes

A

tetrahydrolipstatin (Orlistat)

*ADEK sensitive

291
Q

most important USN associated with placenta accreta is the presence of

A

placenta previa (present in 80% of accreta cases)

other associations
**MC: turbulent lacuna blood flow
loss of hypoechoic zone beween placenta and myometrium
decreased retroplacental myometrial thickness <1mm
loss of Nitabuchs layer

292
Q

deliver PAS at

A

34-35w6d

293
Q

Measles

A 
miscarriage
stillbirth
LBW
increased PRD
(no malformations)
294
Q

which chemo does NOT risk POI

A

cisplatin

**alkylating agents are associated with POI

295
Q

one-two, buckle my shoe, three four kick the door, five six pick up sticks, severe eight lay them straight =

A

S1, 2 ankle jerk
L3,4 knee jerk
C5-6 biceps and brachioradialis
C7-8 tricpes

296
Q

MC cause acute onset genital pruritis and VD in 4 year old

A

respiratory = streptococcus

297
Q

CXR PE signs

A

enlarged pulmonary artery (fleischer sign)
hamptom hump, peripheral wedge of airspace opacity = lung infarction
westermark sign, oligaemia
pleural effusion
enlarged right descending pulmonary and with sudden cut off

298
Q

TVT nerve injury

A

ilioinguinal (sensory only)

299
Q

tx EIN

A

hysteretomy (w/o SLND)

300
Q

serum analytes in pregnancy adjusted for:

A

maternal age
maternal weight
gestational age
(NOT ethnicity)

301
Q

minimum ovarian radiation dose (mGy) with no affect on ovaries age <40

A

<=1.5 Gy

302
Q

lithium

A

teratogenic for cardiac defects, epstein anomaly

303
Q

valproic acid

A

teratogenic, NTD

304
Q

tx for recurrent HA in pregnancy

A

amitriptyline, propranolol, metoprolol

305
Q

transgender male tx counseling

A
  • before starting, need to have HGB for polycythemia, LFTs, serum testosterone
  • increased risk of endometrial and ovarian cancer due to androgens
  • need to cmoplete cervical/breast screening until surgery
306
Q

sexual assault does not treat for

A

syhpilis
hBV
+/- HIV

Does treat for NG/CT/trich/pregnancy

307
Q

10 cm mass + PMB + EIN, most likely tumor marker to be positive

A

inhibin b = increased estrogen > granulosa> increased inhibins

308
Q

kallman’s associations

A 
anosmia
amenorrhea
lack of breast development
midline facial abnormalities
cleft palate
unilateral renal agensis
cerebellar ataxis
epilespsy
nesoryneural hering loss

Tx: HRT

309
Q

anastrozole/letrozole SE

A

treatment for breast cancer = armatase inhibitor decrease peripheral estrogen = increased bone loss and fx

310
Q

MC cause of FGR worldwide (infection)

“” USA

A

malaria (worldwide)

CMV (USA)

311
Q

MC cause of persistent hyperandrogenism beyond early puberty in adolescent girls and women, 6-15%:

A

PCOS
chronically elevated LH & insulin

*hyperinsulinemia suppresses hepatic production of SHBG > increased levels of free testosterone
LH = increased androgen production from ovarian theca cells

312
Q

Do not use ___ for acute bleeding

A

depo provera

313
Q

tampon blood

A

regular = 5cc
super 10 cc
super plus 15-18 cc

314
Q

ergot alkaloids =

A

methergine

do not give with HTN
or HIV tx = reverse transcriptase inhibitors

315
Q

vascetomy

A

vas deferens lumen is disrupted to block the passage of sperm from the testes. No scalpel with instrument that grasps the vas and surrounding skin.
azospermia at 3 mo = 60%, 6 mo 98-99%, confirmed by SA

316
Q

pomeroy tubal igatsion

A

0 plain gut

317
Q

poliglecaprone 25

A

Monocryl
absorbable monofilament suture
lost within 3-4w

318
Q

polyglactin 910

A

Vicryl
absorbably braided suture
remains at 2 wk

319
Q

absorbable suture

A
  1. chromic
  2. poliglecaprone 25 = Monocryl
  3. Vicryl polyglactin 91
  4. PDS polydioxanone mono
320
Q

permanent suture

A
  1. nylong mono
  2. Nurolon, brainded nylon
  3. Prolene polypropyleneen mono
  4. Pronova polyvinylidene fluoride mono
  5. Mersilene polyester braided
321
Q

Medication that can cause low fetal fraction CF DNA/NIPT

A

Lovenox (lMW heparin)main arterial supply to breast:

322
Q

subvlavian artery > axillary > lateral thoracic & thoacoacromial brances
*arterial supply to medial aspect of breast: internal thoracic artery/internal mammary artery - braince of subclavian artery

A

painless vaginal bleeding and discharge =

323
Q

vaginal cancer

A

painless vaginal bleeding and discharge

324
Q

hasselbach triangle

A
  1. inguinal ligament
  2. rectus
  3. inferior epigastric
325
Q

first functional organ system in fetus

A

cardiovascular system, weeks 5-8

from splanchnic mesoderm

326
Q

1st and 2nd line acents to visualize ureteral brisk eflux during cysto

A
  1. indogo carmine (out of order)

2nd: fluorescin (10% preparation, 0.25 - 1.0 mL IV)

327
Q

BMI calculation

A

weight/height squared

328
Q

Cervical IA1 dx and tx

A

invasion <3mm + without LVSI

= simple hyst

329
Q

Cervical cancer IA2 dx and tx

A

invasion 3-5 mm

or <3mm with LVSI = radical hyst

330
Q

bhcg normalizes after a molar evacuation in ____ months

A

2 months

*PMGTN occurs within approx 6 mo, monthly for complete mole

331
Q

% acetic acid used for colpo

A

3-5%

*dysplastic cells with larger nuclei with reflect light and appear white

332
Q

glyburide and ___ alergy

A

sulfa

333
Q

elagolix / GnRH antagonist does/does not require contraception

A

DOES

334
Q

screen Ashkenzi couples formost common cause of genetic heart disease

A

Tay-Schs
CF
Canavan disease
familial dysautonmiaHOCM

335
Q

thickenet NT + normal karyotype =

A

cardiac defect

336
Q

ductal cells in dermal lymphatics =

A

inflammatory breast cancer

pathoneumonic!

337
Q

FGR + polyhydrmanios =

A

trisomy 18

338
Q

AFE triad

A

hypoexemia
hypotension
coagulopathy

339
Q

oocytes arrested in ___ before birth

oocytes arrested in ___ after puberty

A

prophase I

metaphase II

340
Q

ribavirin

A

tx for HCV
teratogenic
skull, palatate, eye skeleton, GI

341
Q

karyotype performed on chromosomes arrested in what phase of replication?

A

metaphase

342
Q

most common tripoloidy with SAB

A

chromosome 16

343
Q

most common aneuploidy with SAB

A

Turner

344
Q

best test for rectovaginal fistula

A

MRI

345
Q

smooth muscle tumor of the uterus, low grade, malignant mesenchymal component, benign epithelium, rarely metastatsizes

A

adenosarcoma

346
Q

GTN that metastases early

A

choriocarcinoma

347
Q

10% of ovary CA is associated with endometrial cancer in 15-20%, gene mutation is

A

PTEN

348
Q

endometrioid cancer of ovaries assocated with

A

endometiosis 40%of the time

349
Q

Single strongest individual risk factor for macrsomia is

A

prior macrsomic infant >4000g

350
Q

highest risk IUFD

A

SLE

even greater than prior hx IUFD

351
Q

why uteroplacental blood flow decrease when intraperitoneal perssure insuff to 15mmHg

A

increases placental vessel resistasnce

352
Q

most common gyn cancer in preadolescent females is

A

germ cell tumor

353
Q

virchows triad

A
  1. stasis
  2. endothelial injury
  3. hypercoagulability
354
Q

key features of Crohn’s

A

perianal disease (skin tags, anal fissures, perianal abscess)
insidious onset
RLQ masses and tenderness
ulceration of the small intestine and colon

(UC more mucous, urgency, cure if remove colon, lead pipe, loss of haustra)

355
Q

Hemophilia a tx

A

Recombinant factor 8

X linked recessive

356
Q

Hemophilia b is a …

A

Factor 9 complicaron

357
Q

Hemophilia c is a

A

Factor 11 complicaron

358
Q

Most valuable in detecting afe intraop?

A

End tidal co2

Capnigraphy decreases because of decrease in CO and increase in dead space

359
Q

Normal urethral closing pressure

A

60 cm H2O

360
Q

Calculate MAP

A

(Systolic-diastolic / 3) + diastolic

(100-60)/3 = 13.33 + 60 = MAP 73

361
Q

Ldh tumor marker

A

Dysgerminoma

362
Q

Ca125 + ldh + Afl

A

Immature teratoma

363
Q

High hcg tumor marker

A

Choriocarcinoma

364
Q

Afp elevated tumor marker

A

Endodermal sinus

365
Q

Afp + hcg Timor market elevated

A

Embryonal

366
Q

MC neonatal injury with SD

A 
#1 brachial plexus
#2 fracture clavicle
367
Q

Clopidogrel (Plavix) reversal

A

Plt transfusion

Anti plt

368
Q

Chroiocarcinoma

A

Mc gtn after term pregnancy
Hematopoietic spread
Early to
Lung, vagina, vulva, kidney, liver, bowl, brain

369
Q

Chorangioma assoc w

A

Normal pregnancy
AVM
FGR
fetal anemia

(NOT thrombosis)

370
Q

Major ligament support to the uterus

A

Cardinal

371
Q

Ligament supporting vagina

A

Uterosacral

372
Q

Colpo most indicative of invasive cervical cancer

A

Atypical vessels

373
Q

Test before rhogam administered for unsensitived rh neg

A

Indirect combs tests of mother

374
Q

Rhogam prevents ido immunization by

A

Blocking D antigenic determinants of RBC

375
Q

Erosive lichen planus of VAGINA presents as

A

Dyspareunia

376
Q

Hpv vaccine, need to exclude allergy to

A

Yeast

377
Q

Nec fasc mc finding

A

Vulgar edema

Type 1 polymicrobial
Type 2 monomicrobial

378
Q

Radiation cell phase

A

M phase

379
Q

Vw testing

A

Vwf antigen
Vwf activity (ristocetin cofactor activity)
Factor viii actividad

380
Q

Types vwf

A

1 partial quantitative deficiency
2 qualitative deficiency
3 total deficiency

381
Q

Components of urethral sphincter

A

SU sphincter uretgrae - wraps circumferential
UVS urethrivaginal sphincter
CU compressor urethrae

382
Q

Most bacterial pna in pregnant

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Azithromycin

383
Q

Nec fasv tx

A

Penicillin G 3-4 million IV q3-4h

Clindamycin 900 mg IV q8h

384
Q

Muscle that overlies sacrospinous ligament

A

Coccygeus

385
Q

Uterine rupture risk neonaral death

A

5%

386
Q

Toxic shock syndrome

A

Major
- temp 38.8
Skin desquamation

Minor
- gI
Mucous membranes
Myalgia
Renal
Plt
Hepatic
Cns alerted toxicity

Tx vanco

387
Q

Hemoglobin f produces in

A

Liver

388
Q

Molar pregnancy + hyperthyroidism + prevent pulmonary edema with

A

Beta blocker before anesthesia to prevent precipitation of thyroid storm

389
Q

Transverse lie RF

A 
Abdominal wall relaxation from high parity (10 fold incidence 4 or more)
Preterm
Placenta previa 
Abnormal uterine anatomy
Hydramnios
Contracted pelvis
390
Q

MC cause breast cancer

A

Infiltrating ductal carcinoma, 80%

Arises from epithelial lining of large or intermediate size ducts

391
Q

2nd MC cause of breast cancer

A

Infiltrating lobular carcinoma 15%

Arise from the epithelium of the terminal ducts of the lobules

392
Q

LCIS TX

A

CBE + mammo q6 mo alternating with MRI

Tamoxifen

393
Q

DCIS tx

A

WLE + post op radiation

394
Q

Large pale vaulcuolated cells on breast biopsy

A

Pagets

Increased likelihood underlying malignancy

395
Q

Wuestion regarding risk factors and prognosis, best study

A

Prospective cohort

396
Q

Histologic feature of endometrial hyperplasia associated with progression to invasion cancer is

A

Nuclear atypia

397
Q

GTN mets worst risk

“” least risk

A

Worst : brain & liver

Least : lung & vagina

398
Q

Score for gtb based on

A 
Age
Antecedent pregnancy
Largest tumor size including uterus
Number of mets
Size of mets
399
Q

Multiagency chemo for gtn

A

Mtx
Dactinomycin
Cyclophosphamide
Etoposide

400
Q

Antimicrobial that decreases ocps

A

Rifampin (and st johns wort & phenytoin & geiseo & phenobarbital)

401
Q

Fetal valproate syndrome

A 
Epicanthal folds 
Flat nasal bridge
Small upturned nose
Long upper lip
NTDs in those affected
402
Q

2nd most common germ cell tumor

A

Endodermal sinus tumor

403
Q

Endodermal sinus tumor

A 
Large 10-30cm
Highly malignant
Lymohatic mets
Afp elevated
Unilateral ooph + VBP (vincristine, bleomycin, cisplatin)
404
Q

Posterior branch of internal iliac

A

I love sex
Iliolumbar
Lateral sacral
Superior gluteal

405
Q

Ovarian arteries from

A

Aorta L2

406
Q

Anterior branch of internal iliac

A 
OUUMII
Obturator
Uterine
Umbilical
Middle rectal
Inferior gluteal
Internal pudendal
407
Q

Most important part of immature teratoma

A

Neuroepithelium

Ectoderm

408
Q

Rheumatic endocarditis causes

A

Mitral stenosis

409
Q

NOWS associated with

A

High pitched cry
Poor feeding
Uncoordinated sucking
Irritability

(NOT seizures)

ABOG boards HR (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions