VTT CDE Questions Flashcards
1
Q
Phenothiazine tranquilizers are contradicted in an animal with:
A
epilepsy
2
Q
In canines and felines; all deciduous teeth are normally shed by:
A
6-8 months of age
3
Q
An osteosarcoma is a:
A
malignant tumor originating in bone
4
Q
Urine filtration occurs in which portion of the nephron?
A
Glomerulus
5
Q
A lowered prothrombin level can be caused by a dietary deficiency; by impaired synthesis; or by impaired absorption of vitamin:
A
K
6
Q
A veterinarian treated a cow for milk fever last evening; but this morning the owner calls and informs the technician that the cow is down again. The veterinarian is too sick to work today. The technician should:
A
inform the owner that the veterinarian is sick and try to obtain a referral
7
Q
A correct statement regarding halothane and methoxyflurane is that these anesthetics:
A
cross the placenta rapidly
8
Q
A correct statement regarding a Gram stain is that such a stain is a:
A
chromatic differential test of microorganisms
9
Q
Which of the following is the best reversible agent for inducing anesthesia in sight hounds?
A
Oxymorphone
10
Q
Which of the following tissues is most radiation sensitive?
A
Bone marrow
11
Q
Which of the following is an example of a water-soluble vitamin?
A
Vitamin B2
12
Q
When used as a preanesthetic; atropine will:
A
inhibit excessive salivary secretion
13
Q
The spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi is responsible for which of the following diseases?
A
Lyme
14
Q
The soda lime in inhalation anesthesia equipment is used to absorb:
A
carbon dioxide
15
Q
From cranial to caudal; the correct order for the segments of the spine in animals is:
A
cervical; thoracic; lumbar; sacral; coccygeal
16
Q
The Coggins test is used to diagnose:
A
equine infectious anemia
17
Q
A disinfectant that should be used with caution around cats is:
A
phenol
18
Q
An emasculator is used in:
A
castration
19
Q
A correct statement regarding an onychectomy is that it involves the:
A
surgical removal of the nail
20
Q
A correct statement about the proper storage of whole blood is that it:
A
can be stored at 32.9 F to 50 F (4 C - 10 C) for up to 3 weeks
21
Q
In which of the following types of fracture would skin be torn; and bone and subcutaneous tissue be exposed?
A
compound
22
Q
When using a dip on a dog to treat mange; you must:
A
place protective ointment on the dog’s eyes first
23
Q
An otoscope is an instrument primarily used for examining the:
A
ears
24
Q
Which of the following dog breeds is classified as brachycephalic?
A
Pekingese
25
Which patient information should be included on the laboratory request form when ordering a blood culture?
Received penicillin 12 hours before the specimen was taken
26
The most important reason for polishing the teeth after ultrasonic scaling is to:
create smooth surfaces to prevent accumulation
27
The parasite Anapasma marginale invades the:
red blood cells in cattle
28
A general-purpose stain; such as new methylene blue; is useful for:
studying the morphology of an organism
29
Unused media intended for microbiology purposes should be stored:
in the refrigerator
30
Eimeria stiedai is associated with:
hepatic coccidiosis in rabbits
31
The type of wound healing in which granulation tissue forms; filling the defect; is known as:
second intention
32
A dog that weighs 30 lbs (13.6 kg) has had medication prescribed at a dosage of 0.01 mg/lb (0.022 mg/kg). The medication is available only in tablets that contain 0.3 mg each. For one dose; how many tablets should the dog receive?
1
33
In cases of organophosphate poisoning; which of the following is a commonly used antagonist?
Atropine
34
The penetrating power of an X ray is controlled by the:
kilovoltage
35
A correct statement regarding doxapram hydrochloride (Dopram-V) is that it is a:
respiratory stimulant
36
Which of the following parasites is most likely to cause eye damage to a human who becomes infected?
A Toxocara canis larva
37
When the albumin value is subtracted from the total protein value; the remainder represents the concentration of:
globulin
38
Which of the following is a respirator stimulant?
Doxapram
39
Anticholinergic drugs decrease all of the following except:
pain
40
Which of the following methods would be an initial measure in providing first aid for epistaxis?
Application of ice packs to the nasal passages
41
Treatment instructions on a hospitalized dog read: "Administer chloramphenicol 500 mg b.i.d. per os." To comply with these instructions; the treatment is correctly interpreted as:
500 mg twice a day by mouth
42
If an error is made on a medical record; the proper method for correcting the mistake is to:
draw a single line though it and initial the correction
43
Which of the following is commonly used for infiltration and epidural anesthesia?
Lidocaine
44
A bovine can be made recumbent by exerting pressure on muscles and nerves with a series of carefully placed and tightened ropes. This technique is called:
casting
45
A correct statement concerning guinea pigs is that they are:
unable to synthesize sufficient vitamin C
46
A radiograph that has been developed with exhausted chemicals and increased developing time will have:
poor contrast; with a dark grey background
47
The laboratory animal that is most likely to have an epileptiform fit when handled is the:
gerbil
48
Both puppies and kittens can be started on heartworm-preventative therapy at the age of 6 to 8 weeks.
TRUE
49
The principal cause of infection bovine keratoconjunctivitis (inflamed cornea and conjunctiva) is:
Moraxella bovis
50
Which of the following statements is/are true?
The goal of feeding food animals is to encourage rapid weight gain.
51
You are standing alongside the withers of a stalled horse attempting to place a rope around its neck. The best action to take if the horse moves away from you is to:
Attempt to stay with the horse by moving along side and holding onto the mane.
52
Concerning tying a horse; which statement is most accurate?
Tie a horse to an object at its shoulder level or higher.
53
A _____ is often found at the end of a series of pens and alleyways and is the final capture and restraining device for cattle.
chute and head catch
54
Accusing a pet of being vindictive; spiteful; jealous; or rebellious is considered a(n) _____ explanation for unrealistic expectations.
Anthropomorphic
55
To prevent/minimize inappropriate behavior from a pet; the owners must:
use crate training with the puppy
56
An animal that growls or hisses; bares teeth; air snaps; and/or lunges is exhibiting _____ behavior.
threatening
57
Most cats prefer to be petted:
on their scent glands located on their cheeks and in front of their ears
58
Cryptococcosis is a _____ organism diagnosed by \_\_\_\_\_.
fungal (yeast); direct microscopic examination using potassium hydroxide
59
An otherwise healthy veterinary technician; Anna; is bitten by a 2-year-old mixed-breed dog; "Tow Tow;" while restraining him for a pedicure. The bite does not cause severe tissue damage; but the canine teeth penetrate her skin and she does bleed. Tow Tow is current on all of his vaccinations including rabies. He lives primarily in the backyard of his owner's suburban home. What is the best; first action Anna should take following the bite?
Wash the wound with soap and water; then with povidone-iodine; and follow with a thorough irrigation with water.
60
An otherwise healthy veterinary technician; Anna; is bitten by a 2-year-old mixed-breed dog; "Tow Tow;" while restraining him for a pedicure. The bite does not cause severe tissue damage; but the canine teeth penetrate her skin and she does bleed. Tow Tow is current on all of his vaccinations including rabies. He lives primarily in the backyard of his owner's suburban home. Which disease should Anna be most concerned about contracting?
Pasteurellosis & Rabies
61
Frequent hand washing with disinfectant soaps or detergents by those working with _____ can lessen the chance of contracting erysipeloid at work.
Swine; domestic fowl; fish; or shellfish
62
\_\_\_\_\_ causes both "fowl cholera" and rabbit "snuffles."
Pasteurella multocida
63
What is a "reportable" disease?
A confirmed diagnosis of a reportable disease that must be reported to local health authorities/
64
If you develop a sudden headache; vomiting; malaise; fever; and chills followed by a rash on your extremities; and you work with rats or rodents; you should report this to your physician so that she can initiate the proper diagnostic methods for potential:
Streptobacillosis or spirillosis
65
Which statement concerning rabies is most accurate?
Behavioral changes with profuse salivation; aggression; a change in voice; and/or paralysis may suggest a presumptive diagnosis of rabies.
66
Most cases of human rabies are attributable to _____ because the virus is most abundant in \_\_\_\_\_.
a bite by an infected animal; saliva
67
Rabies is always fatal once clinical disease has developed.
TRUE
68
A puppy should be vaccinated for rabies at _____ weeks.
12
69
The eyes and ears of kittens open at about _____ weeks of age.
2
70
Most dogs have about ______ bones.
320
71
Cats have about _______ bones.
250
72
Cats whiskers are _______ hairs; they are connected to sensitive nerves that help the cat protect itself and find its way in the dark.
Tactile
73
The gestation period of a rabbit is ________ days.
30 to 32
74
The integumentary system refers to the _____ of an animal.
Skin
75
The function of the _________ system of an animal is to rid the body of waste
Excretory
76
Which of the following animals has a monogastric digestive system?
Cat
77
Which of the following animals has a ruminant digestive system?
Goat
78
What is the average normal rectal temperature of cattle?
101.5
79
What is the average normal rectal temperature of a goat?
103.8
80
What is the average normal rectal temperature of swine?
102.6
81
What is the average normal rectal temperature of sheep?
102.3
82
What is the average normal rectal temperature of a horse?
100.5
83
What is the average normal rectal temperature of a cat?
103
84
What is the average normal rectal temperature of rabbit?
102.5
85
What is the average normal rectal temperature of a dog?
101.3
86
What is the normal pulse rate of cattle in rate/min?
60-70
87
What is the normal pulse rate of a horse in rate/min?
32-44
88
What is the normal pulse rate of cat in rate/min?
140-240
89
What is the normal pulse rate of a rabbit in rate/min?
140-150
90
What is the normal pulse rate of a dog in rate/min?
60-120
91
What is the normal respiration rate in rate/min of cattle?
10-30
92
What is the normal respiration rate in rate/min of swine?
8-15
93
What is the normal respiration rate in rate/min of sheep?
12-20
94
What is the normal respiration rate in rate/min of a goat?
12-20
95
What is the normal respiration rate in rate/min of a horse?
8-16
96
What is the normal respiration rate in rate/min of a cat?
20-40
97
What is the normal respiration rate in rate/min of a rabbit?
50-60
98
What is the normal respiration rate in rate/min of a dog?
10-30
99
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a parasitic disease caused by a protozoan that attacks red blood corpuscles. Cattle are primarily affected. Symptoms include amenia; rapid hearbeat; muscular tremors; and loss of appetite.
Anaplasmosis
100
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a bacterial disease that affects cattle; dogs; sheep; and most other companion animals. Symptoms include high fever; poor appetite; and bloody urine. Females will abort fetuses.
Leptospirosis
101
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the leading cause of profit loss in dairy cattle. It is a bacterial disease that affects female cattle; sheep; goats; and swine. It causes inflammation in the udder that effects milk production.
Mastitis
102
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a disease that occurs in really all warm blooded animals and can be transmitted to humans. Symptoms include aggressive behavior; fever; vomiting; and diarrhea. Some animals become frenzied and attack everything that moves.
Rabies
103
A/an _________ is a substance produced by one organism that will inhibit or kill another organism. They are used to treat diseases caused by bacteria.
Antibiotic
104
An injection made directly into the skin is called a __________ injection.
Intradermal
105
An injection made just beneath the skin is known as a _________ injection.
Subcutaneous
106
A ________ injection is made into the veins of an animal.
Intravenous
107
An ______________ injection is made into the body cavity.
Intraperitoneal
108
An _______ injection is made into the udder through an opening in the teat.
Intramammary
109
A _________ disease is an illness that can be transmitted from animals to humans.
Zoonotic
110
A ______ is an accumulation of pus in a dead space between tissues containing bacteria; white blood cells and dead tissue.
Abcess
111
Anaphylaxis is defined as a
Generalized life threatening allergic reaction.
112
Anemia is defined as…
Low in red blood cells
113
CPR stands for….
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
114
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a bacterial disease resulting from a cat scratch; which causes a soreness at the inflicted site; fever; and enlarged lymph nodes
Cat scratch fever
115
Cyanosis is the _____ color associated with low oxygen levels in the blood.
Blue
116
A hematoma is an accumulation of ______ in the dead space between tissues.
Blood
117
Metastasis is the spread of ___________ cells to other sites in the body.
Cancer
118
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the measurement of the presence of antibodies against a specific organism.
Serology
119
Tachycardia is defined as a
Elevated heart rate
120
Acute refers to the _________ of a symptom.
Sudden onset
121
Which of the following terms refers to sedating animals so they lack sensitivity or awareness.
Anesthetize
122
A ____ is a germicide that can be used on the skin of animals.
Antiseptic
123
Atrophy is the _________ of tissue.
Shrinking
124
A tumor that is localized and will not spread to other areas of the body is said to be \_\_\_\_\_.
Benign
125
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is an accumulation of gas in the rumen.
Bloat
126
A _______ is known as a prolonged state of unconsciousness.
Coma
127
A bone break in which the bone punctures the skin in known as a ___ fracture.
Compound
128
When something is congenital is….
Present at birth
129
Enzymes are ______ molecules that speed chemical reactions in the body.
Protein
130
Hardware disease occurs when ruminants inadvertently consume \_\_\_\_\_; which migrates through their bodies causing infection.
Metal
131
\_\_\_\_\_\_ is an inflammation of a joint. Caused by abnormal stress on a normal joint; or by normal stress on an abnormal joint.
Arthritis
132
Loss of transparency of the lens of the eye is known as \_\_\_\_\_\_. Can be genetic or acquired as the result of injury or diabetes; etc
Cataracts
133
\_\_\_\_\_\_ occurs when the blood lacks coagulating factors; causing a strong tendency to bleed; and difficulty in getting the bleeding to stop.
Hemophilia
134
A ________ is an abnormal protrusion of organs through a weak spot or abnormal opening; usually in the abdominal or groin areas.
Hernia
135
When a disease has no known cause it is said to be \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Idiopathic
136
A _____ is an abnormal heart sound associated with the opening or closing of a heart valve.
Murmur
137
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is an abnormal clumping of red blood cells.
Agglutination
138
\_\_\_\_\_ is the medical term for a loss of hair
Alopecia
139
An analgesic would be administered to…
Reduce pain
140
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are drugs that reduce the ability of the blood to clot.
Anticoagulants
141
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are drugs administered to reduce vomiting.
Antiemetics
142
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ occurs when an animal inhales food or other materials into the airway.
Aspiration
143
\_\_\_\_ is a yellow fluid produced by the liver and stored in the gall bladder that helps in the digestion of fats.
Bile
144
An abnormally slow heart rate is known as \_\_\_\_\_.
Bradycardia
145
An animal who harbors an infectious agent but is not showing signs of disease is known as a \_\_\_\_.
Carrier
146
\_\_\_ is inflammation of the large intestine
Colitis
147
What is the conjunctiva?
The pink tissues surrounding the eye.
148
Deciduous teeth are also known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Baby teeth
149
Dermatitis is an inflammation of the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Skin
150
Diuretics are drugs that increase the amount of ____ produced.
Urine
151
Dysphagia is….
Difficulty eating and swallowing
152
Dysphoria is….
Agitation or restlessness
153
Dyspnea is…
Difficulty breathing
154
Dystocia is…
Difficulty birthing
155
\_\_\_ refers to low blood calcium occurring in female dogs and cats at the end of gestation; or more commonly during early lactation.
Eclampsia
156
A/an ________ collar is a large plastic collar that is placed over the head of a dog or cat. It has a cone shape and is used to keep them from licking or chewing on themselves.
Elizabethian
157
Encephalitis is inflammation of the \_\_\_\_\_.
Brain
158
Endometritis is a/an _____ inflammation or infection due to bacteria or fungi
Uterine
159
Ectoparasites reside on the \_\_\_\_.
Skin
160
Endoparasites reside ______ the animal.
Inside
161
A long; flexible lighted tube used to see inside structures is called a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Endoscope
162
Epiphora is…
Excessive tearing
163
Epistaxis is….
A bloody nose
164
Granuloma is…
A focal inflammatory reaction.
165
Hematuria is…
Red blood cells in the urine
166
Hypercalcemia…
Elevated blood calcium
167
Hyperkalemia is…
Elevated blood potassium
168
Hypermagnesemia is…
Elevated blood magnesium
169
Hypernatremia is…
Elevated blood sodium
170
Hyperphosphatemia is…
Elevated blood phosphorus
171
Hypocalcemia is…
Low blood calcium
172
Hypokalemia is…
Low blood potassium
173
Hypomagnesemia is…
Low blood magnesium
174
\_\_\_\_\_ is a route of drug or fluid administration into the bone marrow cavity
Intramedullary administration
175
\_\_\_\_\_ is an inflammation of the clear part of the eye; the cornea.
Keratitis
176
Leukocytosis is a _____________ cell count.
High white blood
177
Leukopenis is a ______________ cell count.
Low white blood
178
Metritis is an infection of the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Uterus
179
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the pink lining of an organ; such as the lining of the nose; mouth; vagina; penis.
Mucosa
180
Another name for cancer is….
Neoplasia
181
Oliguria is when an abnormally small amount of _____ is produced.
Urine
182
Oncology is the study of \_\_\_.
Cancer
183
Orchitis is an inflammation of the \_\_\_.
Testicles
184
Pediculosus is an infestation with \_\_\_\_.
Lice
185
Polydipsia is….
Drinking excessive amounts of water
186
Polyuria….
An increased amount of urine.
187
\_\_\_ are infectious proteins. Scrapie in sheep; Creutzfeldt Jakob disease in humans; and Bovine Spongifor Encephalopathy in cattle (Mad Cow Disease)are all caused by \_\_\_\_\_\_.
Prions
188
Probiotics are a live microbial feed supplement which _________ affects the host animal.
Beneficially
189
The abnormal position of an organ in which the organ pouches through an opening from which it does not normally protrude is known as a \_\_\_\_\_.
Prolapse
190
Proptosis is…
Bulging of the eye out of the eye socket
191
Pyrexia is….
A fever
192
Pyuria is…
White blood cells in the urine
193
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the discharge of more fluid than normal fecal matter from the bowel; often more frequently than normal.
Scours
194
Sepsis is the presence of infectious organisms in the \_\_\_.
Blood
195
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are solutions that destroy microorganisms or inhibit their growth on living tissue.
Antiseptics
196
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the term used to describe being free of infection or contamination by microorganisms
Aseptic
197
The ______ period is the period of time between infection and the appearance of clinical signs.
Incubation
198
MSDS stands for:
Material Safety Data Sheet
199
A malocclusion refers to poor positioning of the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Teeth
200
Osteoma is cancer of the \_\_\_\_\_.
Bone
201
The latin root cephal refers to the \_\_\_\_\_.
Brain
202
The latin root ophthalm refers to the \_\_\_\_\_.
Eyes
203
The latin root steth refers to the \_\_\_\_\_.
Chest
204
The latin prefix mal means \_\_\_\_.
Bad; poor
205
The latin prefix dys means \_\_\_\_\_.
Hard; difficult
206
The latin prefix anti means \_\_\_.
Against; opposing
207
The latin prefix tachy means \_\_\_\_\_\_.
Abnormally fast
208
The latin prefix hyper means \_\_\_\_.
Excessive; abnormally high
209
The latin prefix poly means \_\_\_\_\_.
Many; multiple; much
210
The latin prefix hypo means \_\_\_\_\_.
Insufficient; abnormally low
211
The latin suffix cyte means \_\_\_\_\_.
Cell
212
The latin suffix scope means \_\_\_\_\_.
Sight
213
The latin suffix itis means \_\_\_\_.
Inflammation
214
The latin suffix ology means \_\_\_\_.
Study of
215
The latin suffix ectomy means \_\_\_\_.
To surgically remove
216
The latin suffix pnea means \_\_\_\_.
Breathing
217
The latin suffix emia means \_\_\_\_.
Blood
218
The latin suffix tomy means \_\_\_\_.
Cut; incision
219
The latin suffix oma means \_\_\_\_\_.
Tumor
220
The latin suffix penia means \_\_\_\_\_.
Deficiency of
221
Dry hacking; coughing; not eating; and pneumonia are symptoms of \_\_\_\_\_.
Kennel Cough
222
Aggression; foaming of the mouth; and paralysis are symptoms of \_\_\_\_.
Rabies
223
Lameness; fever; and swollen or painful joints are a symptom of \_\_\_\_.
Lyme Disease
224
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is characterized by a mild respiratory tract infection.
Parainfluenza
225
Roy is a 100lb. Dalmatian. Dr. Smith has instructed you to dispense Tetracycline capsules (250 mg) at a dosage of 5 mg/lb to be given 3 times a day (TID) for 5 days. Determine how many milligrams Roy needs for his body weight.
500 mg
226
Roy is a 100lb. Dalmatian. Dr. Smith has instructed you to dispense Tetracycline capsules (250 mg) at a dosage of 5 mg/lb to be given 3 times a day (TID) for 5 days. Determine how many capsules are needed per dose.
2
227
Roy is a 100lb. Dalmatian. Dr. Smith has instructed you to dispense Tetracycline capsules (250 mg) at a dosage of 5 mg/lb to be given 3 times a day (TID) for 5 days. Determine how many capsules are needed to the entire length of the treatment.
30
228
Karley is a 10 lb Siamese. Dr. Jones has instructed you to dispense metaclopromide liquid (30 mg) at a dosage of 3 mg/lb; twice a day for three days. Note: liquid is measured in milliliters so in this problem 1 mL of metaclopromide is equal to 30 mg. Determine how many milligrams are needed for Karley’s body weight.
30 mg
229
Karley is a 10 lb Siamese. Dr. Jones has instructed you to dispense metaclopromide liquid (30 mg) at a dosage of 3 mg/lb; twice a day for three days. Note: liquid is measured in milliliters so in this problem 1 mL of metaclopromide is equal to 30 mg. Determine the number of mL needed for one dose.
1 mL
230
Karley is a 10 lb Siamese. Dr. Jones has instructed you to dispense metaclopromide liquid (30 mg) at a dosage of 3 mg/lb; twice a day for three days. Note: liquid is measured in milliliters so in this problem 1 mL of metaclopromide is equal to 30 mg. Determine the number of mL that is equal to the total mg needed. Determine the total amount of mL needed for the whole treatment.
6 mL
231
Phil; a 15 lb cat belonging to Wendy Carlisle; needs to get 25 mg of Baytril twice a day for seven days. How many total milligrams of Baytril does Phil need for 7 days?
350 mg
232
Phil; a 15 lb cat belonging to Wendy Carlisle; needs to get 25 mg of Baytril twice a day for seven days. How many mg is Phil getting per lb?
1.66 mg
233
Foster; a 60 lb bulldog belonging to Halle Alvarez; needs to get 90 mg of Prednisone once every other day for 10 days. How many total milligrams of Prednisone does Foster need for 10 days?
450 mg
234
Read the following statement and determine which stage of grieving the owner is going through: The owner sends a card to the hospital staff thanking them for taking such good care of George in his final days and includes a picture of her new kitten.
Acceptance
235
Read the following statement and determine which stage of grieving the owner is going through: The owner insists on having surgery done to remove more of Buddy’s diseased lung tissue even after being told that it would only extend his life for no more than another week.
Bargaining
236
Read the following statement and determine which stage of grieving the owner is going through: The owner says to the receptionist “If only I had noticed the lump on Katie’s leg a few weeks ago; this never would have happened.”
Guilt
237
Read the following statement and determine which stage of grieving the owner is going through: When discussing Rudy’s worsening condition with the veterinarian; the owner keeps telling stories about how Rudy had been worse off than this plenty of times and he always managed to pull through.
Denial
238
Read the following statement and determine which stage of grieving the owner is going through: On her way out the door; the owner knocks a display off a table and then begins yelling at the receptionist for placing a display so close to the door.
Anger
239
A veterinarian in a critical care unit determines that one calf was given the following intravenous (IV) solutions in a 24 hour period: 745 milliliters (mL) of 0.9% normal saline; 420 mL of lactated ringers; 1;250 mL of 5% dextrose; and 15 mL of an antibiotic solution. How many total milliliters of IV solution did the patient receive?
2430
240
A veterinary technician notes that a dog’s leukocyte (white blood cell) count before surgery was 18;645. Two days after the surgery; the patient had a leukocyte count of 8;968. What is the difference in the leukocyte counts?
9677
241
A veterinary technician is calculating the bill for hospital care for a kidney transplant cat. The bill for medical services and care was $2;685. The owners paid $1;389 when they picked up the cat. A few weeks later they paid another $497. How much do they still owe?
799
242
The lab receives a prescription order from the veterinarian. He wants the patient to take 40 milligrams (mg) of amoxicillin four times a day for 25 days. The lab has 20 mg amoxicillin tablets. How many tablets should the vet tech give to the client for the 25-day period?
200
243
A microbiologist is staining bacterial slides. He uses a bottle of Gram stain that contains 144 milliliters (mL) of solution. If each slide requires 18 mL of the solution; how many slides can he stain with one bottle of solution?
8
244
A technician is staining blood film slides with Wright's stain. The Wright's stain bottle contains 120 mL. He uses 12 mL of the Wright's stain for each slide and stains 6 slides. How many additional slides can be stained with the Wright's stain?
4
245
A vet tech gives a dog ½ ounces (oz) of cough medicine at 6 PM and ¼ oz of cough medicine at 10 PM. What is the total amount of cough medicine received?
3/4 oz
246
A vet tech uses ½ oz; ¾ oz; and 5/8 oz of solution to perform three urinary analysis tests. How much total solution does she use?
2 1/8 oz
247
After developing X-rays; a veterinary technician finds that the image is too dark. He knows that the milliamperage per second (MaS) for the X-ray machine should be reduced to 1/4 of the original setting to correct the problem. If he used 80 MaS the first time; what MaS should he use to correct the problem?
60 MaS
248
An obese Lab receives Cytomel; a thyroid drug for hypothyroidism. The first dose it is given 0.025 mg. The next dose is increased 0.0125 mg. What is the total for the second dose?
.04 mg
249
A dog takes 0.625 mg of Premarion twice a day for five days. What is the total dose?
6.25 mg
250
If a dog is given 3 L of IV fluid; how many mLs is it given?
3000 mL
251
Prepared puppy formula comes in 1 L cans. If a puppy drinks 50 mL per feeding how many feedings are in one can?
20
252
If seven quarts of quantricide are used in 5 weeks; how many quarts are used in 16 weeks?
23
253
The vet ordered 0.75 g of Novobiocin and in stock there are 250 mg capsules. How many capsules should be dispensed?
3
254
Tablets come in 0.25 g and you must administer 1000 mg. How many tablets do you give?
4
255
You must give 250 mg of Droncit and the tablets are 0.5 g. How many tablets do you give?
2
256
You administer 750 mg of medicine that is available as 0.25 g per capsule. How many capsules do you give?
3
257
Tablets come in 0.5 g and you must administer 1000 mg. How many tablets do you give?
2
258
Carprofen is available as 0.6 g/tab and you must administer 300 mg. How many tablets do you give?
0.5
259
You must administer 0.25 g of a medication that is available as 125 mg/tab. How many tablets do you give?
2
260
You must give 1.5 g of a drug that is available as 750 mg/capsule. How many capsules do you give?
2
261
Tablets are available in 400 mg. To give 100 mg; how many tablets do you need?
0.25
262
A drug comes in 0.25 mg tablets and you must administer 0.75 mg. How many tablets do you need?
3
263
The vet prescribed 0.5 g of Novobiocin and in stock there are 250 mg capsules. How many capsules should be dispensed if the tablets are given three times a day (TID) for five days?
30
264
Tablets come in 0.25 g and the dog needs a dose of 1000 mg. How many tablets will you give to the client if they must be administered twice a day (BID) for 10 days?
80
265
You must give 750 mg of medication and the tablets are 1.0 g. How many tablets will you give to the client so they have enough for one treatment a day (OD) for ten days?
8
266
You administer 500 mg of medicine which is available as 0.25 g per capsule. How many capsules do you give for eight days if the medication must be given BID?
32
267
Phenobarbital tablets come in 0.5 g and you must administer 1000mg. How many tablets do you give so there is enough for treatment BID for three days?
12
268
A drug is available as 0.6 g/tab and the vet prescribes 300mg per treatment. How many tablets should be dispensed to give four treatments per day for three days?
6
269
You must administer 0.25 g. The medication is available as 125 mg/tab. How many tablets do you need for seven days of treatment TID?
42
270
You must give 1.5 g of a drug that is available as 750 mg/capsule. How many tablets will be dispensed if treatments are BID for ten days?
40
271
Tablets are available in 400 mg. To give a 100 mg dose; how many total tablets do you need to treat a dog TID for 21 days?
16
272
A drug comes in 0.25 mg tablets and you must administer 0.75 mg. How much medication is needed if it is given BID for two weeks?
84
273
A veterinarian orders Streptomycin 500 mg IM. The dosage available for use contains 1 g/ 2 mL. How many mL should be injected?
1 mL
274
A doctor orders 75 mg of Demerol IM every 4 hours for pain. It is available in 50 mg/ mL. How much should be injected over a 24-hour period?
9 mL
275
The vet orders Librium 50 mg IM. It is available in a concentration of 100 mg/ mL. How many mL should be injected?
1/2 mL
276
The veterinarian orders 15 mg of Vitamin K. The vial is labeled 10 mg/mL. How many mL will be administered?
1 1/2 mL
277
A dog gets cut on the leg from barbed wire and develops an infection. The veterinarian orders 500 mg of amoxicillin BID for 10 days. Capsules are available in 250 mg. As a vet tech; how many capsules should you dispense?
40
278
A dog develops a hot spot and the veterinarian feels the best way to treat it is to use Prednisone (a steroid). Tablets contain 5 mg/tablet. The dog weighs 75 lbs and the recommended dosage is 5 mg /25 lbs. How many tablets will be given over five days if the medication is to be given OD?
15
279
A horse weighs 1200 lbs. Through a fecal exam; he has been diagnosed with strongyles and pinworms. The treatment is Strongid paste. The normal dosage is 3 mg/lb of body weight. How many grams should be administered?
3600
280
Zeus bit Zack in the foot. After looking at the wound; the veterinarian prescribed amoxicillin BID for 10 days. The dosage is 5 mg /lb twice a day. If Zack weighs 100 lbs; how many 500 mg capsules should be dispensed?
20
281
Which of the following is not a bacterial disease?
Rabies
282
Which of the following is not a parasitic disease?
Rabies
283
What is the latin term for dog?
Canis
284
What is the latin term for cat?
Felis
285
What is the latin term for horse?
Equus
286
What is the latin term for cattle?
Bos
287
What is the latin term for sheep?
Ovis
288
What is the latin term for goat?
Capra
289
What is the latin term for swine?
Sus
290
What is the latin term for bird?
Avis
291
What is the latin term for mouse?
Mus
292
What is the latin term for rat?
Rattus
293
Which of the following means one time daily?
sid
294
Which of the following means twice daily?
bid
295
Which of the following means three times daily?
tid
296
Which of the following means four times daily?
qid
297
\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the use of a stethoscope to listen to sounds produced by the functions of the respiratory; circulatory; and digestive systems
Auscultation
298
Which of the following is not an abnormal sound when observing the lungs of an animal?
Steady breaths
299
When taking a patient history; which question would be the best to ask?
“How much water does Fluffy drink daily?”
300
Which of the following is a vector of disease?
Flea
301
Which of the following is a vehicle of disease?
Instruments
302
Which of the following is not a direct mode of parasite transmission?
Transmission occurs when an animal ingests a paratenic host.
303
The organism that causes heartworm is:
Dirofilaria immitis
304
The most common endoparasite of puppies and kittens is:
Roundworm
305
What parasite transmits Lyme disease?
Tick
306
To remove a tick you should:
Use tweezers to grasp the head and pull straight out
307
The clinical signs of heartworm are:
deep cough; irregular heart beat; exercise intolerance
308
Subcutaneous injections are made \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
under the skin
309
An animal that lives and feeds on other animals is a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
parasite
310
When taking the temperature of an animal; use a/an \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
rectal thermometer
311
Which of the following is not a means of administering drugs orally?
drench
312
The purpose of vaccination is to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
prevent diseases
313
Which of the following is not a sign of good health in animals?
increased pulse rate
314
Which of the following is not an internal parasite?
mite
315
Call a veterinarian when the animal \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
aborts
316
A twitch is used to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
restrain horses
317
The male sex hormone is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
testosterone
318
The gestation period is the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
length of pregnancy
319
A pair of genes with characteristics that are alike is said to be \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
homozygous
320
Mating of an animal of one breed to an animal of another breed is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
crossbreeding
321
The phenotype of an individual is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
the physical appearance
322
When genes are transferred from one individual to another other than through mating; it is referred to as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
genetic engineering
323
The inability to reproduce is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
sterility
324
Mating a sire to his daughter is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
closebreeding
325
A gosling is a baby \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
goose
326
A pair of rabbits can produce ________ rabbits for meat per year.
50 to 60
327
The ________ breed of chicken is the foundation of nearly all types of laying hens.
Leghorn
328
A type of rabbit that produces wool is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
angora
329
The champion egg-laying breed of bird is the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Khaki Campbell
330
Feed taken in by poultry first goes to the ________ where it is softened by saliva and secretions from the walls.
crop
331
The key to absorption is the small finger like projections on the walls of the intestine called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
villi
332
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are a group of animals that can digest large quantities of roughage in their digestive systems.
Ruminants
333
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ refers to high-fiber feeds such as hay; silage; and pasture.
Roughage
334
Feed particles in poultry are crushed and mixed with digestive juices by the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
gizzard
335
A chemical element or compound that aids in the support of life is a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
nutrient
336
The amount of ammoniacal nitrogen in the feed multiplied by 6.25 is known as ________ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
crude protein
337
When there is a lack of a certain mineral in an animal's ration; this is called a/an \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
deficiency
338
The main energy nutrient found in animal rations are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
carbohydrates
339
Which have the highest energy value?
fats
340
The use of drugs at a lower level in feeds than would be used to treat a sick animal is referred to as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
subtherapeutic
341
The length of time an implant is effective is related to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
proper technique in applying
342
The survival and performance rates of pigs are improved when antibiotics are used in farrowing rations for a period of ________ days before to ________ days after farrowing.
7; 14
343
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a synthetic hormone that suppresses estrus.
melengestrol acetate
344
When animals have worms; a/an ________ can be used to control various species of worms that infest them.
anthelmintic
345
Implants contain an active ingredient that is hormone-like and can interfere with reproduction or cause \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
sterility
346
Livestock feeds are classified as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
roughages and concentrates
347
A maintenance ration for beef cattle is primarily \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
roughages
348
The net energy for production is that amount of energy needed by the animal above the amount used for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
maintenance
349
When determining a ration; the ________ must be considered when determining the nutrient requirements.
functions of the ration
350
Breathing; function of the heart; and other vital body processes are called ________ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
basal metabolism
351
Livestock feeds that contain 20% or more protein are called ________ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
protein supplements
352
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is animal tissues and bones from animal slaughterhouses and rendering plants that are cooked; dried; and ground.
Tankage
353
In poultry; the sex of the offspring is determined by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
female
354
Genotype refers to the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
combination of genes
355
When chromosome pairs are divided in such a manner that each gamete has one of each type of chromosome; the process is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
meiosis
356
The diploid number of chromosomes in cattle is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
30
357
When cells divide to form specialized tissues and organs; this process in animals is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
mitosis
358
The ________ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ molecule is shaped like a double helix.
deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
359
In which animal is the papilla a reproductive organ?
poultry
360
The gland near the urethra and bladder that produces a fluid that mixes with the seminal fluid is called the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
prostrate
361
What is the period of time when a female will accept the male for breeding?
estrus
362
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of eggs is keeping them at the right temperature and humidity for hatching.
Incubation
363
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the process of giving birth to the new animal.
Parturition
364
In males; the ________ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ open into the urethra.
seminal vesicles
365
Porcine somatotropin is a protein produced in which gland of the pig?
pituitary
366
Experimental work done on ________ in 1950 revealed that it was possible to clone vertebrate animals.
frogs
367
Genetic engineering has been used to increase the level of bovine somatotropin in cows; which results in higher ________ production.
milk
368
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ refers to a process of inducing a cow to produce several oocytes during each estrus cycle.
Superovulation
369
The science of altering genetic and reproductive processes in animals and plants is called ________ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
agricultural biotechnology
370
A ________ animal is one that is of a particular breed.
purebred
371
A person interested in registering animals should contact the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
appropriate breed association
372
What is a common disqualification in rules for registering animals in a breed association?
color marking
373
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and _______ are two basic systems for breeding livestock.
straight-breeding; crossbreeding
374
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is mating animals from two different lines within a breed.
Linecrossing
375
In \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_-\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ sire system breeding; two breeding groups are needed for the system; bulls from A and B are rotated on 50 percent of the herd providing crossbred females for the entire herd.
rotational; terminal
376
Brisket disease affects the ________ in cattle.
heart
377
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ eggs laid in manure or organic matter hatch in 8 to 20 hours.
Housefly
378
Pinkeye in animals is carried by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
insects
379
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a disease caused by microorganisms in cattle that is also dangerous to humans causing undulant fever.
Brucellosis
380
An organism that affects the genital tract of the bull and is transmitted to the cow during breeding is called ________ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Trichomoniasis
381
In hogs; the underline should have a minimum of ________ nipples per side.
6
382
Many of the odor problems from confinement operations are related to the release of ________ from manure.
ammonia
383
Pigs must be ear notched for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_; which is necessary for good record keeping.
identification
384
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ have a higher protein content than corn but the quality of protein is poorer.
Oats
385
About ________ of the pigs lost before weaning are lost because of poor feeding.
one-fourth
386
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a disease caused by bacteria; often confused with swine dysentery.
Necrotic enteritis
387
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is caused by a virus. Symptoms in young pigs include fever; vomiting; tremors; lack of coordination; convulsions; and death.
Pseudorabies
388
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a condition caused by a lack of sugar in the diet.
Hypoglycemia
389
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ parasites are the most serious health problem for sheep and goats.
Internal
390
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ ________ is a disease that affects the tissue of the foot.
Foot Abscess (Bumblefoot)
391
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ affects sheep and is caused by bacteria and the major symptom is abortion.
Vibriosis (Campylobacteriosis)
392
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is an inflammation of the lungs that affects both sheep and goats.
Pneumonia
393
What features of the horse can be used to determine age?
teeth
394
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and ________ are the two most important parts of the horse.
Feet; legs
395
The ________ is a lateral movement of the horse.
amble
396
What is the average conception percent rate for horses?
50-60
397
Horses drink ________ to ________ gallons of water a day.
10; 12
398
A ________ is a person who works on horses' feet.
farrier
399
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a condition in which horses do not sweat normally.
Anhydrosis
400
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a nutritional disorder that affects the respiratory system.
Heaves
401
A disease caused by bacteria that enter the animal's body through a puncture wound is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
tetanus
402
Parasites can be controlled by the use of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
insecticides
403
Lymphoid leukosis usually affects a bird over ________ weeks old
16
404
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is caused by a virus and affects turkeys; chickens; and other birds.
Avian pox
405
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the result of a bird eating decayed material that contains a toxin that was produced by bacteria.
Botulism
406
Ketosis usually occurs during the first ________ to ________ weeks after calving.
6 to 8
407
One objective of a mastitis control program is the avoidance of ________ residue in the milk.
drug
408
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is using the same drug in the feed supply and then by injection.
Double dosing
409
Rabbits consume how much more water than dry matter?
2.5-3 times
410
The term for rabbit house is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
hutch
411
In the marketing of rabbits; those with ________ pelts bring lower prices.
colored
412
The environmental temperature influences the ________ requirement of rabbits.
energy
413
This system includes the stomach; intestines; and internal organs; such as the liver; pancreas; and spleen.
abdominal system
414
Movement away from midline or the axis of the body is known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
abduction
415
This string muscle allows a shell to open and close.
Abductor
416
The ________ is the last section of the ruminant stomach that acts as the true stomach and allows food to be digested.
abomasum
417
A pregnant female animal that has lost the fetus is known as a/an \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
abortion
418
A bacterial infection that causes pus to build up in a localized area is known as a/an \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
abscess
419
A/an ________ is a material that is broken down within the body over a period of time and is absorbed by the body.
absorbable suture
420
The root word arthr/o- means:
joint
421
The root word cardi/o- means:
heart
422
The root word chem/o- means:
chemical
423
The root word col/o- means:
colon
424
The root word cutane/o- means:
skin
425
The root word cyst/o- means:
urinary bladder
426
The root word dent/o- means:
teeth
427
The root word electr/o- means:
electricity
428
The root word enter/o- means:
intestines
429
The root word gastr/o- means:
stomach
430
The root word hem/o- means:
blood
431
The root word hepat/o- means:
liver
432
The root word hyster/o- means:
uterus
433
The root word lapar/o- means:
abdomen
434
The root word mast- means:
mammary gland
435
The root word nas/o- means:
nose
436
The root word nephr/o- means:
kidneys
437
The root word oste/o- means:
bone
438
The root word ovari/o- means:
ovary
439
The root word radi/o- means:
radiation
440
The root word rect/o- means:
rectum
441
The root word rhin/o- means:
nose
442
The root word urin/o- means:
urine
443
The root word uter/o- means:
uterus
444
The common directional term "aspect" means:
area
445
The common directional term "caudal" means:
toward the tail
446
The common directional term "cranial" means:
toward the head
447
The common directional term "distal" means:
away from the center of the body
448
The common directional term "dorsal" means:
toward the back area
449
The common directional term "lateral" means:
side of the body and toward the outside
450
Amphibian is the species term for:
frog or toad
451
Avian is the species term for:
bird
452
Bovine is the species term for:
cow
453
Canine is the species term for:
dog
454
Caprine is the species term for:
goat
455
Cavy is the species term for:
guinea pig
456
Equine is the species term for:
horse
457
Feline is the species term for:
cat
458
Lagomorph is the species term for:
rabbit
459
Murine is the species term for:
rat or mouse
460
Ovine is the species term for:
sheep
461
Porcine is the species term for:
pig or swine
462
Poultry is the species term for:
chicken and turkey
463
Primate is the species term for:
monkey and ape
464
Reptile is the species term for:
snake and lizard
465
Terrapin is the species term for:
turtle
466
The common veterinary abbreviation "C or cast" means:
castrated
467
The common veterinary abbreviation "C-sect" means:
c-section or caesarian section
468
The common veterinary abbreviation "d/c" means:
discharge
469
The common veterinary abbreviation "DLH" means:
domestic long hair (cat)
470
The common veterinary abbreviation "DSH" means:
domestic short hair (cat)
471
The common veterinary abbreviation "d/o" means:
drop off
472
The common veterinary abbreviation "EX" means:
exotic
473
The common veterinary abbreviation "F" means:
female
474
The common veterinary abbreviation "K-9" means:
dog or canine
475
The common veterinary abbreviation "M" means:
male
476
The common veterinary abbreviation "Mo" means:
month
477
The common veterinary abbreviation "NM" means:
neutered male
478
The common veterinary abbreviation "p/u" means:
pick up
479
The common veterinary abbreviation "rec" means:
recommend
480
The common veterinary abbreviation "S or SF" means:
spayed or spayed female
481
The common veterinary abbreviation "S/R" means:
suture removal
482
The common veterinary abbreviation "Sx" means:
surgery
483
The common veterinary abbreviation "Wk" means:
week
484
The common veterinary abbreviation "y or yr" means:
year
485
A term related to patient history when they are not eating or have a decreased appetite is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Anorexia
486
The term "BM" when related to patient history is:
bowel movement
487
The term "D" when related to patient history is:
diarrhea
488
The term "Dysuria" when related to patient history is:
difficulty or trouble with urination
489
The term "Dz" when related to patient history is:
disease
490
The term "HBC" when related to patient history is:
hit by car
491
The term "Hematuria" when related to patient history is:
blood in the urine
492
The term "Hx" when related to patient history is:
history
493
The term "Lethargic" when related to patient history is:
tired or inactive
494
The term "PD" when related to patient history is:
polydipsia (increased thirst)
495
The term "PU" when related to patient history is:
polyuria (increased urination)
496
The term "U" when related to patient history is:
urine
497
The term "V" when related to patient history is:
vomiting
498
The term "V/D" when related to patient history is:
vomiting and diarrhea
499
"Acute" is a term related to physical examination and means:
short term
500
"Anals or AG" is a term related to physical examination and means:
anal glands
