W12 MENTAL HEALTH 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is depression?

A

A mental illness that can linger for for more than 2 weeks; it significantly affects one’s ability to work, play, love

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2
Q

Sx of depression

A

Having five of the following symptoms may inform a diagnosis of depression: depressed mood for 2+ weeks, loss of interest in things normally enjoyed, changes in appetite, changes in sleep patterns, restlessness or slowness, poor concentration, feelings of worthlessness or guilt, suicidal ideation or thoughts.

intangible sx

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3
Q

Depression has physical manifestations, seen in the naked eye, or x-ray… provide examples

A

smaller frontal lobe and hippocampus, blunted circadian rhythms (REM/slow wave sleep cycles), abnormal regulation of hormones (high cortisol, deregulation of thyroid hormones)

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4
Q

Which neurotransmitters are abnormally released/depleted during depression?

A

serotonin, norepinephrine, dopamine

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5
Q

potential causes

A

mainly unknown, though, thought to be a genetic & environmental impact

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6
Q

treatment options for depression

A

medications and behavioural-cognitive therapy to boost brain chemicals; in extreme cases, electro-simulation

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7
Q

how does depression compare to general feelings of sadness

A

General sadness is a mood that comes and goes in most individuals. It is a natural part of life but is usually not as long lasting or as impactful as depression.

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8
Q

Which neurotransmitters and brain structures mentioned as being of key interest in the physiology of depression?

A

The key interest in physiology of depression includes abnormal levels of certain monoamine neurotransmitters, blunted circadian rhythms and sleep patterns, as well as hormonal abnormalities. Smaller frontal lobes and hippocampal volumes of the brain are also important to note.

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9
Q

list the processes during 5-HT nerve transmission

A
  1. serotonin (5-HT) is synthesised from tryptophan and loaded into vesicles via the vesicular monoamine transporter (VMAT)
  2. it then undergoes calcium-mediated exocytosis and is released into the synaptic cleft
  3. 5-HT then binds to the 5-HTr to induce a serotonergic effect
  4. 5-HT is then reabsorbed into the presynaptic cell via the serotonin transporter (SERT) and is reloaded into vesicles or degraded by monoamine oxidase (MOA)
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10
Q

what does VMAT stand for, and what is its function

A

vesicular monoamine transporter; it is responsible for the uptake of cystosolic monoamines into synaptic vesicles in monoaminergic neurons

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11
Q

what MAO stand for, and what is its function

A

monoamine oxidase; an enzyme involved in removing the neurotransmitters norepinephrine, serotonin and dopamine from the brain.

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12
Q

what is the monoamine theory of depression?

A

it states there is a deficiency of monoamine neurotransmitters within the brain. Deficiencies of key monoamines including serotonin (5-HT) and noradrenaline lead to symptoms of depression.

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13
Q

what are TCAs

A

tricyclic antidepressants.

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14
Q

what are available TCA medications (-ine, -in) (6)
[A, C, D, D, I, N]

A

amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, doxepin, imipramine, nortryptiline

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15
Q

what is the overall effect of TCAs

A

Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) block the reuptake of serotonin (5-HT) and noradrenaline (NA) in presynaptic terminals, which leads to increased concentration of these neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft, which leads to their anti-depressive effect. Additionally, they act as competitive antagonists on post-synaptic cholinergic, muscarinic, and histaminergic receptors (H1).

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16
Q

what are the side effects of TCAs (6)

A

dry mouth, constipation, difficulty urinating, sedation, sexual complications, weight gain.

it is not a good idea to drink alcohol when depressed as it tends to worsen the depression. it also interacts with TCAs, increasing sedation.

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17
Q

the side effects of TCAs are largely due to the…

A

interactions w non-monoamine associated receptors; the most common adverse effects including constipation, dizziness, and xerostomia (dry mouth)

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18
Q

TCA side effects: Due to its blockade of cholinergic receptors, these drugs can lead to…

A

blurred vision, constipation, xerostomia, confusion, urinary retention, and tachycardia.
TCAs may also cause cardiovascular complications, including arrhythmias, such as QTc prolongation, ventricular fibrillation, and sudden cardiac death in patients with pre-existing ischemic heart disease.

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19
Q

TCA side effects: Due to its blockade of alpha-1 receptors…

A

it can cause orthostatic hypotension and dizziness

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20
Q

TCA side effects: Due to its blockade of histamine (H1) receptors…

A

causes sedation, increased appetite, weight gain, and confusion.

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21
Q

Noting the side-effects of TCAs, what other conditions could they be used to treat? (8)

A

migraine prophylaxis, obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), insomnia, anxiety, and chronic pain, especially neuropathic pain conditions such as myofascial pain, diabetic neuropathy, and postherpetic neuralgia. TCAs are also the second-line treatment for fibromyalgia after the failure of other treatments.

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22
Q

what are SNRIs

A

serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs); antagonises reuptake transporters of both noradrenaline and serotonin

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23
Q

what are current SNRIs available in Australia (-xine, -xetine) (3)

A

venlafaxine, desvenlafaxine, and duloxetine

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24
Q

describe the mechanism of action of SNRI medication

A

SNRIs antagonism both 5-HT and noradrenergic re-uptake transporters, increasing the concentrations of both neurotransmitters in synapses.

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25
Q

what is the difference between TCAs and SNRIs

A

The major differences between TCAs and SNRIs comes down to their reduced side effects. SNRIs have minimal affinity and therefore minimal antagonism for the H1 histaminergic and muscarinic receptors. This means there are reduced sedation and cardiovascular effects.

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26
Q

what are SSRIs

A

selective serotoninergic reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

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27
Q

what are current SSRIs available in Australia (-pram, -xetine…) (6)

A

citalopram, escitalopram, fluoxetine, fluvoxamine, paroxetine, sertraline

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28
Q

which type of medication for depression is usually first-line

A

SSRIs

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29
Q

what do SSRIs mainly act on

A

serotonergic synapses

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30
Q

what transporter do SSRIs block

A

SERT (serotonin reupdate transporter)

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31
Q

what is the result of SSRI

A

increased serotonin available for postsynaptic nerve transmission

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32
Q

what are some common side effects of SSRI

A

nausea (esp. in the first wk of treatment), difficulty going to sleep, nervousness, headaches, sexual problems.

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33
Q

what is an example of a pre-synaptic autoreceptor on serotonergic neurons

A

5-HT1A

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34
Q

what is the role of autoreceptors

A

they detect the presence of serotonin that is released into the synaptic gap following an action potential by the serotonergic neuron itself

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35
Q

Activation of the autoreceptor leads to gradual _________ in serotonin release – a ________ feedback process.

A

reduction; negative

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36
Q

Activation of postsynaptic 5-HT1A receptors mediates _______ (e.g., _______) properties, whereas activation of _____ autoreceptors is implicated in delay of therapeutic onset of antidepressants.

A

therapeutic; antidepressant; raphe

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37
Q

hypothalamic 5-HT1A receptors are involved in ____________ and ___________ control

A

thermoregulation; neuroendocrine

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38
Q

septum/___________ receptors control ___ release and aspects of memory function

A

hippocampal; ACh

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39
Q

SSRI treatment results in ______ concentrations of _________ and over time it is thought the auto-receptors are downregulated and ___________.

A

higher; serotonin; desensitised

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40
Q

why do antidepressants take 2-4 weeks to be effective

A

the 5-HT1A autoreceptor desensitization model: inhibition of serotonin reuptake increases serotonin concentration, which causes a downregulation of 5HT1A receptors. After the number of 5HT1A receptors is reduced, the neuron is less inhibitided to release more serotonin in the synaptic space.

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41
Q

what are MAOIs

A

irreversible monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) (the oldest drug class of antidepressants)

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42
Q

what MAOIs are currently available in Aus (2)

A

phenelzine, tranylcypromine

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43
Q

summarise the MAOI mechanism of action

A

MAOIs prevent monoamine degradation, so they are packaged more quickly into synaptic vesicles for re-release. this enhances the speed with which the pre-synaptic neuron can respond to an action potential and therefore alleviates the presumed deficiency

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44
Q

what is the difference between MAO-A and MAO-B

A

MAO-A: works on noradrenaline and serotonin
MAO-B: metabolises dopamine within the CNS

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45
Q

where is else is MAO-A located and what does it metabolise

A

digestive tract; tyramine

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46
Q

list some food that contain tyramine

A

cheese, yeast, beer, some wines, avocados, yoghurt, soy sauce

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47
Q

what is the interaction between food that contain tyramine and MAOIs

A

as MAOIs inhibit MAO-A, the normal metabolism of tyramine is inhibited. tyramine will then be absorbed into the blood supply, making its way to the BBB. tyramine can then pass through the reuptake transporters for noradrenaline and subsequently displace NA from its synapses, lading to its unregulated release into synapses. this can lead to a hypertensive crisis. which could be fatal due to its sudden increase in blood pressure, heart rate, heart palpitations, and sweating.

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48
Q

how can you avoid a MAOI induced hypertensive crisis

A

tyramine-restricted diet, consideration of administration of MAOIs via a transdermal patch [it does not inhibit MAO-A]

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49
Q

common side effects of MAOIs

A

dry mouth, nausea, diarrhoea or constipation, headache, insomnia, drowsiness, dizziness or light-headedness, and possible skin reactions at the patch site

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50
Q

less common side effects of MAOIs

A

hypotension, reduced sexual desire/difficulty achieving orgasm, weight gain, muscle cramps

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51
Q

what are NASSAs

A

noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressants (NASSAs)

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52
Q

what is one example of NASSA

A

mirtazapine

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53
Q

summarise NASSA mechanism of action [2 mechanism of actions]

A

In adrenergic neurons, NASSAs have an affinity for and antagonist effects against the NA alpha2 autoreceptors, which leads to downregulation/desensitization in the long term and a net increase in noradrenaline release in synapses.

In serotonergic neurons, NA influences increase synaptic release of 5-H. NASSAs are antagonists of postsynaptic 5-HT2 and 5-HT3 receptors. This leads to increased action on the 5-HT1 receptors, which stabilises mood.

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54
Q

list side effects of NASSAs [7]

A

dry mouth, increased appetite and weight gain, headaches, drowsiness, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, and constipation

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55
Q

how long should we try a treatment before we know whether it is working or not?

A

allowing time to observe clinical response, some agents may require 2-3 month trial. These changes may be positive, non-optimal or negative due to side effects experienced. The GP may continue the current dose, alter it up or down, or discontinue and/or switch to a new drug class. The goal is to achieve “remission” of the severe depressive symptoms such that other means of support can be added (e.g., counselling, mindfulness).

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56
Q

If medication(s) can be optimised for the patient, it is likely that “maintenance” will be achieved for at least _ months – __.

A

9; 1 year

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57
Q

when are relapses more likely to happen when taking anti-depressants

A

12 weeks - 9 months

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58
Q

in depression, remission can also be associated with…

A

return to euthymia - feeling true to oneself

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59
Q

When a patient is in remission/recovery for more than ___ year, their medication may be reduced gradually over a - week period.

A

one; 4-6

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60
Q

what is recurrence in depression

A

where symptoms reuturn after recovery

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61
Q

what is serotonin syndrome

A

elevated serotonin levels; mild or severe

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62
Q

what causes serotonin syndrome

A

antidepressant medications, St. John’s Wort, some cough medications, MDMA, migraine medications and other drugs, and intentional overdose of antidepressant medications

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63
Q

mild sx of serotonin syndrome

A

sweating, fever, agitation, confusion, anxiety, tachycardia, diarrhoea, tremors, poor coordination

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64
Q

full sx of serotonin syndrome

A

hyperthermia, shivering diaphoresis
hypomania, hyper-vigilance
hypertension
hyperflexia, clonus, myoclonus

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65
Q

severe sx of serotonin syndrome

A

hyperthermia (>40 degrees C), seizures, coma, death, rigidity

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66
Q

psychotherapy is a non-pharmacological ways to improve mental health, this involves:

A

cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT), stress mgt, relaxation strategies, effective sleep habits

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67
Q

electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a non-pharmacological way to improve mental health, this is:

A

a fast treatment for severe depression when the situation is thought to be life-threatening or after all other treatment options have failed.

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68
Q

what is a side effect of ECT

A

mild memory loss

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69
Q

T/F
ECT is one of the most effective treatments for depression

A

T

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70
Q

T/F
the effects of ECT are long-term without the requirement of further pharmacological/non-pharmacological assistance like antidepressants and therapy

A

F

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71
Q

During ECT the patient is placed under light _______ ______ and given _______ ______

A

general anaesthetics; muscle relaxants

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72
Q

T/F
antidepressants improve sx in about 40-60 out of 100 people

A

T

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73
Q

about __% of people who took an antidepressant had a relapse in 1-2 years

A

23

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74
Q

T/F
there may be strong components within families for depression

A

T

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75
Q

Deficiencies of which two central nervous system neurotransmitters may be linked to depressed mood, and which drugs are generally the first choice for the treatment of depression?

A

noradrenaline and serotonin; SSRIs

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76
Q

T/F
increased intraventricular conduction time is a side effect associated with TCAs as a result of blocking adrenergic receptors, muscarinic cholinergic receptors, or H1 receptors?

A

F

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77
Q

The ‘cheese reaction’ is characterised by flushing of the skin, sweating, and tachycardia when taking oral antidepressants. It is directly related to the effect of:

A

tyramine. which displaces noradrenaline from presynaptic vesicles, leading to a sympathetic response

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78
Q

The ‘cheese reaction’ is characterised by flushing of the skin, sweating, and tachycardia when taking oral antidepressants. It is directly related to the effect of:

A

elevated levels of 5-HT and NA caused by re-uptake inhibition and receptor blockade

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79
Q

anxiety is a reaction to our _____; a stop-reaction to the impulses that ____ and other core emotions create inside the body

A

emotions; fear

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80
Q

physical and psychological sx of anxiety

A

Feeling nervous, restless, or tense
Having a sense of doom
Increased heart rate
Shortness of breath
Sweating
Dizziness
Ear ringing
Trouble concentrating
Trouble sleeping
Gastrointestinal (GI) distress
Having difficulty controlling worry/ruminating
Having the urge to avoid things that trigger anxiety
Feeling insecure

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80
Q

physical and psychological sx of anxiety

A

Feeling nervous, restless, or tense
Having a sense of doom
Increased heart rate
Shortness of breath
Sweating
Dizziness
Ear ringing
Trouble concentrating
Trouble sleeping
Gastrointestinal (GI) distress
Having difficulty controlling worry/ruminating
Having the urge to avoid things that trigger anxiety
Feeling insecure

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81
Q

physical sx anxiety and depression share [3]

A

GI upset
Appetite and weight changes
Sleep difficulty

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82
Q

mental sx anxiety and depression share [2]

A

Difficulty concentrating
Irritability

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83
Q

how do stress and anxiety compare?

A

stress is short-term and is a response to a recognised threat
anxiety is long term where there is not an identifiable trigger

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84
Q

generalised anxiety disorder (GAD) is characterized by

A

increased motor tension (eg, fatigability, trembling, restlessness, muscle tension), autonomic hyperactivity (eg, shortness of breath, rapid heartbeat, high heart rate, dry mouth, cold hands, dizziness), and increased vigilance and scanning (eg, feeling keyed up, increased startling, impaired concentration)

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85
Q

T/F
in GAD men experience more psychologic sx (i.e. irritability, sense of impending doom), whereas women develop more physical pain (i.e. chest pain, palpitations, and shortness of breath)

A

T

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86
Q

list risk factors for GAD [8]

A

gender, childhood trauma, physical illness, stress, personality disorder, genetics, substance abuse, family discord

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87
Q

define generalised anxiety disorder (GAD)

A

persistent and excessive worry that tends to interfere w daily activities

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88
Q

define social anxiety disorder

A

intense anxiety about being embarrassed or rejected in social situations

89
Q

define phobia (as a type of anxiety)

A

persistent and excessive fear around a particular object, activity, or situation

90
Q

define panic disorder

A

the main sx is panic attacks, physical and psychological distress episodes

91
Q

what causes anxiety disorders

A

the exact cause is not fully known, however there are a number of factors that appear to contribute to its development:

  1. Brain chemistry: imbalances is neurotransmitters
  2. Genetics: some research suggests that family history plays a part in increasing the chances of a person developing anxiety disorder
  3. Environment: trauma and stressful evens such as abuse, the death of loved one, divorce, changing jobs or schools, may trigger anxiety disorders. The use of, and withdrawal from, addictive substances such as alcohol, caffeine and nicotine can also worsen anxiety. Some of these substances may in fact be used to “self-medicate” mental health stresses.
92
Q

the _______ within the brain may respond with heightened outputs to triggers linked to anxiety

A

amygdala

93
Q

list 4 neurotransmitters involved in depression

A

noradrenaline, serotonin, dopamine and GABA

94
Q

T/F
barbiturates are prone to physical and psychological dependence and addiction

A

T

95
Q

T/F
barbiturates have a very narrow therapeutic window between beneficial and potentially lethal effects

A

T

96
Q

T/F
barbiturates do not cause withdrawal sx

A

F
withdrawal symptoms are severe

97
Q

T/F
tolerance to barbiturates can cause respiratory depression

A

F
tolerance may develop to calming effects but not to respiratory depression

98
Q

T/F
due to effects of alcohol on GABAA receptors, combining barbiturates and alcohol is potentially lethal

A

T

99
Q

what is a potential first line treatment for anxiety

A

benzodiazepines (BNZs) (used as needed for a period of time, usually in combination w counselling)

100
Q

what do BNZs do in the brain?

A

activates GABAergic receptors in the amygdala and hippocampus to bring on a sense of relaxation.
BNZs are taken systemically (cannot target them to specific brain regions yet) -> in the brainstem, activation of the GABAA receptors in the respiratory centres are thought to slow breathing.

101
Q

list common BNZs (-pam, -lam) [8]

A

alprazolam, chlordiazepoxide, clobazam, clonazepam, diazepam, flurazepam, lorazepam, nitrazepam

102
Q

agomelatine is an ________ on melatonin receptors (MT1 and MT2) which are concentrated in a brain region called the suprachiasmatic necleus (SCN)

A

agonist

103
Q

As sleep disruption is a symptom of depression, it is thought that activation of the MT1 and MT2 receptors by _________ may improve overall well-being.

A

agomelatine

104
Q

In addition to the SCN, melatonin receptors (MT1 and MT2) also exist in the ___________ and ________ _______, and agomelatine is thought to provide ___________ effects via interactions in each of these brain regions.

A

hippocampus; frontal cortex; antidepressant

105
Q

T/F
melatonin dysfunction is involved in anxiety and depression

A

F
only depression

106
Q

T/F
agomelatine is an agonist on MT1 and MT2 receptors, while serving as an antagonist on 5HT2C receptors elsewhere

A

T

107
Q

Buspirone is a non-___________ that works as a _______ _______ at 5-HT1A receptors.

A

benzodiazepine; partial agonist

108
Q

buspirone may take up to ___ week for effectiveness, and does not tend to be associated with ________ symptoms when stopped.

A

1; withdrawal

109
Q

In addition to buspirone, SSRIs and SNRIs can be effective treatment for…

A

GAD, phobias, social anxiety, OCD and PTSD

110
Q

what class is imipramine

A

TCA

111
Q

T/F
imipramine has positive effects in 50% of panic disorder patients

A

F
it’s 60-70%

112
Q

T/F
medication is the most effective anxiety treatment

A

F
a combination of medication and therapy is most effective

113
Q

In the treatment of anxiety, benzodiazepines are preferred over barbiturates, because benzodiazepines:

(a) do not induce physical dependence
(b) act at GABAA receptors
(c) have a higher therapeutic index than barbiturates
(d) are more likely to cause drug interactions than barbiturates
(e) are better absorbed orally than barbiturates

A

C

114
Q

Which of the following statements pertaining to the treatment of anxiety using either benzodiazepines (e.g. temazepam) or non-benzodiazepines (e.g. zolpidem) is INCORRECT?

(a) Both drug classes bind to GABA\vA\v receptors and function as positive allosteric modulators
(b) Physical or psychological dependence may occur with frequent use of either of these drug classes
(c) Episodes of sleep driving, sleep eating or sleep walking have been reported by users of zolpidem
(d) Combining either of these drug classes with alcohol is potentially dangerous, as they affect the same receptor targets
(e) Both of these drug classes have a range of half-life values, which may lead to the patient feeling ‘fuzzy’ in the morning if their medication is taken late in the evening

A

D

115
Q

Which of the following statements about treatment strategies used to treat anxiety is INCORRECT?

(a) Barbiturates have been associated with life-threatening respiratory depression
(b) Patients taking Z-hypnotics or benzodiazepines may consume moderate amounts of alcohol safely
(c) Agomelatine is thought to affect melatonin receptors, as well as to antagonise 5-HT2C receptors
(d) The benefits of cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) can outlast the benefits of pharmacological intervention
(e) Zolpidem produces sedative effects in patients by binding to the GABAA alpha subunits

A

B

116
Q

Which of the following statements regarding anxiety and its treatments is INCORRECT?

(a) Buspirone does not affect GABAA receptors and is used to treat anxiety
(b) Ideally, drug treatment should be combined with cognitive behavioural therapy to alleviate anxiety
(c) Antidepressants, such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and tricyclic antidepressants, are useful to treat anxiety disorders
(d) Some benzodiazepines are useful to relieve generalised anxiety disorder (GAD)
(e) Monoamine oxidase inhibitors decrease the concentrations of neurotransmitters involved in stress and anxiety

A

E

117
Q

what does bipolar mean

A

two extremes; elation and depression

118
Q

there are two types of bipolar disorder, what is the difference

A

type 1 will likely experience “full manic” and may or may not have a major depressive episodes
type 2 will experience “hypomania” [less severe than full mania] and will have a major depressive episode

119
Q

what causes bipolar disorder?

A

disrupted neural pathways; neurons create a network that’s impossible to navigate -> abnormal thoughts and behaviours

This is attributed to the overabundance of DOPAMINE

120
Q

does bipolar run in the family

A

typically; but there isn’t a single gene that causes bipolar, it is usually created by interactions of multiple genes

121
Q

what medication is usually used for bipolar disorder

A

lithium and antipsychotics, as well as electroconvulsive therapy

122
Q

how is bipolar disorder acquired? (in relation to medications)

A

meds such as alcohol intoxication, drug withdrawal, antidepressants, drugs that enhance dopamine activity, non-prescription weight loss drugs, St. John’s wort, and others

123
Q

how is bipolar disorder acquired? (in relation to medical conditions)

A

endocrine or hormonal dysregulation, infections, CNS disorders and others

124
Q

how is bipolar disorder acquired? (in relation to environmental factors)

A

sleep deprivation, bright light therapy, and deep brain stimulation (DBS)

125
Q

what is meant by manic episodes

A

times of exceptional energy, extreme happiness, poor to little sleep, restlessness, and risk-taking behaviour.
The sx may be so severe that hospital care is needed. Someone with a manic episode is likely to be diagnosed w bipolar Type 1 disorder.

126
Q

lithium works as a ____ stabiliser

A

mood

127
Q

lithium is thought to ______ (+/-) inhibitory neurotransmission via ____

A

increase; GABA

128
Q

lithium is thought to ________ (+/-) excitatory neurotransmission via g_______ and d_______

A

decrease, glutamate and dopamine

129
Q

at the level of the neuron, lithium inhibits voltage-sensitive sodium ion channels. how does it do this?

A

Li+ mimics Na+ but is not a substrate for Na-K-ATPase. it may accumulate in cells

130
Q

at the level of the neuron, lithium modulates GPCR second messenger systems. how does it do this?

A

it inhibits inositol monophosphate which blocks the phosphoinositide pathway

[hypothesis: an overactive InsP signal transduction pathway underlies mania]

131
Q

T/F
lithium at the synaptic level promotes the inhibtory neurotransmission of dopamine

A

F
Li+ inhibits the excitatory neurotransmission of dopamine

132
Q

T/F
lithium at the synaptic level promotes the inhibtory neurotransmission of dopamine

A

F
Li+ inhibits the excitatory neurotransmission of dopamine

133
Q

T/F
Lithium inhibits the excitatory neurotransmission of glutamate

A

T

134
Q

T/F
Lithium inhibits the excitatory neurotransmission of GABA

A

F
Li+ promotes inhibitory neurotransmission of GABA

135
Q

T/F
schizophrenia is rather a disruption of thought processes than manifestation of another personality

A

T

136
Q

what are positive sx of schizophrenia (occurs in people with schizophrenia, but in the general population)

A

delusions, hallucinations, disordered speech and behaviour

137
Q

list 6 symptoms associated with schizophrenia

A
  1. delusions
  2. hallucinations
  3. thinking difficulties
  4. loss of drive
  5. blunted or inappropriate emotions
  6. social withdrawal
138
Q

what is the function of basal ganglia

A

involved in movement and emotions and in integrating sensory information

139
Q

abnormal functioning of the basal ganglia in schizophrenia is thought to contribute to…

A

paranoia and hallucinations [excessive blockade of dopamine receptors in the basal ganglia by traditional antipsychotic medicines leads to motor side effects]

140
Q

what is the function of the frontal lobe

A

critical problem solving, insight and other high-level reasoning

141
Q

Perturbations in schizophrenia lead to difficulty in planning actions and organising thoughts in what part of the brain?

A

frontal lobe

142
Q

the limbic system is involved in e____

A

emotion

143
Q

how do disturbances due to schizophrenia affect the limbic system

A

contributes to agitation

144
Q

the auditory system enables humans to _____ and understand _____

A

hear; speech

145
Q

In schizophrenia, overactivity of the speech area (called Wernicke’s area) can create auditory hallucinations—the illusion that internally generated thoughts are real voices coming from the outside. What part of the brain is affected

A

auditory system

146
Q

the occipital lobe processes information about the v_____ w______

A

visual world

147
Q

disturbances to the occipital lobe in schizophrenia can contribute to such difficulties as..

A

interpreting complex images, recognising motion, and reading emotions on others’ faces

148
Q

the hippocampus mediates l______ and m_______ f______, intertwined functions that are _______ in schizophrenia

A

learning; memory formation; impaired

149
Q

As a neurotransmitter, the monoamine _ _ _ _ _ _ __ plays key roles along its neural tracts.

A

dopamines

150
Q

what are the four dopamine pathways in the brain:

A
  1. mesocortical
  2. nigrostriatal
  3. mesolimbic
  4. tuberoinfundibular
151
Q

in the mesocortical pathway, dopamine influences

A

perception, cognition and social behaviour

152
Q

in the nigrostriatal pathway, dopamine has influence over

A

control of fine movements and initiation of movement

153
Q

in the mesolimbic pathway, dopamine is thought to be involved in

A

emotion and memory, pleasurable sensations and reward, the euphoric effects of addictive substances, as well as psychotic sx, such as delusions and hallucination

154
Q

in the tuberoinfundibular pathway, dopamine normally inhibits the release of

A

prolactin

155
Q

summarise the life cycle of dopamine

A
  1. tyrosine is enzymatically converted to levadopa (L-DOPA). levadopa undergoes decarboxylation to form dopamine (DA).
  2. within the presynaptic neuron, DA is packaged into vesicles via VMAT-2
  3. when released into the synaptic gap, DA can then bind to post-synaptic receptors (either D1-like or D2-like)
  4. it is ultimately recycled by reuptake via the DA transporter, or catabolized by catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) or monoamine oxidase (MAO) enzymes
156
Q

out of the DA receptors, which is the predominant subtype in the brain?

involved in mood, emotional stability in the limbic system as well as movement control in the basal ganglia.

A

D2

157
Q

D1 and D5 DA receptors belong to which receptor family

A

D1

158
Q

D2 receptors include which other subtypes

A

D2, D3, D4

159
Q

The D1 receptor family increases ________

A

cyclic AMP

160
Q

The D2 receptor family decreases ______, increases ______, decreases ________

A

cyclic AMP, K+ currents, voltage-gated Ca2+ currents

161
Q

The D1 receptor family _________ cyclic AMP

A

increases

162
Q

The D2 receptor family _________ cyclic AMP, _________ K+ channels, _________ voltage-gated Ca2+ currents

A

decreases, increases, increases

163
Q

In schizophrenia, the mesocortical pathway is ________, leading to _________ symptoms (affective flattening, avolition)

A

hypodopaminergic; negative

164
Q

In schizophrenia, the mesolimbic pathway is ______________, leading to ________ symptoms (delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thought, speech, and behaviour).

A

hyperdopaminergic; positive

165
Q

inhibition of the nigrostratial pathway causes the ________ side effects of antipsychotic drugs

A

extrapyramidal

166
Q

Mesolimbic pathway:
- Dopamine travels from the m________ tegmental area to the nucleus _________.
- Increased activity in this pathway may cause delusions, hallucinations, and other so-called ______ symptoms of schizophrenia.

A

midbrain; accumbens; positive

167
Q

Mesocortical pathways:
- Decreased activity in the pathway that goes from the midbrain to the _______ ______ _______ can cause apathy, withdrawal, lack of motivation and pleasure, and other so-called _______ symptoms of schizophrenia.
- Mesocortical __________ also _______ the mesolimbic pathway.

A

prefrontal lobe cortex; negative; dysfunction; disinhibits

168
Q

Tuberoinfundibular pathway:
- The pathway from the _______ to the _______ inhibits the release of ______.
- Inhibition of this pathway leads to elevated serum ______ levels.

A

hypothalamus; pituitary; prolactin; prolactin

169
Q

describe the mechanism of action of antipsychotic drugs on the mesocortical pathway

A

D2 receptor antagonism by typical antipsychotics can cause or worsen negative and cognitive symptoms

170
Q

describe the mechanism of action of antipsychotic drugs on the mesolimbic pathway

A

D2 receptor antagonism by antipsychotic drugs reduces positive symptoms

171
Q

describe the mechanism of action of antipsychotic drugs on the nigrostriatal pathway

A

D2 receptor antagonism by antipsychotic drugs can result in EPS (extrapyramidal sx)

172
Q

describe the mechanism of action of antipsychotic drugs on the tuberoinfundibular pathway

A

D2 receptor antagonism by typical antipsychotics can increase prolactin levels

173
Q

there are two general categories of antipsychotic drugs:

A
  1. typical first-gen antipsychotics (FGA)
  2. atypical second-gen antipsychotics (SGA)
174
Q

typical antipsychotics are modelled on ___ receptor antagonism

A

D2

175
Q

side effects of typical antipsychotics include… (2)

A
  • extrapyramidal sx (EPS)
  • tardive dyskinesia (TD)
176
Q

atypical antipsychotics are modelled on ___ and ___ receptor antagonism

A

5HT2; D2

177
Q

side effects of atypical antipsychotics include…

A
  • weight gain
  • sedation
  • risk of diabetes
178
Q

Older _______ ____ drugs reduce the enhanced activity of ________ in the _________ pathway by working as c_______ ________ antagonists at D2 receptors, thus reducing _________ symptoms

A

typical FGA; dopamine; mesolimbic; competitive reversible; positive

179
Q

is CHLORPROMAZINE a typical antipsychotic or atypical antipsychotic?

A

typical antipsychotic

180
Q

Chlorpromazine is an _________ for __ receptors

A

antagonist; D2

181
Q

chlorpromazine is also an antagonist for m_______ (1), h________ (H), -__ and alpha--________ receptors

A

muscarinic (M1); histaminic (H1); 5-HT; alpha-2-adrenergic receptors

182
Q

Blocking the D2 receptors of the striatum can lead to…

A

extrapyramidal symptoms

183
Q

extrapyramidal symptoms resemble which disease?

A

Parkinson’s

184
Q

symptoms of D2 receptor antagonism include: (4)

A
  • shuffling gait
  • tremor at rest
  • rigidity
  • stooped posture
185
Q

what are clinical effects at the dopamine D2 receptors when blocked

A

positive psychotic sx (hallucinations, delusions)

adverse effects: extrapyramidal sx and prolactin levels

186
Q

what are clinical effects at the blocking of serotonin 5-HT1A receptors

A

balances D2 blockade and attenuates extrapyramidal sx
[possible role in circadian rhythm and hallucinations]

187
Q

what are clinical effects at the blocking of serotonin 5-HT2A receptors

A

possible role in anxiety, cognition, mood

188
Q

what are clinical effects when blocking serotonin 5-HT7 receptors

A

possible role in circadian rhythm, mood, thermoregulation, learning, memory, and endocrine regulation

189
Q

what are clinical effects when the alpha-adrenergic alpha-1 receptor is blocked

A

dizziness, drowsiness, orthostatic hypotension

190
Q

what are clinical effects when the H1 receptor is blocked

A

sedation, weight gain, impaired cognition

191
Q

what are clinical effects when the muscarinic (M1) receptor is blocked

A

deficits in memory and cognition, constipation, blurred vision, dry mouth , drowsiness, tachycardia, urinary retention

192
Q

haloperidol and other butyrophenones (non-phenothiazine compounds) are typical or atypical?

A

typical

193
Q

haloperidol _____ both D2 and D1 receptors to reduce _____ symptoms

A

antagonises; positive

194
Q

T/F
Atypical Second-Generation Antipsychotics (SGAs) were designated as being “atypical” in that they did not have a strong tendency towards EPS side effects.

A

T

195
Q

T/F
The antagonism of D2 receptors is increased relative to the typical compounds, and the method of titrating the concentration in a patient was no longer effective.

A

F
it is decreased

196
Q

in typical antipsychotics, they have a greater affinity for and/or longer binding time w D2 receptors, what does this mean in terms of its side effects

A

this results in a “slow off” or unbinding and an increased risk of EPS

197
Q

atypical SGAs bind to D2 receptors bit more loosely, resulting in…

A

a “fast off” and a reduced risk of EPS

198
Q

what are 2 advantages of atypical antipsychotic medications over typical counterparts?

A
  1. reduced D2 receptors, and are also 5-HT2A receptor antagonists, and 5-HT1A receptor agonists
  2. more effective against both positive and negative sx of shizophrenia, whereas typical FGAs predominanty address the positive sx.
199
Q

medications that block 5-HT2A receptors have been linked to:

A
  • increased food intake [weight gain]
  • dyslipidaemia (increased mean total cholesterol serum levels)
  • hypertriglyceridemia: increased triglyceride levels
  • increased risk of T2DM
200
Q

clozapine and olanzapine (atypical antipsychotics) have the greatest affinity for 5-HT2 receptor antagonism, which means…

A

the weight gain element is greatest

201
Q

clozapine is a _____-_____ antagonist

A

serotonin-dopamine

202
Q

clozapine has a ____ affinity for 5-HT2A receptors and _____ affinity for D2 receptors

A

high; low

203
Q

T/F
at therapeutic doses of clozapine, there is no EPS

A

T

204
Q

what other receptors in the brain are also antagonised by clozapine?

A

muscarinic ACh, alpha-adrenergic, H1 receptors

205
Q

patients using clozapine report weight ____, osteo_____, and an increased tendency towards ______

A

gain, -porosis, T2DM

206
Q

what agranulocytosis and its relationship w clozapine

A

the death of granulocytes involved in the immune response

this led to a number of patient deaths; patients on clozapine are now required to regularly submit for haematological monitoring of granulocytopenia before agranulocytosis develops

207
Q

risperidone is a _____-_____ antagonist

A

serotonin-dopamine

208
Q

relative to haloperidol, risperidone has a very _____ affinity for 5-HT2A receptors and a _____ affinity for D2 receptors

A

high; low

209
Q

T/F
at therapeutic doses of resperidone, EPS can occur

A

F
no EPS

210
Q

T/F
Collateral binding of risperidone with other receptors contributes to side effects however there is less muscarinic ACh antagonism compared to clozapine.

A

T

211
Q

aripiprazole is a ______ agonist for D2 and 5-HT2A receptors

A

partial

being a partial agonist means that it activates both types but elicits a reduced response compared to natural neurotransmitter

212
Q

aripiprazole is also a partial agonist at ______, ____ and ________ receptors. it has no affinity for cholinergic muscarinic (M1) receptors

A

5-HT1A, H1, alpha1-adrenergic

213
Q

T/F
A partial agonist can be considered to be a ‘modulator’, adjusting levels depending on whether they are too high or too low.

A

T

214
Q

how does aripiprazole reduce positive sx

A

partial agonism in the mesolimbic pathway is postulated to reducing hyper-dopaminergic interactions

215
Q

how does aripiprazole reduce negative sx

A

partial agonism in the mesocortical pathway increases the dopaminergic activity back to normal levels

216
Q

T/F
aripiprazole has quite adverse side effects

A

F
generally safe and well tolerated with minimal side effects

217
Q

aripiprazole is metabolised by CYP___ and CYP___

A

3A4, 2D6

218
Q

If aripiprazole is co-administered with medications that inhibit CYP3A4 or CYP2D6 , the dose is ______.

A

halved

219
Q

If aripiprazole is co-administered with medications that induce CYP3A4, drug doses need to be evaluated based on perceived _____.

A

efficacy