VTT CDE Questions Flashcards
Phenothiazine tranquilizers are contradicted in an animal with:
epilepsy
In canines and felines; all deciduous teeth are normally shed by:
6-8 months of age
An osteosarcoma is a:
malignant tumor originating in bone
Urine filtration occurs in which portion of the nephron?
Glomerulus
A lowered prothrombin level can be caused by a dietary deficiency; by impaired synthesis; or by impaired absorption of vitamin:
K
A veterinarian treated a cow for milk fever last evening; but this morning the owner calls and informs the technician that the cow is down again. The veterinarian is too sick to work today. The technician should:
inform the owner that the veterinarian is sick and try to obtain a referral
A correct statement regarding halothane and methoxyflurane is that these anesthetics:
cross the placenta rapidly
A correct statement regarding a Gram stain is that such a stain is a:
chromatic differential test of microorganisms
Which of the following is the best reversible agent for inducing anesthesia in sight hounds?
Oxymorphone
Which of the following tissues is most radiation sensitive?
Bone marrow
Which of the following is an example of a water-soluble vitamin?
Vitamin B2
When used as a preanesthetic; atropine will:
inhibit excessive salivary secretion
The spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi is responsible for which of the following diseases?
Lyme
The soda lime in inhalation anesthesia equipment is used to absorb:
carbon dioxide
From cranial to caudal; the correct order for the segments of the spine in animals is:
cervical; thoracic; lumbar; sacral; coccygeal
The Coggins test is used to diagnose:
equine infectious anemia
A disinfectant that should be used with caution around cats is:
phenol
An emasculator is used in:
castration
A correct statement regarding an onychectomy is that it involves the:
surgical removal of the nail
A correct statement about the proper storage of whole blood is that it:
can be stored at 32.9 F to 50 F (4 C - 10 C) for up to 3 weeks
In which of the following types of fracture would skin be torn; and bone and subcutaneous tissue be exposed?
compound
When using a dip on a dog to treat mange; you must:
place protective ointment on the dog’s eyes first
An otoscope is an instrument primarily used for examining the:
ears
Which of the following dog breeds is classified as brachycephalic?
Pekingese
Which patient information should be included on the laboratory request form when ordering a blood culture?
Received penicillin 12 hours before the specimen was taken
The most important reason for polishing the teeth after ultrasonic scaling is to:
create smooth surfaces to prevent accumulation
The parasite Anapasma marginale invades the:
red blood cells in cattle
A general-purpose stain; such as new methylene blue; is useful for:
studying the morphology of an organism
Unused media intended for microbiology purposes should be stored:
in the refrigerator
Eimeria stiedai is associated with:
hepatic coccidiosis in rabbits
The type of wound healing in which granulation tissue forms; filling the defect; is known as:
second intention
A dog that weighs 30 lbs (13.6 kg) has had medication prescribed at a dosage of 0.01 mg/lb (0.022 mg/kg). The medication is available only in tablets that contain 0.3 mg each. For one dose; how many tablets should the dog receive?
1
In cases of organophosphate poisoning; which of the following is a commonly used antagonist?
Atropine
The penetrating power of an X ray is controlled by the:
kilovoltage
A correct statement regarding doxapram hydrochloride (Dopram-V) is that it is a:
respiratory stimulant
Which of the following parasites is most likely to cause eye damage to a human who becomes infected?
A Toxocara canis larva
When the albumin value is subtracted from the total protein value; the remainder represents the concentration of:
globulin
Which of the following is a respirator stimulant?
Doxapram
Anticholinergic drugs decrease all of the following except:
pain
Which of the following methods would be an initial measure in providing first aid for epistaxis?
Application of ice packs to the nasal passages
Treatment instructions on a hospitalized dog read: “Administer chloramphenicol 500 mg b.i.d. per os.” To comply with these instructions; the treatment is correctly interpreted as:
500 mg twice a day by mouth
If an error is made on a medical record; the proper method for correcting the mistake is to:
draw a single line though it and initial the correction
Which of the following is commonly used for infiltration and epidural anesthesia?
Lidocaine
A bovine can be made recumbent by exerting pressure on muscles and nerves with a series of carefully placed and tightened ropes. This technique is called:
casting
A correct statement concerning guinea pigs is that they are:
unable to synthesize sufficient vitamin C
A radiograph that has been developed with exhausted chemicals and increased developing time will have:
poor contrast; with a dark grey background
The laboratory animal that is most likely to have an epileptiform fit when handled is the:
gerbil
Both puppies and kittens can be started on heartworm-preventative therapy at the age of 6 to 8 weeks.
TRUE
The principal cause of infection bovine keratoconjunctivitis (inflamed cornea and conjunctiva) is:
Moraxella bovis
Which of the following statements is/are true?
The goal of feeding food animals is to encourage rapid weight gain.
You are standing alongside the withers of a stalled horse attempting to place a rope around its neck. The best action to take if the horse moves away from you is to:
Attempt to stay with the horse by moving along side and holding onto the mane.
Concerning tying a horse; which statement is most accurate?
Tie a horse to an object at its shoulder level or higher.
A _____ is often found at the end of a series of pens and alleyways and is the final capture and restraining device for cattle.
chute and head catch
Accusing a pet of being vindictive; spiteful; jealous; or rebellious is considered a(n) _____ explanation for unrealistic expectations.
Anthropomorphic
To prevent/minimize inappropriate behavior from a pet; the owners must:
use crate training with the puppy
An animal that growls or hisses; bares teeth; air snaps; and/or lunges is exhibiting _____ behavior.
threatening
Most cats prefer to be petted:
on their scent glands located on their cheeks and in front of their ears
Cryptococcosis is a _____ organism diagnosed by _____.
fungal (yeast); direct microscopic examination using potassium hydroxide
An otherwise healthy veterinary technician; Anna; is bitten by a 2-year-old mixed-breed dog; “Tow Tow;” while restraining him for a pedicure. The bite does not cause severe tissue damage; but the canine teeth penetrate her skin and she does bleed. Tow Tow is current on all of his vaccinations including rabies. He lives primarily in the backyard of his owner’s suburban home. What is the best; first action Anna should take following the bite?
Wash the wound with soap and water; then with povidone-iodine; and follow with a thorough irrigation with water.
An otherwise healthy veterinary technician; Anna; is bitten by a 2-year-old mixed-breed dog; “Tow Tow;” while restraining him for a pedicure. The bite does not cause severe tissue damage; but the canine teeth penetrate her skin and she does bleed. Tow Tow is current on all of his vaccinations including rabies. He lives primarily in the backyard of his owner’s suburban home. Which disease should Anna be most concerned about contracting?
Pasteurellosis & Rabies
Frequent hand washing with disinfectant soaps or detergents by those working with _____ can lessen the chance of contracting erysipeloid at work.
Swine; domestic fowl; fish; or shellfish
_____ causes both “fowl cholera” and rabbit “snuffles.”
Pasteurella multocida
What is a “reportable” disease?
A confirmed diagnosis of a reportable disease that must be reported to local health authorities/
If you develop a sudden headache; vomiting; malaise; fever; and chills followed by a rash on your extremities; and you work with rats or rodents; you should report this to your physician so that she can initiate the proper diagnostic methods for potential:
Streptobacillosis or spirillosis
Which statement concerning rabies is most accurate?
Behavioral changes with profuse salivation; aggression; a change in voice; and/or paralysis may suggest a presumptive diagnosis of rabies.
Most cases of human rabies are attributable to _____ because the virus is most abundant in _____.
a bite by an infected animal; saliva
Rabies is always fatal once clinical disease has developed.
TRUE
A puppy should be vaccinated for rabies at _____ weeks.
12
The eyes and ears of kittens open at about _____ weeks of age.
2
Most dogs have about ______ bones.
320
Cats have about _______ bones.
250
Cats whiskers are _______ hairs; they are connected to sensitive nerves that help the cat protect itself and find its way in the dark.
Tactile
The gestation period of a rabbit is ________ days.
30 to 32
The integumentary system refers to the _____ of an animal.
Skin
The function of the _________ system of an animal is to rid the body of waste
Excretory
Which of the following animals has a monogastric digestive system?
Cat
Which of the following animals has a ruminant digestive system?
Goat
What is the average normal rectal temperature of cattle?
101.5
What is the average normal rectal temperature of a goat?
103.8
What is the average normal rectal temperature of swine?
102.6
What is the average normal rectal temperature of sheep?
102.3
What is the average normal rectal temperature of a horse?
100.5
What is the average normal rectal temperature of a cat?
103
What is the average normal rectal temperature of rabbit?
102.5
What is the average normal rectal temperature of a dog?
101.3
What is the normal pulse rate of cattle in rate/min?
60-70
What is the normal pulse rate of a horse in rate/min?
32-44
What is the normal pulse rate of cat in rate/min?
140-240
What is the normal pulse rate of a rabbit in rate/min?
140-150
What is the normal pulse rate of a dog in rate/min?
60-120
What is the normal respiration rate in rate/min of cattle?
10-30
What is the normal respiration rate in rate/min of swine?
8-15
What is the normal respiration rate in rate/min of sheep?
12-20
What is the normal respiration rate in rate/min of a goat?
12-20
What is the normal respiration rate in rate/min of a horse?
8-16
What is the normal respiration rate in rate/min of a cat?
20-40
What is the normal respiration rate in rate/min of a rabbit?
50-60
What is the normal respiration rate in rate/min of a dog?
10-30
_________ is a parasitic disease caused by a protozoan that attacks red blood corpuscles. Cattle are primarily affected. Symptoms include amenia; rapid hearbeat; muscular tremors; and loss of appetite.
Anaplasmosis
____________ is a bacterial disease that affects cattle; dogs; sheep; and most other companion animals. Symptoms include high fever; poor appetite; and bloody urine. Females will abort fetuses.
Leptospirosis
__________ is the leading cause of profit loss in dairy cattle. It is a bacterial disease that affects female cattle; sheep; goats; and swine. It causes inflammation in the udder that effects milk production.
Mastitis
________ is a disease that occurs in really all warm blooded animals and can be transmitted to humans. Symptoms include aggressive behavior; fever; vomiting; and diarrhea. Some animals become frenzied and attack everything that moves.
Rabies
A/an _________ is a substance produced by one organism that will inhibit or kill another organism. They are used to treat diseases caused by bacteria.
Antibiotic
An injection made directly into the skin is called a __________ injection.
Intradermal
An injection made just beneath the skin is known as a _________ injection.
Subcutaneous
A ________ injection is made into the veins of an animal.
Intravenous
An ______________ injection is made into the body cavity.
Intraperitoneal
An _______ injection is made into the udder through an opening in the teat.
Intramammary
A _________ disease is an illness that can be transmitted from animals to humans.
Zoonotic
A ______ is an accumulation of pus in a dead space between tissues containing bacteria; white blood cells and dead tissue.
Abcess
Anaphylaxis is defined as a
Generalized life threatening allergic reaction.
Anemia is defined as…
Low in red blood cells
CPR stands for….
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
_________ is a bacterial disease resulting from a cat scratch; which causes a soreness at the inflicted site; fever; and enlarged lymph nodes
Cat scratch fever
Cyanosis is the _____ color associated with low oxygen levels in the blood.
Blue
A hematoma is an accumulation of ______ in the dead space between tissues.
Blood
Metastasis is the spread of ___________ cells to other sites in the body.
Cancer
_______ is the measurement of the presence of antibodies against a specific organism.
Serology
Tachycardia is defined as a
Elevated heart rate
Acute refers to the _________ of a symptom.
Sudden onset
Which of the following terms refers to sedating animals so they lack sensitivity or awareness.
Anesthetize
A ____ is a germicide that can be used on the skin of animals.
Antiseptic
Atrophy is the _________ of tissue.
Shrinking
A tumor that is localized and will not spread to other areas of the body is said to be _____.
Benign
_______ is an accumulation of gas in the rumen.
Bloat
A _______ is known as a prolonged state of unconsciousness.
Coma
A bone break in which the bone punctures the skin in known as a ___ fracture.
Compound
When something is congenital is….
Present at birth
Enzymes are ______ molecules that speed chemical reactions in the body.
Protein
Hardware disease occurs when ruminants inadvertently consume _____; which migrates through their bodies causing infection.
Metal
______ is an inflammation of a joint. Caused by abnormal stress on a normal joint; or by normal stress on an abnormal joint.
Arthritis
Loss of transparency of the lens of the eye is known as ______. Can be genetic or acquired as the result of injury or diabetes; etc
Cataracts
______ occurs when the blood lacks coagulating factors; causing a strong tendency to bleed; and difficulty in getting the bleeding to stop.
Hemophilia
A ________ is an abnormal protrusion of organs through a weak spot or abnormal opening; usually in the abdominal or groin areas.
Hernia
When a disease has no known cause it is said to be ________.
Idiopathic
A _____ is an abnormal heart sound associated with the opening or closing of a heart valve.
Murmur
_______________ is an abnormal clumping of red blood cells.
Agglutination
_____ is the medical term for a loss of hair
Alopecia
An analgesic would be administered to…
Reduce pain
___________ are drugs that reduce the ability of the blood to clot.
Anticoagulants
_________ are drugs administered to reduce vomiting.
Antiemetics
________ occurs when an animal inhales food or other materials into the airway.
Aspiration
____ is a yellow fluid produced by the liver and stored in the gall bladder that helps in the digestion of fats.
Bile
An abnormally slow heart rate is known as _____.
Bradycardia
An animal who harbors an infectious agent but is not showing signs of disease is known as a ____.
Carrier
___ is inflammation of the large intestine
Colitis
What is the conjunctiva?
The pink tissues surrounding the eye.
Deciduous teeth are also known as _________.
Baby teeth
Dermatitis is an inflammation of the _______.
Skin
Diuretics are drugs that increase the amount of ____ produced.
Urine
Dysphagia is….
Difficulty eating and swallowing
Dysphoria is….
Agitation or restlessness
Dyspnea is…
Difficulty breathing
Dystocia is…
Difficulty birthing
___ refers to low blood calcium occurring in female dogs and cats at the end of gestation; or more commonly during early lactation.
Eclampsia
A/an ________ collar is a large plastic collar that is placed over the head of a dog or cat. It has a cone shape and is used to keep them from licking or chewing on themselves.
Elizabethian
Encephalitis is inflammation of the _____.
Brain
Endometritis is a/an _____ inflammation or infection due to bacteria or fungi
Uterine
Ectoparasites reside on the ____.
Skin
Endoparasites reside ______ the animal.
Inside
A long; flexible lighted tube used to see inside structures is called a _______.
Endoscope
Epiphora is…
Excessive tearing
Epistaxis is….
A bloody nose
Granuloma is…
A focal inflammatory reaction.
Hematuria is…
Red blood cells in the urine
Hypercalcemia…
Elevated blood calcium
Hyperkalemia is…
Elevated blood potassium
Hypermagnesemia is…
Elevated blood magnesium
Hypernatremia is…
Elevated blood sodium
Hyperphosphatemia is…
Elevated blood phosphorus
Hypocalcemia is…
Low blood calcium
Hypokalemia is…
Low blood potassium
Hypomagnesemia is…
Low blood magnesium
_____ is a route of drug or fluid administration into the bone marrow cavity
Intramedullary administration
_____ is an inflammation of the clear part of the eye; the cornea.
Keratitis
Leukocytosis is a _____________ cell count.
High white blood
Leukopenis is a ______________ cell count.
Low white blood
Metritis is an infection of the _______.
Uterus
_______ is the pink lining of an organ; such as the lining of the nose; mouth; vagina; penis.
Mucosa
Another name for cancer is….
Neoplasia
Oliguria is when an abnormally small amount of _____ is produced.
Urine
Oncology is the study of ___.
Cancer
Orchitis is an inflammation of the ___.
Testicles
Pediculosus is an infestation with ____.
Lice
Polydipsia is….
Drinking excessive amounts of water
Polyuria….
An increased amount of urine.
___ are infectious proteins. Scrapie in sheep; Creutzfeldt Jakob disease in humans; and Bovine Spongifor Encephalopathy in cattle (Mad Cow Disease)are all caused by ______.
Prions
Probiotics are a live microbial feed supplement which _________ affects the host animal.
Beneficially
The abnormal position of an organ in which the organ pouches through an opening from which it does not normally protrude is known as a _____.
Prolapse
Proptosis is…
Bulging of the eye out of the eye socket
Pyrexia is….
A fever
Pyuria is…
White blood cells in the urine
________ is the discharge of more fluid than normal fecal matter from the bowel; often more frequently than normal.
Scours
Sepsis is the presence of infectious organisms in the ___.
Blood
_______ are solutions that destroy microorganisms or inhibit their growth on living tissue.
Antiseptics
_________ is the term used to describe being free of infection or contamination by microorganisms
Aseptic
The ______ period is the period of time between infection and the appearance of clinical signs.
Incubation
MSDS stands for:
Material Safety Data Sheet
A malocclusion refers to poor positioning of the _______.
Teeth
Osteoma is cancer of the _____.
Bone
The latin root cephal refers to the _____.
Brain
The latin root ophthalm refers to the _____.
Eyes
The latin root steth refers to the _____.
Chest
The latin prefix mal means ____.
Bad; poor
The latin prefix dys means _____.
Hard; difficult
The latin prefix anti means ___.
Against; opposing
The latin prefix tachy means ______.
Abnormally fast
The latin prefix hyper means ____.
Excessive; abnormally high
The latin prefix poly means _____.
Many; multiple; much
The latin prefix hypo means _____.
Insufficient; abnormally low
The latin suffix cyte means _____.
Cell
The latin suffix scope means _____.
Sight
The latin suffix itis means ____.
Inflammation
The latin suffix ology means ____.
Study of
The latin suffix ectomy means ____.
To surgically remove
The latin suffix pnea means ____.
Breathing
The latin suffix emia means ____.
Blood
The latin suffix tomy means ____.
Cut; incision
The latin suffix oma means _____.
Tumor
The latin suffix penia means _____.
Deficiency of
Dry hacking; coughing; not eating; and pneumonia are symptoms of _____.
Kennel Cough
Aggression; foaming of the mouth; and paralysis are symptoms of ____.
Rabies
Lameness; fever; and swollen or painful joints are a symptom of ____.
Lyme Disease
_________ is characterized by a mild respiratory tract infection.
Parainfluenza
Roy is a 100lb. Dalmatian. Dr. Smith has instructed you to dispense Tetracycline capsules (250 mg) at a dosage of 5 mg/lb to be given 3 times a day (TID) for 5 days. Determine how many milligrams Roy needs for his body weight.
500 mg
Roy is a 100lb. Dalmatian. Dr. Smith has instructed you to dispense Tetracycline capsules (250 mg) at a dosage of 5 mg/lb to be given 3 times a day (TID) for 5 days. Determine how many capsules are needed per dose.
2
Roy is a 100lb. Dalmatian. Dr. Smith has instructed you to dispense Tetracycline capsules (250 mg) at a dosage of 5 mg/lb to be given 3 times a day (TID) for 5 days. Determine how many capsules are needed to the entire length of the treatment.
30
Karley is a 10 lb Siamese. Dr. Jones has instructed you to dispense metaclopromide liquid (30 mg) at a dosage of 3 mg/lb; twice a day for three days. Note: liquid is measured in milliliters so in this problem 1 mL of metaclopromide is equal to 30 mg. Determine how many milligrams are needed for Karley’s body weight.
30 mg
Karley is a 10 lb Siamese. Dr. Jones has instructed you to dispense metaclopromide liquid (30 mg) at a dosage of 3 mg/lb; twice a day for three days. Note: liquid is measured in milliliters so in this problem 1 mL of metaclopromide is equal to 30 mg. Determine the number of mL needed for one dose.
1 mL
Karley is a 10 lb Siamese. Dr. Jones has instructed you to dispense metaclopromide liquid (30 mg) at a dosage of 3 mg/lb; twice a day for three days. Note: liquid is measured in milliliters so in this problem 1 mL of metaclopromide is equal to 30 mg. Determine the number of mL that is equal to the total mg needed. Determine the total amount of mL needed for the whole treatment.
6 mL
Phil; a 15 lb cat belonging to Wendy Carlisle; needs to get 25 mg of Baytril twice a day for seven days. How many total milligrams of Baytril does Phil need for 7 days?
350 mg
Phil; a 15 lb cat belonging to Wendy Carlisle; needs to get 25 mg of Baytril twice a day for seven days. How many mg is Phil getting per lb?
1.66 mg
Foster; a 60 lb bulldog belonging to Halle Alvarez; needs to get 90 mg of Prednisone once every other day for 10 days. How many total milligrams of Prednisone does Foster need for 10 days?
450 mg
Read the following statement and determine which stage of grieving the owner is going through: The owner sends a card to the hospital staff thanking them for taking such good care of George in his final days and includes a picture of her new kitten.
Acceptance
Read the following statement and determine which stage of grieving the owner is going through: The owner insists on having surgery done to remove more of Buddy’s diseased lung tissue even after being told that it would only extend his life for no more than another week.
Bargaining
Read the following statement and determine which stage of grieving the owner is going through: The owner says to the receptionist “If only I had noticed the lump on Katie’s leg a few weeks ago; this never would have happened.”
Guilt
Read the following statement and determine which stage of grieving the owner is going through: When discussing Rudy’s worsening condition with the veterinarian; the owner keeps telling stories about how Rudy had been worse off than this plenty of times and he always managed to pull through.
Denial
Read the following statement and determine which stage of grieving the owner is going through: On her way out the door; the owner knocks a display off a table and then begins yelling at the receptionist for placing a display so close to the door.
Anger
A veterinarian in a critical care unit determines that one calf was given the following intravenous (IV) solutions in a 24 hour period: 745 milliliters (mL) of 0.9% normal saline; 420 mL of lactated ringers; 1;250 mL of 5% dextrose; and 15 mL of an antibiotic solution. How many total milliliters of IV solution did the patient receive?
2430
A veterinary technician notes that a dog’s leukocyte (white blood cell) count before surgery was 18;645. Two days after the surgery; the patient had a leukocyte count of 8;968. What is the difference in the leukocyte counts?
9677
A veterinary technician is calculating the bill for hospital care for a kidney transplant cat. The bill for medical services and care was $2;685. The owners paid $1;389 when they picked up the cat. A few weeks later they paid another $497. How much do they still owe?
799
The lab receives a prescription order from the veterinarian. He wants the patient to take 40 milligrams (mg) of amoxicillin four times a day for 25 days. The lab has 20 mg amoxicillin tablets. How many tablets should the vet tech give to the client for the 25-day period?
200
A microbiologist is staining bacterial slides. He uses a bottle of Gram stain that contains 144 milliliters (mL) of solution. If each slide requires 18 mL of the solution; how many slides can he stain with one bottle of solution?
8
A technician is staining blood film slides with Wright’s stain. The Wright’s stain bottle contains 120 mL. He uses 12 mL of the Wright’s stain for each slide and stains 6 slides. How many additional slides can be stained with the Wright’s stain?
4
A vet tech gives a dog ½ ounces (oz) of cough medicine at 6 PM and ¼ oz of cough medicine at 10 PM. What is the total amount of cough medicine received?
3/4 oz
A vet tech uses ½ oz; ¾ oz; and 5/8 oz of solution to perform three urinary analysis tests. How much total solution does she use?
2 1/8 oz
After developing X-rays; a veterinary technician finds that the image is too dark. He knows that the milliamperage per second (MaS) for the X-ray machine should be reduced to 1/4 of the original setting to correct the problem. If he used 80 MaS the first time; what MaS should he use to correct the problem?
60 MaS
An obese Lab receives Cytomel; a thyroid drug for hypothyroidism. The first dose it is given 0.025 mg. The next dose is increased 0.0125 mg. What is the total for the second dose?
.04 mg
A dog takes 0.625 mg of Premarion twice a day for five days. What is the total dose?
6.25 mg
If a dog is given 3 L of IV fluid; how many mLs is it given?
3000 mL
Prepared puppy formula comes in 1 L cans. If a puppy drinks 50 mL per feeding how many feedings are in one can?
20
If seven quarts of quantricide are used in 5 weeks; how many quarts are used in 16 weeks?
23
The vet ordered 0.75 g of Novobiocin and in stock there are 250 mg capsules. How many capsules should be dispensed?
3
Tablets come in 0.25 g and you must administer 1000 mg. How many tablets do you give?
4
You must give 250 mg of Droncit and the tablets are 0.5 g. How many tablets do you give?
2
You administer 750 mg of medicine that is available as 0.25 g per capsule. How many capsules do you give?
3
Tablets come in 0.5 g and you must administer 1000 mg. How many tablets do you give?
2
Carprofen is available as 0.6 g/tab and you must administer 300 mg. How many tablets do you give?
0.5
You must administer 0.25 g of a medication that is available as 125 mg/tab. How many tablets do you give?
2
You must give 1.5 g of a drug that is available as 750 mg/capsule. How many capsules do you give?
2
Tablets are available in 400 mg. To give 100 mg; how many tablets do you need?
0.25
A drug comes in 0.25 mg tablets and you must administer 0.75 mg. How many tablets do you need?
3
The vet prescribed 0.5 g of Novobiocin and in stock there are 250 mg capsules. How many capsules should be dispensed if the tablets are given three times a day (TID) for five days?
30
Tablets come in 0.25 g and the dog needs a dose of 1000 mg. How many tablets will you give to the client if they must be administered twice a day (BID) for 10 days?
80
You must give 750 mg of medication and the tablets are 1.0 g. How many tablets will you give to the client so they have enough for one treatment a day (OD) for ten days?
8
You administer 500 mg of medicine which is available as 0.25 g per capsule. How many capsules do you give for eight days if the medication must be given BID?
32
Phenobarbital tablets come in 0.5 g and you must administer 1000mg. How many tablets do you give so there is enough for treatment BID for three days?
12
A drug is available as 0.6 g/tab and the vet prescribes 300mg per treatment. How many tablets should be dispensed to give four treatments per day for three days?
6
You must administer 0.25 g. The medication is available as 125 mg/tab. How many tablets do you need for seven days of treatment TID?
42
You must give 1.5 g of a drug that is available as 750 mg/capsule. How many tablets will be dispensed if treatments are BID for ten days?
40
Tablets are available in 400 mg. To give a 100 mg dose; how many total tablets do you need to treat a dog TID for 21 days?
16
A drug comes in 0.25 mg tablets and you must administer 0.75 mg. How much medication is needed if it is given BID for two weeks?
84
A veterinarian orders Streptomycin 500 mg IM. The dosage available for use contains 1 g/ 2 mL. How many mL should be injected?
1 mL
A doctor orders 75 mg of Demerol IM every 4 hours for pain. It is available in 50 mg/ mL. How much should be injected over a 24-hour period?
9 mL
The vet orders Librium 50 mg IM. It is available in a concentration of 100 mg/ mL. How many mL should be injected?
1/2 mL
The veterinarian orders 15 mg of Vitamin K. The vial is labeled 10 mg/mL. How many mL will be administered?
1 1/2 mL
A dog gets cut on the leg from barbed wire and develops an infection. The veterinarian orders 500 mg of amoxicillin BID for 10 days. Capsules are available in 250 mg. As a vet tech; how many capsules should you dispense?
40
A dog develops a hot spot and the veterinarian feels the best way to treat it is to use Prednisone (a steroid). Tablets contain 5 mg/tablet. The dog weighs 75 lbs and the recommended dosage is 5 mg /25 lbs. How many tablets will be given over five days if the medication is to be given OD?
15
A horse weighs 1200 lbs. Through a fecal exam; he has been diagnosed with strongyles and pinworms. The treatment is Strongid paste. The normal dosage is 3 mg/lb of body weight. How many grams should be administered?
3600
Zeus bit Zack in the foot. After looking at the wound; the veterinarian prescribed amoxicillin BID for 10 days. The dosage is 5 mg /lb twice a day. If Zack weighs 100 lbs; how many 500 mg capsules should be dispensed?
20
Which of the following is not a bacterial disease?
Rabies
Which of the following is not a parasitic disease?
Rabies
What is the latin term for dog?
Canis
What is the latin term for cat?
Felis
What is the latin term for horse?
Equus
What is the latin term for cattle?
Bos
What is the latin term for sheep?
Ovis
What is the latin term for goat?
Capra
What is the latin term for swine?
Sus
What is the latin term for bird?
Avis
What is the latin term for mouse?
Mus
What is the latin term for rat?
Rattus
Which of the following means one time daily?
sid
Which of the following means twice daily?
bid
Which of the following means three times daily?
tid
Which of the following means four times daily?
qid
______ is the use of a stethoscope to listen to sounds produced by the functions of the respiratory; circulatory; and digestive systems
Auscultation
Which of the following is not an abnormal sound when observing the lungs of an animal?
Steady breaths
When taking a patient history; which question would be the best to ask?
“How much water does Fluffy drink daily?”
Which of the following is a vector of disease?
Flea
Which of the following is a vehicle of disease?
Instruments
Which of the following is not a direct mode of parasite transmission?
Transmission occurs when an animal ingests a paratenic host.
The organism that causes heartworm is:
Dirofilaria immitis
The most common endoparasite of puppies and kittens is:
Roundworm
What parasite transmits Lyme disease?
Tick
To remove a tick you should:
Use tweezers to grasp the head and pull straight out
The clinical signs of heartworm are:
deep cough; irregular heart beat; exercise intolerance
Subcutaneous injections are made ________.
under the skin
An animal that lives and feeds on other animals is a ________.
parasite
When taking the temperature of an animal; use a/an ________.
rectal thermometer
Which of the following is not a means of administering drugs orally?
drench
The purpose of vaccination is to ________.
prevent diseases
Which of the following is not a sign of good health in animals?
increased pulse rate
Which of the following is not an internal parasite?
mite
Call a veterinarian when the animal ________.
aborts
A twitch is used to ________.
restrain horses
The male sex hormone is called ________.
testosterone
The gestation period is the ________.
length of pregnancy
A pair of genes with characteristics that are alike is said to be ________.
homozygous
Mating of an animal of one breed to an animal of another breed is ________.
crossbreeding
The phenotype of an individual is ________.
the physical appearance
When genes are transferred from one individual to another other than through mating; it is referred to as ________.
genetic engineering
The inability to reproduce is ________.
sterility
Mating a sire to his daughter is ________.
closebreeding
A gosling is a baby ________.
goose
A pair of rabbits can produce ________ rabbits for meat per year.
50 to 60
The ________ breed of chicken is the foundation of nearly all types of laying hens.
Leghorn
A type of rabbit that produces wool is ________.
angora
The champion egg-laying breed of bird is the ________.
Khaki Campbell
Feed taken in by poultry first goes to the ________ where it is softened by saliva and secretions from the walls.
crop
The key to absorption is the small finger like projections on the walls of the intestine called ________.
villi
________ are a group of animals that can digest large quantities of roughage in their digestive systems.
Ruminants
________ refers to high-fiber feeds such as hay; silage; and pasture.
Roughage
Feed particles in poultry are crushed and mixed with digestive juices by the ________.
gizzard
A chemical element or compound that aids in the support of life is a ________.
nutrient
The amount of ammoniacal nitrogen in the feed multiplied by 6.25 is known as ________ ________.
crude protein
When there is a lack of a certain mineral in an animal’s ration; this is called a/an _______.
deficiency
The main energy nutrient found in animal rations are ________.
carbohydrates
Which have the highest energy value?
fats
The use of drugs at a lower level in feeds than would be used to treat a sick animal is referred to as ________.
subtherapeutic
The length of time an implant is effective is related to ________.
proper technique in applying
The survival and performance rates of pigs are improved when antibiotics are used in farrowing rations for a period of ________ days before to ________ days after farrowing.
7; 14
________ is a synthetic hormone that suppresses estrus.
melengestrol acetate
When animals have worms; a/an ________ can be used to control various species of worms that infest them.
anthelmintic
Implants contain an active ingredient that is hormone-like and can interfere with reproduction or cause ________.
sterility
Livestock feeds are classified as ________.
roughages and concentrates
A maintenance ration for beef cattle is primarily ________.
roughages
The net energy for production is that amount of energy needed by the animal above the amount used for ________.
maintenance
When determining a ration; the ________ must be considered when determining the nutrient requirements.
functions of the ration
Breathing; function of the heart; and other vital body processes are called ________ ________.
basal metabolism
Livestock feeds that contain 20% or more protein are called ________ ________.
protein supplements
________ is animal tissues and bones from animal slaughterhouses and rendering plants that are cooked; dried; and ground.
Tankage
In poultry; the sex of the offspring is determined by ________.
female
Genotype refers to the ________.
combination of genes
When chromosome pairs are divided in such a manner that each gamete has one of each type of chromosome; the process is called ________.
meiosis
The diploid number of chromosomes in cattle is ________.
30
When cells divide to form specialized tissues and organs; this process in animals is called ________.
mitosis
The ________ ________ molecule is shaped like a double helix.
deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
In which animal is the papilla a reproductive organ?
poultry
The gland near the urethra and bladder that produces a fluid that mixes with the seminal fluid is called the ________.
prostrate
What is the period of time when a female will accept the male for breeding?
estrus
________ of eggs is keeping them at the right temperature and humidity for hatching.
Incubation
________ is the process of giving birth to the new animal.
Parturition
In males; the ________ _________ open into the urethra.
seminal vesicles
Porcine somatotropin is a protein produced in which gland of the pig?
pituitary
Experimental work done on ________ in 1950 revealed that it was possible to clone vertebrate animals.
frogs
Genetic engineering has been used to increase the level of bovine somatotropin in cows; which results in higher ________ production.
milk
________ refers to a process of inducing a cow to produce several oocytes during each estrus cycle.
Superovulation
The science of altering genetic and reproductive processes in animals and plants is called ________ ________.
agricultural biotechnology
A ________ animal is one that is of a particular breed.
purebred
A person interested in registering animals should contact the _______.
appropriate breed association
What is a common disqualification in rules for registering animals in a breed association?
color marking
________ and _______ are two basic systems for breeding livestock.
straight-breeding; crossbreeding
_________ is mating animals from two different lines within a breed.
Linecrossing
In ________-________ sire system breeding; two breeding groups are needed for the system; bulls from A and B are rotated on 50 percent of the herd providing crossbred females for the entire herd.
rotational; terminal
Brisket disease affects the ________ in cattle.
heart
________ eggs laid in manure or organic matter hatch in 8 to 20 hours.
Housefly
Pinkeye in animals is carried by ________.
insects
________ is a disease caused by microorganisms in cattle that is also dangerous to humans causing undulant fever.
Brucellosis
An organism that affects the genital tract of the bull and is transmitted to the cow during breeding is called ________ _______.
Trichomoniasis
In hogs; the underline should have a minimum of ________ nipples per side.
6
Many of the odor problems from confinement operations are related to the release of ________ from manure.
ammonia
Pigs must be ear notched for ________; which is necessary for good record keeping.
identification
________ have a higher protein content than corn but the quality of protein is poorer.
Oats
About ________ of the pigs lost before weaning are lost because of poor feeding.
one-fourth
________ is a disease caused by bacteria; often confused with swine dysentery.
Necrotic enteritis
________ is caused by a virus. Symptoms in young pigs include fever; vomiting; tremors; lack of coordination; convulsions; and death.
Pseudorabies
________ is a condition caused by a lack of sugar in the diet.
Hypoglycemia
________ parasites are the most serious health problem for sheep and goats.
Internal
________ ________ is a disease that affects the tissue of the foot.
Foot Abscess (Bumblefoot)
________ affects sheep and is caused by bacteria and the major symptom is abortion.
Vibriosis (Campylobacteriosis)
________ is an inflammation of the lungs that affects both sheep and goats.
Pneumonia
What features of the horse can be used to determine age?
teeth
________ and ________ are the two most important parts of the horse.
Feet; legs
The ________ is a lateral movement of the horse.
amble
What is the average conception percent rate for horses?
50-60
Horses drink ________ to ________ gallons of water a day.
10; 12
A ________ is a person who works on horses’ feet.
farrier
________ is a condition in which horses do not sweat normally.
Anhydrosis
________ is a nutritional disorder that affects the respiratory system.
Heaves
A disease caused by bacteria that enter the animal’s body through a puncture wound is called ________.
tetanus
Parasites can be controlled by the use of ________.
insecticides
Lymphoid leukosis usually affects a bird over ________ weeks old
16
________ is caused by a virus and affects turkeys; chickens; and other birds.
Avian pox
________ is the result of a bird eating decayed material that contains a toxin that was produced by bacteria.
Botulism
Ketosis usually occurs during the first ________ to ________ weeks after calving.
6 to 8
One objective of a mastitis control program is the avoidance of ________ residue in the milk.
drug
________ is using the same drug in the feed supply and then by injection.
Double dosing
Rabbits consume how much more water than dry matter?
2.5-3 times
The term for rabbit house is ________.
hutch
In the marketing of rabbits; those with ________ pelts bring lower prices.
colored
The environmental temperature influences the ________ requirement of rabbits.
energy
This system includes the stomach; intestines; and internal organs; such as the liver; pancreas; and spleen.
abdominal system
Movement away from midline or the axis of the body is known as ________.
abduction
This string muscle allows a shell to open and close.
Abductor
The ________ is the last section of the ruminant stomach that acts as the true stomach and allows food to be digested.
abomasum
A pregnant female animal that has lost the fetus is known as a/an ________.
abortion
A bacterial infection that causes pus to build up in a localized area is known as a/an ________.
abscess
A/an ________ is a material that is broken down within the body over a period of time and is absorbed by the body.
absorbable suture
The root word arthr/o- means:
joint
The root word cardi/o- means:
heart
The root word chem/o- means:
chemical
The root word col/o- means:
colon
The root word cutane/o- means:
skin
The root word cyst/o- means:
urinary bladder
The root word dent/o- means:
teeth
The root word electr/o- means:
electricity
The root word enter/o- means:
intestines
The root word gastr/o- means:
stomach
The root word hem/o- means:
blood
The root word hepat/o- means:
liver
The root word hyster/o- means:
uterus
The root word lapar/o- means:
abdomen
The root word mast- means:
mammary gland
The root word nas/o- means:
nose
The root word nephr/o- means:
kidneys
The root word oste/o- means:
bone
The root word ovari/o- means:
ovary
The root word radi/o- means:
radiation
The root word rect/o- means:
rectum
The root word rhin/o- means:
nose
The root word urin/o- means:
urine
The root word uter/o- means:
uterus
The common directional term “aspect” means:
area
The common directional term “caudal” means:
toward the tail
The common directional term “cranial” means:
toward the head
The common directional term “distal” means:
away from the center of the body
The common directional term “dorsal” means:
toward the back area
The common directional term “lateral” means:
side of the body and toward the outside
Amphibian is the species term for:
frog or toad
Avian is the species term for:
bird
Bovine is the species term for:
cow
Canine is the species term for:
dog
Caprine is the species term for:
goat
Cavy is the species term for:
guinea pig
Equine is the species term for:
horse
Feline is the species term for:
cat
Lagomorph is the species term for:
rabbit
Murine is the species term for:
rat or mouse
Ovine is the species term for:
sheep
Porcine is the species term for:
pig or swine
Poultry is the species term for:
chicken and turkey
Primate is the species term for:
monkey and ape
Reptile is the species term for:
snake and lizard
Terrapin is the species term for:
turtle
The common veterinary abbreviation “C or cast” means:
castrated
The common veterinary abbreviation “C-sect” means:
c-section or caesarian section
The common veterinary abbreviation “d/c” means:
discharge
The common veterinary abbreviation “DLH” means:
domestic long hair (cat)
The common veterinary abbreviation “DSH” means:
domestic short hair (cat)
The common veterinary abbreviation “d/o” means:
drop off
The common veterinary abbreviation “EX” means:
exotic
The common veterinary abbreviation “F” means:
female
The common veterinary abbreviation “K-9” means:
dog or canine
The common veterinary abbreviation “M” means:
male
The common veterinary abbreviation “Mo” means:
month
The common veterinary abbreviation “NM” means:
neutered male
The common veterinary abbreviation “p/u” means:
pick up
The common veterinary abbreviation “rec” means:
recommend
The common veterinary abbreviation “S or SF” means:
spayed or spayed female
The common veterinary abbreviation “S/R” means:
suture removal
The common veterinary abbreviation “Sx” means:
surgery
The common veterinary abbreviation “Wk” means:
week
The common veterinary abbreviation “y or yr” means:
year
A term related to patient history when they are not eating or have a decreased appetite is ________.
Anorexia
The term “BM” when related to patient history is:
bowel movement
The term “D” when related to patient history is:
diarrhea
The term “Dysuria” when related to patient history is:
difficulty or trouble with urination
The term “Dz” when related to patient history is:
disease
The term “HBC” when related to patient history is:
hit by car
The term “Hematuria” when related to patient history is:
blood in the urine
The term “Hx” when related to patient history is:
history
The term “Lethargic” when related to patient history is:
tired or inactive
The term “PD” when related to patient history is:
polydipsia (increased thirst)
The term “PU” when related to patient history is:
polyuria (increased urination)
The term “U” when related to patient history is:
urine
The term “V” when related to patient history is:
vomiting
The term “V/D” when related to patient history is:
vomiting and diarrhea
“Acute” is a term related to physical examination and means:
short term
“Anals or AG” is a term related to physical examination and means:
anal glands
