VTT CDE Questions

Question 1

Phenothiazine tranquilizers are contradicted in an animal with:

Answer 1

epilepsy

Question 2

In canines and felines; all deciduous teeth are normally shed by:

Answer 2

6-8 months of age

Question 3

An osteosarcoma is a:

Answer 3

malignant tumor originating in bone

Question 4

Urine filtration occurs in which portion of the nephron?

Answer 4

Glomerulus

Question 5

A lowered prothrombin level can be caused by a dietary deficiency; by impaired synthesis; or by impaired absorption of vitamin:

Answer 5

K

Question 6

A veterinarian treated a cow for milk fever last evening; but this morning the owner calls and informs the technician that the cow is down again. The veterinarian is too sick to work today. The technician should:

Answer 6

inform the owner that the veterinarian is sick and try to obtain a referral

Question 7

A correct statement regarding halothane and methoxyflurane is that these anesthetics:

Answer 7

cross the placenta rapidly

Question 8

A correct statement regarding a Gram stain is that such a stain is a:

Answer 8

chromatic differential test of microorganisms

Question 9

Which of the following is the best reversible agent for inducing anesthesia in sight hounds?

Answer 9

Oxymorphone

Question 10

Which of the following tissues is most radiation sensitive?

Answer 10

Bone marrow

Question 11

Which of the following is an example of a water-soluble vitamin?

Answer 11

Vitamin B2

Question 12

When used as a preanesthetic; atropine will:

Answer 12

inhibit excessive salivary secretion

Question 13

The spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi is responsible for which of the following diseases?

Answer 13

Lyme

Question 14

The soda lime in inhalation anesthesia equipment is used to absorb:

Answer 14

carbon dioxide

Question 15

From cranial to caudal; the correct order for the segments of the spine in animals is:

Answer 15

cervical; thoracic; lumbar; sacral; coccygeal

Question 16

The Coggins test is used to diagnose:

Answer 16

equine infectious anemia

Question 17

A disinfectant that should be used with caution around cats is:

Answer 17

phenol

Question 18

An emasculator is used in:

Answer 18

castration

Question 19

A correct statement regarding an onychectomy is that it involves the:

Answer 19

surgical removal of the nail

Question 20

A correct statement about the proper storage of whole blood is that it:

Answer 20

can be stored at 32.9 F to 50 F (4 C - 10 C) for up to 3 weeks

Question 21

In which of the following types of fracture would skin be torn; and bone and subcutaneous tissue be exposed?

Answer 21

compound

Question 22

When using a dip on a dog to treat mange; you must:

Answer 22

place protective ointment on the dog’s eyes first

Question 23

An otoscope is an instrument primarily used for examining the:

Answer 23

ears

Question 24

Which of the following dog breeds is classified as brachycephalic?

Answer 24

Pekingese

Question 25

Which patient information should be included on the laboratory request form when ordering a blood culture?

Answer 25

Received penicillin 12 hours before the specimen was taken

Question 26

The most important reason for polishing the teeth after ultrasonic scaling is to:

Answer 26

create smooth surfaces to prevent accumulation

Question 27

The parasite Anapasma marginale invades the:

Answer 27

red blood cells in cattle

Question 28

A general-purpose stain; such as new methylene blue; is useful for:

Answer 28

studying the morphology of an organism

Question 29

Unused media intended for microbiology purposes should be stored:

Answer 29

in the refrigerator

Question 30

Eimeria stiedai is associated with:

Answer 30

hepatic coccidiosis in rabbits

Question 31

The type of wound healing in which granulation tissue forms; filling the defect; is known as:

Answer 31

second intention

Question 32

A dog that weighs 30 lbs (13.6 kg) has had medication prescribed at a dosage of 0.01 mg/lb (0.022 mg/kg). The medication is available only in tablets that contain 0.3 mg each. For one dose; how many tablets should the dog receive?

Answer 32

1

Question 33

In cases of organophosphate poisoning; which of the following is a commonly used antagonist?

Answer 33

Atropine

Question 34

The penetrating power of an X ray is controlled by the:

Answer 34

kilovoltage

Question 35

A correct statement regarding doxapram hydrochloride (Dopram-V) is that it is a:

Answer 35

respiratory stimulant

Question 36

Which of the following parasites is most likely to cause eye damage to a human who becomes infected?

Answer 36

A Toxocara canis larva

Question 37

When the albumin value is subtracted from the total protein value; the remainder represents the concentration of:

Answer 37

globulin

Question 38

Which of the following is a respirator stimulant?

Answer 38

Doxapram

Question 39

Anticholinergic drugs decrease all of the following except:

Answer 39

pain

Question 40

Which of the following methods would be an initial measure in providing first aid for epistaxis?

Answer 40

Application of ice packs to the nasal passages

Question 41

Treatment instructions on a hospitalized dog read: “Administer chloramphenicol 500 mg b.i.d. per os.” To comply with these instructions; the treatment is correctly interpreted as:

Answer 41

500 mg twice a day by mouth

Question 42

If an error is made on a medical record; the proper method for correcting the mistake is to:

Answer 42

draw a single line though it and initial the correction

Question 43

Which of the following is commonly used for infiltration and epidural anesthesia?

Answer 43

Lidocaine

Question 44

A bovine can be made recumbent by exerting pressure on muscles and nerves with a series of carefully placed and tightened ropes. This technique is called:

Answer 44

casting

Question 45

A correct statement concerning guinea pigs is that they are:

Answer 45

unable to synthesize sufficient vitamin C

Question 46

A radiograph that has been developed with exhausted chemicals and increased developing time will have:

Answer 46

poor contrast; with a dark grey background

Question 47

The laboratory animal that is most likely to have an epileptiform fit when handled is the:

Answer 47

gerbil

Question 48

Both puppies and kittens can be started on heartworm-preventative therapy at the age of 6 to 8 weeks.

Answer 48

TRUE

Question 49

The principal cause of infection bovine keratoconjunctivitis (inflamed cornea and conjunctiva) is:

Answer 49

Moraxella bovis

Question 50

Which of the following statements is/are true?

Answer 50

The goal of feeding food animals is to encourage rapid weight gain.

Question 51

You are standing alongside the withers of a stalled horse attempting to place a rope around its neck. The best action to take if the horse moves away from you is to:

Answer 51

Attempt to stay with the horse by moving along side and holding onto the mane.

Question 52

Concerning tying a horse; which statement is most accurate?

Answer 52

Tie a horse to an object at its shoulder level or higher.

Question 53

A _____ is often found at the end of a series of pens and alleyways and is the final capture and restraining device for cattle.

Answer 53

chute and head catch

Question 54

Accusing a pet of being vindictive; spiteful; jealous; or rebellious is considered a(n) _____ explanation for unrealistic expectations.

Answer 54

Anthropomorphic

Question 55

To prevent/minimize inappropriate behavior from a pet; the owners must:

Answer 55

use crate training with the puppy

Question 56

An animal that growls or hisses; bares teeth; air snaps; and/or lunges is exhibiting _____ behavior.

Answer 56

threatening

Question 57

Most cats prefer to be petted:

Answer 57

on their scent glands located on their cheeks and in front of their ears

Question 58

Cryptococcosis is a _____ organism diagnosed by _____.

Answer 58

fungal (yeast); direct microscopic examination using potassium hydroxide

Question 59

An otherwise healthy veterinary technician; Anna; is bitten by a 2-year-old mixed-breed dog; “Tow Tow;” while restraining him for a pedicure. The bite does not cause severe tissue damage; but the canine teeth penetrate her skin and she does bleed. Tow Tow is current on all of his vaccinations including rabies. He lives primarily in the backyard of his owner’s suburban home. What is the best; first action Anna should take following the bite?

Answer 59

Wash the wound with soap and water; then with povidone-iodine; and follow with a thorough irrigation with water.

Question 60

An otherwise healthy veterinary technician; Anna; is bitten by a 2-year-old mixed-breed dog; “Tow Tow;” while restraining him for a pedicure. The bite does not cause severe tissue damage; but the canine teeth penetrate her skin and she does bleed. Tow Tow is current on all of his vaccinations including rabies. He lives primarily in the backyard of his owner’s suburban home. Which disease should Anna be most concerned about contracting?

Answer 60

Pasteurellosis & Rabies

Question 61

Frequent hand washing with disinfectant soaps or detergents by those working with _____ can lessen the chance of contracting erysipeloid at work.

Answer 61

Swine; domestic fowl; fish; or shellfish

Question 62

_____ causes both “fowl cholera” and rabbit “snuffles.”

Answer 62

Pasteurella multocida

Question 63

What is a “reportable” disease?

Answer 63

A confirmed diagnosis of a reportable disease that must be reported to local health authorities/

Question 64

If you develop a sudden headache; vomiting; malaise; fever; and chills followed by a rash on your extremities; and you work with rats or rodents; you should report this to your physician so that she can initiate the proper diagnostic methods for potential:

Answer 64

Streptobacillosis or spirillosis

Question 65

Which statement concerning rabies is most accurate?

Answer 65

Behavioral changes with profuse salivation; aggression; a change in voice; and/or paralysis may suggest a presumptive diagnosis of rabies.

Question 66

Most cases of human rabies are attributable to _____ because the virus is most abundant in _____.

Answer 66

a bite by an infected animal; saliva

Question 67

Rabies is always fatal once clinical disease has developed.

Answer 67

TRUE

Question 68

A puppy should be vaccinated for rabies at _____ weeks.

Answer 68

12

Question 69

The eyes and ears of kittens open at about _____ weeks of age.

Answer 69

2

Question 70

Most dogs have about ______ bones.

Answer 70

320

Question 71

Cats have about _______ bones.

Answer 71

250

Question 72

Cats whiskers are _______ hairs; they are connected to sensitive nerves that help the cat protect itself and find its way in the dark.

Answer 72

Tactile

Question 73

The gestation period of a rabbit is ________ days.

Answer 73

30 to 32

Question 74

The integumentary system refers to the _____ of an animal.

Answer 74

Skin

Question 75

The function of the _________ system of an animal is to rid the body of waste

Answer 75

Excretory

Question 76

Which of the following animals has a monogastric digestive system?

Answer 76

Cat

Question 77

Which of the following animals has a ruminant digestive system?

Answer 77

Goat

Question 78

What is the average normal rectal temperature of cattle?

Answer 78

101.5

Question 79

What is the average normal rectal temperature of a goat?

Answer 79

103.8

Question 80

What is the average normal rectal temperature of swine?

Answer 80

102.6

Question 81

What is the average normal rectal temperature of sheep?

Answer 81

102.3

Question 82

What is the average normal rectal temperature of a horse?

Answer 82

100.5

Question 83

What is the average normal rectal temperature of a cat?

Answer 83

103

Question 84

What is the average normal rectal temperature of rabbit?

Answer 84

102.5

Question 85

What is the average normal rectal temperature of a dog?

Answer 85

101.3

Question 86

What is the normal pulse rate of cattle in rate/min?

Answer 86

60-70

Question 87

What is the normal pulse rate of a horse in rate/min?

Answer 87

32-44

Question 88

What is the normal pulse rate of cat in rate/min?

Answer 88

140-240

Question 89

What is the normal pulse rate of a rabbit in rate/min?

Answer 89

140-150

Question 90

What is the normal pulse rate of a dog in rate/min?

Answer 90

60-120

Question 91

What is the normal respiration rate in rate/min of cattle?

Answer 91

10-30

Question 92

What is the normal respiration rate in rate/min of swine?

Answer 92

8-15

Question 93

What is the normal respiration rate in rate/min of sheep?

Answer 93

12-20

Question 94

What is the normal respiration rate in rate/min of a goat?

Answer 94

12-20

Question 95

What is the normal respiration rate in rate/min of a horse?

Answer 95

8-16

Question 96

What is the normal respiration rate in rate/min of a cat?

Answer 96

20-40

Question 97

What is the normal respiration rate in rate/min of a rabbit?

Answer 97

50-60

Question 98

What is the normal respiration rate in rate/min of a dog?

Answer 98

10-30

Question 99

_________ is a parasitic disease caused by a protozoan that attacks red blood corpuscles. Cattle are primarily affected. Symptoms include amenia; rapid hearbeat; muscular tremors; and loss of appetite.

Answer 99

Anaplasmosis

Question 100

____________ is a bacterial disease that affects cattle; dogs; sheep; and most other companion animals. Symptoms include high fever; poor appetite; and bloody urine. Females will abort fetuses.

Answer 100

Leptospirosis

Question 101

__________ is the leading cause of profit loss in dairy cattle. It is a bacterial disease that affects female cattle; sheep; goats; and swine. It causes inflammation in the udder that effects milk production.

Answer 101

Mastitis

Question 102

________ is a disease that occurs in really all warm blooded animals and can be transmitted to humans. Symptoms include aggressive behavior; fever; vomiting; and diarrhea. Some animals become frenzied and attack everything that moves.

Answer 102

Rabies

Question 103

A/an _________ is a substance produced by one organism that will inhibit or kill another organism. They are used to treat diseases caused by bacteria.

Answer 103

Antibiotic

Question 104

An injection made directly into the skin is called a __________ injection.

Answer 104

Intradermal

Question 105

An injection made just beneath the skin is known as a _________ injection.

Answer 105

Subcutaneous

Question 106

A ________ injection is made into the veins of an animal.

Answer 106

Intravenous

Question 107

An ______________ injection is made into the body cavity.

Answer 107

Intraperitoneal

Question 108

An _______ injection is made into the udder through an opening in the teat.

Answer 108

Intramammary

Question 109

A _________ disease is an illness that can be transmitted from animals to humans.

Answer 109

Zoonotic

Question 110

A ______ is an accumulation of pus in a dead space between tissues containing bacteria; white blood cells and dead tissue.

Answer 110

Abcess

Question 111

Anaphylaxis is defined as a

Answer 111

Generalized life threatening allergic reaction.

Question 112

Anemia is defined as…

Answer 112

Low in red blood cells

Question 113

CPR stands for….

Answer 113

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation

Question 114

_________ is a bacterial disease resulting from a cat scratch; which causes a soreness at the inflicted site; fever; and enlarged lymph nodes

Answer 114

Cat scratch fever

Question 115

Cyanosis is the _____ color associated with low oxygen levels in the blood.

Answer 115

Blue

Question 116

A hematoma is an accumulation of ______ in the dead space between tissues.

Answer 116

Blood

Question 117

Metastasis is the spread of ___________ cells to other sites in the body.

Answer 117

Cancer

Question 118

_______ is the measurement of the presence of antibodies against a specific organism.

Answer 118

Serology

Question 119

Tachycardia is defined as a

Answer 119

Elevated heart rate

Question 120

Acute refers to the _________ of a symptom.

Answer 120

Sudden onset

Question 121

Which of the following terms refers to sedating animals so they lack sensitivity or awareness.

Answer 121

Anesthetize

Question 122

A ____ is a germicide that can be used on the skin of animals.

Answer 122

Antiseptic

Question 123

Atrophy is the _________ of tissue.

Answer 123

Shrinking

Question 124

A tumor that is localized and will not spread to other areas of the body is said to be _____.

Answer 124

Benign

Question 125

_______ is an accumulation of gas in the rumen.

Answer 125

Bloat

Question 126

A _______ is known as a prolonged state of unconsciousness.

Answer 126

Coma

Question 127

A bone break in which the bone punctures the skin in known as a ___ fracture.

Answer 127

Compound

Question 128

When something is congenital is….

Answer 128

Present at birth

Question 129

Enzymes are ______ molecules that speed chemical reactions in the body.

Answer 129

Protein

Question 130

Hardware disease occurs when ruminants inadvertently consume _____; which migrates through their bodies causing infection.

Answer 130

Metal

Question 131

______ is an inflammation of a joint. Caused by abnormal stress on a normal joint; or by normal stress on an abnormal joint.

Answer 131

Arthritis

Question 132

Loss of transparency of the lens of the eye is known as ______. Can be genetic or acquired as the result of injury or diabetes; etc

Answer 132

Cataracts

Question 133

______ occurs when the blood lacks coagulating factors; causing a strong tendency to bleed; and difficulty in getting the bleeding to stop.

Answer 133

Hemophilia

Question 134

A ________ is an abnormal protrusion of organs through a weak spot or abnormal opening; usually in the abdominal or groin areas.

Answer 134

Hernia

Question 135

When a disease has no known cause it is said to be ________.

Answer 135

Idiopathic

Question 136

A _____ is an abnormal heart sound associated with the opening or closing of a heart valve.

Answer 136

Murmur

Question 137

_______________ is an abnormal clumping of red blood cells.

Answer 137

Agglutination

Question 138

_____ is the medical term for a loss of hair

Answer 138

Alopecia

Question 139

An analgesic would be administered to…

Answer 139

Reduce pain

Question 140

___________ are drugs that reduce the ability of the blood to clot.

Answer 140

Anticoagulants

Question 141

_________ are drugs administered to reduce vomiting.

Answer 141

Antiemetics

Question 142

________ occurs when an animal inhales food or other materials into the airway.

Answer 142

Aspiration

Question 143

____ is a yellow fluid produced by the liver and stored in the gall bladder that helps in the digestion of fats.

Answer 143

Bile

Question 144

An abnormally slow heart rate is known as _____.

Answer 144

Bradycardia

Question 145

An animal who harbors an infectious agent but is not showing signs of disease is known as a ____.

Answer 145

Carrier

Question 146

___ is inflammation of the large intestine

Answer 146

Colitis

Question 147

What is the conjunctiva?

Answer 147

The pink tissues surrounding the eye.

Question 148

Deciduous teeth are also known as _________.

Answer 148

Baby teeth

Question 149

Dermatitis is an inflammation of the _______.

Answer 149

Skin

Question 150

Diuretics are drugs that increase the amount of ____ produced.

Answer 150

Urine

Question 151

Dysphagia is….

Answer 151

Difficulty eating and swallowing

Question 152

Dysphoria is….

Answer 152

Agitation or restlessness

Question 153

Dyspnea is…

Answer 153

Difficulty breathing

Question 154

Dystocia is…

Answer 154

Difficulty birthing

Question 155

___ refers to low blood calcium occurring in female dogs and cats at the end of gestation; or more commonly during early lactation.

Answer 155

Eclampsia

Question 156

A/an ________ collar is a large plastic collar that is placed over the head of a dog or cat. It has a cone shape and is used to keep them from licking or chewing on themselves.

Answer 156

Elizabethian

Question 157

Encephalitis is inflammation of the _____.

Answer 157

Brain

Question 158

Endometritis is a/an _____ inflammation or infection due to bacteria or fungi

Answer 158

Uterine

Question 159

Ectoparasites reside on the ____.

Answer 159

Skin

Question 160

Endoparasites reside ______ the animal.

Answer 160

Inside

Question 161

A long; flexible lighted tube used to see inside structures is called a _______.

Answer 161

Endoscope

Question 162

Epiphora is…

Answer 162

Excessive tearing

Question 163

Epistaxis is….

Answer 163

A bloody nose

Question 164

Granuloma is…

Answer 164

A focal inflammatory reaction.

Question 165

Hematuria is…

Answer 165

Red blood cells in the urine

Question 166

Hypercalcemia…

Answer 166

Elevated blood calcium

Question 167

Hyperkalemia is…

Answer 167

Elevated blood potassium

Question 168

Hypermagnesemia is…

Answer 168

Elevated blood magnesium

Question 169

Hypernatremia is…

Answer 169

Elevated blood sodium

Question 170

Hyperphosphatemia is…

Answer 170

Elevated blood phosphorus

Question 171

Hypocalcemia is…

Answer 171

Low blood calcium

Question 172

Hypokalemia is…

Answer 172

Low blood potassium

Question 173

Hypomagnesemia is…

Answer 173

Low blood magnesium

Question 174

_____ is a route of drug or fluid administration into the bone marrow cavity

Answer 174

Intramedullary administration

Question 175

_____ is an inflammation of the clear part of the eye; the cornea.

Answer 175

Keratitis

Question 176

Leukocytosis is a _____________ cell count.

Answer 176

High white blood

Question 177

Leukopenis is a ______________ cell count.

Answer 177

Low white blood

Question 178

Metritis is an infection of the _______.

Answer 178

Uterus

Question 179

_______ is the pink lining of an organ; such as the lining of the nose; mouth; vagina; penis.

Answer 179

Mucosa

Question 180

Another name for cancer is….

Answer 180

Neoplasia

Question 181

Oliguria is when an abnormally small amount of _____ is produced.

Answer 181

Urine

Question 182

Oncology is the study of ___.

Answer 182

Cancer

Question 183

Orchitis is an inflammation of the ___.

Answer 183

Testicles

Question 184

Pediculosus is an infestation with ____.

Answer 184

Lice

Question 185

Polydipsia is….

Answer 185

Drinking excessive amounts of water

Question 186

Polyuria….

Answer 186

An increased amount of urine.

Question 187

___ are infectious proteins. Scrapie in sheep; Creutzfeldt Jakob disease in humans; and Bovine Spongifor Encephalopathy in cattle (Mad Cow Disease)are all caused by ______.

Answer 187

Prions

Question 188

Probiotics are a live microbial feed supplement which _________ affects the host animal.

Answer 188

Beneficially

Question 189

The abnormal position of an organ in which the organ pouches through an opening from which it does not normally protrude is known as a _____.

Answer 189

Prolapse

Question 190

Proptosis is…

Answer 190

Bulging of the eye out of the eye socket

Question 191

Pyrexia is….

Answer 191

A fever

Question 192

Pyuria is…

Answer 192

White blood cells in the urine

Question 193

________ is the discharge of more fluid than normal fecal matter from the bowel; often more frequently than normal.

Answer 193

Scours

Question 194

Sepsis is the presence of infectious organisms in the ___.

Answer 194

Blood

Question 195

_______ are solutions that destroy microorganisms or inhibit their growth on living tissue.

Answer 195

Antiseptics

Question 196

_________ is the term used to describe being free of infection or contamination by microorganisms

Answer 196

Aseptic

Question 197

The ______ period is the period of time between infection and the appearance of clinical signs.

Answer 197

Incubation

Question 198

MSDS stands for:

Answer 198

Material Safety Data Sheet

Question 199

A malocclusion refers to poor positioning of the _______.

Answer 199

Teeth

Question 200

Osteoma is cancer of the _____.

Answer 200

Bone

Question 201

The latin root cephal refers to the _____.

Answer 201

Brain

Question 202

The latin root ophthalm refers to the _____.

Answer 202

Eyes

Question 203

The latin root steth refers to the _____.

Answer 203

Chest

Question 204

The latin prefix mal means ____.

Answer 204

Bad; poor

Question 205

The latin prefix dys means _____.

Answer 205

Hard; difficult

Question 206

The latin prefix anti means ___.

Answer 206

Against; opposing

Question 207

The latin prefix tachy means ______.

Answer 207

Abnormally fast

Question 208

The latin prefix hyper means ____.

Answer 208

Excessive; abnormally high

Question 209

The latin prefix poly means _____.

Answer 209

Many; multiple; much

Question 210

The latin prefix hypo means _____.

Answer 210

Insufficient; abnormally low

Question 211

The latin suffix cyte means _____.

Answer 211

Cell

Question 212

The latin suffix scope means _____.

Answer 212

Sight

Question 213

The latin suffix itis means ____.

Answer 213

Inflammation

Question 214

The latin suffix ology means ____.

Answer 214

Study of

Question 215

The latin suffix ectomy means ____.

Answer 215

To surgically remove

Question 216

The latin suffix pnea means ____.

Answer 216

Breathing

Question 217

The latin suffix emia means ____.

Answer 217

Blood

Question 218

The latin suffix tomy means ____.

Answer 218

Cut; incision

Question 219

The latin suffix oma means _____.

Answer 219

Tumor

Question 220

The latin suffix penia means _____.

Answer 220

Deficiency of

Question 221

Dry hacking; coughing; not eating; and pneumonia are symptoms of _____.

Answer 221

Kennel Cough

Question 222

Aggression; foaming of the mouth; and paralysis are symptoms of ____.

Answer 222

Rabies

Question 223

Lameness; fever; and swollen or painful joints are a symptom of ____.

Answer 223

Lyme Disease

Question 224

_________ is characterized by a mild respiratory tract infection.

Answer 224

Parainfluenza

Question 225

Roy is a 100lb. Dalmatian. Dr. Smith has instructed you to dispense Tetracycline capsules (250 mg) at a dosage of 5 mg/lb to be given 3 times a day (TID) for 5 days. Determine how many milligrams Roy needs for his body weight.

Answer 225

500 mg

Question 226

Roy is a 100lb. Dalmatian. Dr. Smith has instructed you to dispense Tetracycline capsules (250 mg) at a dosage of 5 mg/lb to be given 3 times a day (TID) for 5 days. Determine how many capsules are needed per dose.

Answer 226

2

Question 227

Roy is a 100lb. Dalmatian. Dr. Smith has instructed you to dispense Tetracycline capsules (250 mg) at a dosage of 5 mg/lb to be given 3 times a day (TID) for 5 days. Determine how many capsules are needed to the entire length of the treatment.

Answer 227

30

Question 228

Karley is a 10 lb Siamese. Dr. Jones has instructed you to dispense metaclopromide liquid (30 mg) at a dosage of 3 mg/lb; twice a day for three days. Note: liquid is measured in milliliters so in this problem 1 mL of metaclopromide is equal to 30 mg. Determine how many milligrams are needed for Karley’s body weight.

Answer 228

30 mg

Question 229

Karley is a 10 lb Siamese. Dr. Jones has instructed you to dispense metaclopromide liquid (30 mg) at a dosage of 3 mg/lb; twice a day for three days. Note: liquid is measured in milliliters so in this problem 1 mL of metaclopromide is equal to 30 mg. Determine the number of mL needed for one dose.

Answer 229

1 mL

Question 230

Karley is a 10 lb Siamese. Dr. Jones has instructed you to dispense metaclopromide liquid (30 mg) at a dosage of 3 mg/lb; twice a day for three days. Note: liquid is measured in milliliters so in this problem 1 mL of metaclopromide is equal to 30 mg. Determine the number of mL that is equal to the total mg needed. Determine the total amount of mL needed for the whole treatment.

Answer 230

6 mL

Question 231

Phil; a 15 lb cat belonging to Wendy Carlisle; needs to get 25 mg of Baytril twice a day for seven days. How many total milligrams of Baytril does Phil need for 7 days?

Answer 231

350 mg

Question 232

Phil; a 15 lb cat belonging to Wendy Carlisle; needs to get 25 mg of Baytril twice a day for seven days. How many mg is Phil getting per lb?

Answer 232

1.66 mg

Question 233

Foster; a 60 lb bulldog belonging to Halle Alvarez; needs to get 90 mg of Prednisone once every other day for 10 days. How many total milligrams of Prednisone does Foster need for 10 days?

Answer 233

450 mg

Question 234

Read the following statement and determine which stage of grieving the owner is going through: The owner sends a card to the hospital staff thanking them for taking such good care of George in his final days and includes a picture of her new kitten.

Answer 234

Acceptance

Question 235

Read the following statement and determine which stage of grieving the owner is going through: The owner insists on having surgery done to remove more of Buddy’s diseased lung tissue even after being told that it would only extend his life for no more than another week.

Answer 235

Bargaining

Question 236

Read the following statement and determine which stage of grieving the owner is going through: The owner says to the receptionist “If only I had noticed the lump on Katie’s leg a few weeks ago; this never would have happened.”

Answer 236

Guilt

Question 237

Read the following statement and determine which stage of grieving the owner is going through: When discussing Rudy’s worsening condition with the veterinarian; the owner keeps telling stories about how Rudy had been worse off than this plenty of times and he always managed to pull through.

Answer 237

Denial

Question 238

Read the following statement and determine which stage of grieving the owner is going through: On her way out the door; the owner knocks a display off a table and then begins yelling at the receptionist for placing a display so close to the door.

Answer 238

Anger

Question 239

A veterinarian in a critical care unit determines that one calf was given the following intravenous (IV) solutions in a 24 hour period: 745 milliliters (mL) of 0.9% normal saline; 420 mL of lactated ringers; 1;250 mL of 5% dextrose; and 15 mL of an antibiotic solution. How many total milliliters of IV solution did the patient receive?

Answer 239

2430

Question 240

A veterinary technician notes that a dog’s leukocyte (white blood cell) count before surgery was 18;645. Two days after the surgery; the patient had a leukocyte count of 8;968. What is the difference in the leukocyte counts?

Answer 240

9677

Question 241

A veterinary technician is calculating the bill for hospital care for a kidney transplant cat. The bill for medical services and care was $2;685. The owners paid $1;389 when they picked up the cat. A few weeks later they paid another $497. How much do they still owe?

Answer 241

799

Question 242

The lab receives a prescription order from the veterinarian. He wants the patient to take 40 milligrams (mg) of amoxicillin four times a day for 25 days. The lab has 20 mg amoxicillin tablets. How many tablets should the vet tech give to the client for the 25-day period?

Answer 242

200

Question 243

A microbiologist is staining bacterial slides. He uses a bottle of Gram stain that contains 144 milliliters (mL) of solution. If each slide requires 18 mL of the solution; how many slides can he stain with one bottle of solution?

Answer 243

8

Question 244

A technician is staining blood film slides with Wright’s stain. The Wright’s stain bottle contains 120 mL. He uses 12 mL of the Wright’s stain for each slide and stains 6 slides. How many additional slides can be stained with the Wright’s stain?

Answer 244

4

Question 245

A vet tech gives a dog ½ ounces (oz) of cough medicine at 6 PM and ¼ oz of cough medicine at 10 PM. What is the total amount of cough medicine received?

Answer 245

3/4 oz

Question 246

A vet tech uses ½ oz; ¾ oz; and 5/8 oz of solution to perform three urinary analysis tests. How much total solution does she use?

Answer 246

2 1/8 oz

Question 247

After developing X-rays; a veterinary technician finds that the image is too dark. He knows that the milliamperage per second (MaS) for the X-ray machine should be reduced to 1/4 of the original setting to correct the problem. If he used 80 MaS the first time; what MaS should he use to correct the problem?

Answer 247

60 MaS

Question 248

An obese Lab receives Cytomel; a thyroid drug for hypothyroidism. The first dose it is given 0.025 mg. The next dose is increased 0.0125 mg. What is the total for the second dose?

Answer 248

.04 mg

Question 249

A dog takes 0.625 mg of Premarion twice a day for five days. What is the total dose?

Answer 249

6.25 mg

Question 250

If a dog is given 3 L of IV fluid; how many mLs is it given?

Answer 250

3000 mL

Question 251

Prepared puppy formula comes in 1 L cans. If a puppy drinks 50 mL per feeding how many feedings are in one can?

Answer 251

20

Question 252

If seven quarts of quantricide are used in 5 weeks; how many quarts are used in 16 weeks?

Answer 252

23

Question 253

The vet ordered 0.75 g of Novobiocin and in stock there are 250 mg capsules. How many capsules should be dispensed?

Answer 253

3

Question 254

Tablets come in 0.25 g and you must administer 1000 mg. How many tablets do you give?

Answer 254

4

Question 255

You must give 250 mg of Droncit and the tablets are 0.5 g. How many tablets do you give?

Answer 255

2

Question 256

You administer 750 mg of medicine that is available as 0.25 g per capsule. How many capsules do you give?

Answer 256

3

Question 257

Tablets come in 0.5 g and you must administer 1000 mg. How many tablets do you give?

Answer 257

2

Question 258

Carprofen is available as 0.6 g/tab and you must administer 300 mg. How many tablets do you give?

Answer 258

0.5

Question 259

You must administer 0.25 g of a medication that is available as 125 mg/tab. How many tablets do you give?

Answer 259

2

Question 260

You must give 1.5 g of a drug that is available as 750 mg/capsule. How many capsules do you give?

Answer 260

2

Question 261

Tablets are available in 400 mg. To give 100 mg; how many tablets do you need?

Answer 261

0.25

Question 262

A drug comes in 0.25 mg tablets and you must administer 0.75 mg. How many tablets do you need?

Answer 262

3

Question 263

The vet prescribed 0.5 g of Novobiocin and in stock there are 250 mg capsules. How many capsules should be dispensed if the tablets are given three times a day (TID) for five days?

Answer 263

30

Question 264

Tablets come in 0.25 g and the dog needs a dose of 1000 mg. How many tablets will you give to the client if they must be administered twice a day (BID) for 10 days?

Answer 264

80

Question 265

You must give 750 mg of medication and the tablets are 1.0 g. How many tablets will you give to the client so they have enough for one treatment a day (OD) for ten days?

Answer 265

8

Question 266

You administer 500 mg of medicine which is available as 0.25 g per capsule. How many capsules do you give for eight days if the medication must be given BID?

Answer 266

32

Question 267

Phenobarbital tablets come in 0.5 g and you must administer 1000mg. How many tablets do you give so there is enough for treatment BID for three days?

Answer 267

12

Question 268

A drug is available as 0.6 g/tab and the vet prescribes 300mg per treatment. How many tablets should be dispensed to give four treatments per day for three days?

Answer 268

6

Question 269

You must administer 0.25 g. The medication is available as 125 mg/tab. How many tablets do you need for seven days of treatment TID?

Answer 269

42

Question 270

You must give 1.5 g of a drug that is available as 750 mg/capsule. How many tablets will be dispensed if treatments are BID for ten days?

Answer 270

40

Question 271

Tablets are available in 400 mg. To give a 100 mg dose; how many total tablets do you need to treat a dog TID for 21 days?

Answer 271

16

Question 272

A drug comes in 0.25 mg tablets and you must administer 0.75 mg. How much medication is needed if it is given BID for two weeks?

Answer 272

84

Question 273

A veterinarian orders Streptomycin 500 mg IM. The dosage available for use contains 1 g/ 2 mL. How many mL should be injected?

Answer 273

1 mL

Question 274

A doctor orders 75 mg of Demerol IM every 4 hours for pain. It is available in 50 mg/ mL. How much should be injected over a 24-hour period?

Answer 274

9 mL

Question 275

The vet orders Librium 50 mg IM. It is available in a concentration of 100 mg/ mL. How many mL should be injected?

Answer 275

1/2 mL

Question 276

The veterinarian orders 15 mg of Vitamin K. The vial is labeled 10 mg/mL. How many mL will be administered?

Answer 276

1 1/2 mL

Question 277

A dog gets cut on the leg from barbed wire and develops an infection. The veterinarian orders 500 mg of amoxicillin BID for 10 days. Capsules are available in 250 mg. As a vet tech; how many capsules should you dispense?

Answer 277

40

Question 278

A dog develops a hot spot and the veterinarian feels the best way to treat it is to use Prednisone (a steroid). Tablets contain 5 mg/tablet. The dog weighs 75 lbs and the recommended dosage is 5 mg /25 lbs. How many tablets will be given over five days if the medication is to be given OD?

Answer 278

15

Question 279

A horse weighs 1200 lbs. Through a fecal exam; he has been diagnosed with strongyles and pinworms. The treatment is Strongid paste. The normal dosage is 3 mg/lb of body weight. How many grams should be administered?

Answer 279

3600

Question 280

Zeus bit Zack in the foot. After looking at the wound; the veterinarian prescribed amoxicillin BID for 10 days. The dosage is 5 mg /lb twice a day. If Zack weighs 100 lbs; how many 500 mg capsules should be dispensed?

Answer 280

20

Question 281

Which of the following is not a bacterial disease?

Answer 281

Rabies

Question 282

Which of the following is not a parasitic disease?

Answer 282

Rabies

Question 283

What is the latin term for dog?

Answer 283

Canis

Question 284

What is the latin term for cat?

Answer 284

Felis

Question 285

What is the latin term for horse?

Answer 285

Equus

Question 286

What is the latin term for cattle?

Answer 286

Bos

Question 287

What is the latin term for sheep?

Answer 287

Ovis

Question 288

What is the latin term for goat?

Answer 288

Capra

Question 289

What is the latin term for swine?

Answer 289

Sus

Question 290

What is the latin term for bird?

Answer 290

Avis

Question 291

What is the latin term for mouse?

Answer 291

Mus

Question 292

What is the latin term for rat?

Answer 292

Rattus

Question 293

Which of the following means one time daily?

Answer 293

sid

Question 294

Which of the following means twice daily?

Answer 294

bid

Question 295

Which of the following means three times daily?

Answer 295

tid

Question 296

Which of the following means four times daily?

Answer 296

qid

Question 297

______ is the use of a stethoscope to listen to sounds produced by the functions of the respiratory; circulatory; and digestive systems

Answer 297

Auscultation

Question 298

Which of the following is not an abnormal sound when observing the lungs of an animal?

Answer 298

Steady breaths

Question 299

When taking a patient history; which question would be the best to ask?

Answer 299

“How much water does Fluffy drink daily?”

Question 300

Which of the following is a vector of disease?

Answer 300

Flea

Question 301

Which of the following is a vehicle of disease?

Answer 301

Instruments

Question 302

Which of the following is not a direct mode of parasite transmission?

Answer 302

Transmission occurs when an animal ingests a paratenic host.

Question 303

The organism that causes heartworm is:

Answer 303

Dirofilaria immitis

Question 304

The most common endoparasite of puppies and kittens is:

Answer 304

Roundworm

Question 305

What parasite transmits Lyme disease?

Answer 305

Tick

Question 306

To remove a tick you should:

Answer 306

Use tweezers to grasp the head and pull straight out

Question 307

The clinical signs of heartworm are:

Answer 307

deep cough; irregular heart beat; exercise intolerance

Question 308

Subcutaneous injections are made ________.

Answer 308

under the skin

Question 309

An animal that lives and feeds on other animals is a ________.

Answer 309

parasite

Question 310

When taking the temperature of an animal; use a/an ________.

Answer 310

rectal thermometer

Question 311

Which of the following is not a means of administering drugs orally?

Answer 311

drench

Question 312

The purpose of vaccination is to ________.

Answer 312

prevent diseases

Question 313

Which of the following is not a sign of good health in animals?

Answer 313

increased pulse rate

Question 314

Which of the following is not an internal parasite?

Answer 314

mite

Question 315

Call a veterinarian when the animal ________.

Answer 315

aborts

Question 316

A twitch is used to ________.

Answer 316

restrain horses

Question 317

The male sex hormone is called ________.

Answer 317

testosterone

Question 318

The gestation period is the ________.

Answer 318

length of pregnancy

Question 319

A pair of genes with characteristics that are alike is said to be ________.

Answer 319

homozygous

Question 320

Mating of an animal of one breed to an animal of another breed is ________.

Answer 320

crossbreeding

Question 321

The phenotype of an individual is ________.

Answer 321

the physical appearance

Question 322

When genes are transferred from one individual to another other than through mating; it is referred to as ________.

Answer 322

genetic engineering

Question 323

The inability to reproduce is ________.

Answer 323

sterility

Question 324

Mating a sire to his daughter is ________.

Answer 324

closebreeding

Question 325

A gosling is a baby ________.

Answer 325

goose

Question 326

A pair of rabbits can produce ________ rabbits for meat per year.

Answer 326

50 to 60

Question 327

The ________ breed of chicken is the foundation of nearly all types of laying hens.

Answer 327

Leghorn

Question 328

A type of rabbit that produces wool is ________.

Answer 328

angora

Question 329

The champion egg-laying breed of bird is the ________.

Answer 329

Khaki Campbell

Question 330

Feed taken in by poultry first goes to the ________ where it is softened by saliva and secretions from the walls.

Answer 330

crop

Question 331

The key to absorption is the small finger like projections on the walls of the intestine called ________.

Answer 331

villi

Question 332

________ are a group of animals that can digest large quantities of roughage in their digestive systems.

Answer 332

Ruminants

Question 333

________ refers to high-fiber feeds such as hay; silage; and pasture.

Answer 333

Roughage

Question 334

Feed particles in poultry are crushed and mixed with digestive juices by the ________.

Answer 334

gizzard

Question 335

A chemical element or compound that aids in the support of life is a ________.

Answer 335

nutrient

Question 336

The amount of ammoniacal nitrogen in the feed multiplied by 6.25 is known as ________ ________.

Answer 336

crude protein

Question 337

When there is a lack of a certain mineral in an animal’s ration; this is called a/an _______.

Answer 337

deficiency

Question 338

The main energy nutrient found in animal rations are ________.

Answer 338

carbohydrates

Question 339

Which have the highest energy value?

Answer 339

fats

Question 340

The use of drugs at a lower level in feeds than would be used to treat a sick animal is referred to as ________.

Answer 340

subtherapeutic

Question 341

The length of time an implant is effective is related to ________.

Answer 341

proper technique in applying

Question 342

The survival and performance rates of pigs are improved when antibiotics are used in farrowing rations for a period of ________ days before to ________ days after farrowing.

Answer 342

7; 14

Question 343

________ is a synthetic hormone that suppresses estrus.

Answer 343

melengestrol acetate

Question 344

When animals have worms; a/an ________ can be used to control various species of worms that infest them.

Answer 344

anthelmintic

Question 345

Implants contain an active ingredient that is hormone-like and can interfere with reproduction or cause ________.

Answer 345

sterility

Question 346

Livestock feeds are classified as ________.

Answer 346

roughages and concentrates

Question 347

A maintenance ration for beef cattle is primarily ________.

Answer 347

roughages

Question 348

The net energy for production is that amount of energy needed by the animal above the amount used for ________.

Answer 348

maintenance

Question 349

When determining a ration; the ________ must be considered when determining the nutrient requirements.

Answer 349

functions of the ration

Question 350

Breathing; function of the heart; and other vital body processes are called ________ ________.

Answer 350

basal metabolism

Question 351

Livestock feeds that contain 20% or more protein are called ________ ________.

Answer 351

protein supplements

Question 352

________ is animal tissues and bones from animal slaughterhouses and rendering plants that are cooked; dried; and ground.

Answer 352

Tankage

Question 353

In poultry; the sex of the offspring is determined by ________.

Answer 353

female

Question 354

Genotype refers to the ________.

Answer 354

combination of genes

Question 355

When chromosome pairs are divided in such a manner that each gamete has one of each type of chromosome; the process is called ________.

Answer 355

meiosis

Question 356

The diploid number of chromosomes in cattle is ________.

Answer 356

30

Question 357

When cells divide to form specialized tissues and organs; this process in animals is called ________.

Answer 357

mitosis

Question 358

The ________ ________ molecule is shaped like a double helix.

Answer 358

deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)

Question 359

In which animal is the papilla a reproductive organ?

Answer 359

poultry

Question 360

The gland near the urethra and bladder that produces a fluid that mixes with the seminal fluid is called the ________.

Answer 360

prostrate

Question 361

What is the period of time when a female will accept the male for breeding?

Answer 361

estrus

Question 362

________ of eggs is keeping them at the right temperature and humidity for hatching.

Answer 362

Incubation

Question 363

________ is the process of giving birth to the new animal.

Answer 363

Parturition

Question 364

In males; the ________ _________ open into the urethra.

Answer 364

seminal vesicles

Question 365

Porcine somatotropin is a protein produced in which gland of the pig?

Answer 365

pituitary

Question 366

Experimental work done on ________ in 1950 revealed that it was possible to clone vertebrate animals.

Answer 366

frogs

Question 367

Genetic engineering has been used to increase the level of bovine somatotropin in cows; which results in higher ________ production.

Answer 367

milk

Question 368

________ refers to a process of inducing a cow to produce several oocytes during each estrus cycle.

Answer 368

Superovulation

Question 369

The science of altering genetic and reproductive processes in animals and plants is called ________ ________.

Answer 369

agricultural biotechnology

Question 370

A ________ animal is one that is of a particular breed.

Answer 370

purebred

Question 371

A person interested in registering animals should contact the _______.

Answer 371

appropriate breed association

Question 372

What is a common disqualification in rules for registering animals in a breed association?

Answer 372

color marking

Question 373

________ and _______ are two basic systems for breeding livestock.

Answer 373

straight-breeding; crossbreeding

Question 374

_________ is mating animals from two different lines within a breed.

Answer 374

Linecrossing

Question 375

In ________-________ sire system breeding; two breeding groups are needed for the system; bulls from A and B are rotated on 50 percent of the herd providing crossbred females for the entire herd.

Answer 375

rotational; terminal

Question 376

Brisket disease affects the ________ in cattle.

Answer 376

heart

Question 377

________ eggs laid in manure or organic matter hatch in 8 to 20 hours.

Answer 377

Housefly

Question 378

Pinkeye in animals is carried by ________.

Answer 378

insects

Question 379

________ is a disease caused by microorganisms in cattle that is also dangerous to humans causing undulant fever.

Answer 379

Brucellosis

Question 380

An organism that affects the genital tract of the bull and is transmitted to the cow during breeding is called ________ _______.

Answer 380

Trichomoniasis

Question 381

In hogs; the underline should have a minimum of ________ nipples per side.

Answer 381

6

Question 382

Many of the odor problems from confinement operations are related to the release of ________ from manure.

Answer 382

ammonia

Question 383

Pigs must be ear notched for ________; which is necessary for good record keeping.

Answer 383

identification

Question 384

________ have a higher protein content than corn but the quality of protein is poorer.

Answer 384

Oats

Question 385

About ________ of the pigs lost before weaning are lost because of poor feeding.

Answer 385

one-fourth

Question 386

________ is a disease caused by bacteria; often confused with swine dysentery.

Answer 386

Necrotic enteritis

Question 387

________ is caused by a virus. Symptoms in young pigs include fever; vomiting; tremors; lack of coordination; convulsions; and death.

Answer 387

Pseudorabies

Question 388

________ is a condition caused by a lack of sugar in the diet.

Answer 388

Hypoglycemia

Question 389

________ parasites are the most serious health problem for sheep and goats.

Answer 389

Internal

Question 390

________ ________ is a disease that affects the tissue of the foot.

Answer 390

Foot Abscess (Bumblefoot)

Question 391

________ affects sheep and is caused by bacteria and the major symptom is abortion.

Answer 391

Vibriosis (Campylobacteriosis)

Question 392

________ is an inflammation of the lungs that affects both sheep and goats.

Answer 392

Pneumonia

Question 393

What features of the horse can be used to determine age?

Answer 393

teeth

Question 394

________ and ________ are the two most important parts of the horse.

Answer 394

Feet; legs

Question 395

The ________ is a lateral movement of the horse.

Answer 395

amble

Question 396

What is the average conception percent rate for horses?

Answer 396

50-60

Question 397

Horses drink ________ to ________ gallons of water a day.

Answer 397

10; 12

Question 398

A ________ is a person who works on horses’ feet.

Answer 398

farrier

Question 399

________ is a condition in which horses do not sweat normally.

Answer 399

Anhydrosis

Question 400

________ is a nutritional disorder that affects the respiratory system.

Answer 400

Heaves

Question 401

A disease caused by bacteria that enter the animal’s body through a puncture wound is called ________.

Answer 401

tetanus

Question 402

Parasites can be controlled by the use of ________.

Answer 402

insecticides

Question 403

Lymphoid leukosis usually affects a bird over ________ weeks old

Answer 403

16

Question 404

________ is caused by a virus and affects turkeys; chickens; and other birds.

Answer 404

Avian pox

Question 405

________ is the result of a bird eating decayed material that contains a toxin that was produced by bacteria.

Answer 405

Botulism

Question 406

Ketosis usually occurs during the first ________ to ________ weeks after calving.

Answer 406

6 to 8

Question 407

One objective of a mastitis control program is the avoidance of ________ residue in the milk.

Answer 407

drug

Question 408

________ is using the same drug in the feed supply and then by injection.

Answer 408

Double dosing

Question 409

Rabbits consume how much more water than dry matter?

Answer 409

2.5-3 times

Question 410

The term for rabbit house is ________.

Answer 410

hutch

Question 411

In the marketing of rabbits; those with ________ pelts bring lower prices.

Answer 411

colored

Question 412

The environmental temperature influences the ________ requirement of rabbits.

Answer 412

energy

Question 413

This system includes the stomach; intestines; and internal organs; such as the liver; pancreas; and spleen.

Answer 413

abdominal system

Question 414

Movement away from midline or the axis of the body is known as ________.

Answer 414

abduction

Question 415

This string muscle allows a shell to open and close.

Answer 415

Abductor

Question 416

The ________ is the last section of the ruminant stomach that acts as the true stomach and allows food to be digested.

Answer 416

abomasum

Question 417

A pregnant female animal that has lost the fetus is known as a/an ________.

Answer 417

abortion

Question 418

A bacterial infection that causes pus to build up in a localized area is known as a/an ________.

Answer 418

abscess

Question 419

A/an ________ is a material that is broken down within the body over a period of time and is absorbed by the body.

Answer 419

absorbable suture

Question 420

The root word arthr/o- means:

Answer 420

joint

Question 421

The root word cardi/o- means:

Answer 421

heart

Question 422

The root word chem/o- means:

Answer 422

chemical

Question 423

The root word col/o- means:

Answer 423

colon

Question 424

The root word cutane/o- means:

Answer 424

skin

Question 425

The root word cyst/o- means:

Answer 425

urinary bladder

Question 426

The root word dent/o- means:

Answer 426

teeth

Question 427

The root word electr/o- means:

Answer 427

electricity

Question 428

The root word enter/o- means:

Answer 428

intestines

Question 429

The root word gastr/o- means:

Answer 429

stomach

Question 430

The root word hem/o- means:

Answer 430

blood

Question 431

The root word hepat/o- means:

Answer 431

liver

Question 432

The root word hyster/o- means:

Answer 432

uterus

Question 433

The root word lapar/o- means:

Answer 433

abdomen

Question 434

The root word mast- means:

Answer 434

mammary gland

Question 435

The root word nas/o- means:

Answer 435

nose

Question 436

The root word nephr/o- means:

Answer 436

kidneys

Question 437

The root word oste/o- means:

Answer 437

bone

Question 438

The root word ovari/o- means:

Answer 438

ovary

Question 439

The root word radi/o- means:

Answer 439

radiation

Question 440

The root word rect/o- means:

Answer 440

rectum

Question 441

The root word rhin/o- means:

Answer 441

nose

Question 442

The root word urin/o- means:

Answer 442

urine

Question 443

The root word uter/o- means:

Answer 443

uterus

Question 444

The common directional term “aspect” means:

Answer 444

area

Question 445

The common directional term “caudal” means:

Answer 445

toward the tail

Question 446

The common directional term “cranial” means:

Answer 446

toward the head

Question 447

The common directional term “distal” means:

Answer 447

away from the center of the body

Question 448

The common directional term “dorsal” means:

Answer 448

toward the back area

Question 449

The common directional term “lateral” means:

Answer 449

side of the body and toward the outside

Question 450

Amphibian is the species term for:

Answer 450

frog or toad

Question 451

Avian is the species term for:

Answer 451

bird

Question 452

Bovine is the species term for:

Answer 452

cow

Question 453

Canine is the species term for:

Answer 453

dog

Question 454

Caprine is the species term for:

Answer 454

goat

Question 455

Cavy is the species term for:

Answer 455

guinea pig

Question 456

Equine is the species term for:

Answer 456

horse

Question 457

Feline is the species term for:

Answer 457

cat

Question 458

Lagomorph is the species term for:

Answer 458

rabbit

Question 459

Murine is the species term for:

Answer 459

rat or mouse

Question 460

Ovine is the species term for:

Answer 460

sheep

Question 461

Porcine is the species term for:

Answer 461

pig or swine

Question 462

Poultry is the species term for:

Answer 462

chicken and turkey

Question 463

Primate is the species term for:

Answer 463

monkey and ape

Question 464

Reptile is the species term for:

Answer 464

snake and lizard

Question 465

Terrapin is the species term for:

Answer 465

turtle

Question 466

The common veterinary abbreviation “C or cast” means:

Answer 466

castrated

Question 467

The common veterinary abbreviation “C-sect” means:

Answer 467

c-section or caesarian section

Question 468

The common veterinary abbreviation “d/c” means:

Answer 468

discharge

Question 469

The common veterinary abbreviation “DLH” means:

Answer 469

domestic long hair (cat)

Question 470

The common veterinary abbreviation “DSH” means:

Answer 470

domestic short hair (cat)

Question 471

The common veterinary abbreviation “d/o” means:

Answer 471

drop off

Question 472

The common veterinary abbreviation “EX” means:

Answer 472

exotic

Question 473

The common veterinary abbreviation “F” means:

Answer 473

female

Question 474

The common veterinary abbreviation “K-9” means:

Answer 474

dog or canine

Question 475

The common veterinary abbreviation “M” means:

Answer 475

male

Question 476

The common veterinary abbreviation “Mo” means:

Answer 476

month

Question 477

The common veterinary abbreviation “NM” means:

Answer 477

neutered male

Question 478

The common veterinary abbreviation “p/u” means:

Answer 478

pick up

Question 479

The common veterinary abbreviation “rec” means:

Answer 479

recommend

Question 480

The common veterinary abbreviation “S or SF” means:

Answer 480

spayed or spayed female

Question 481

The common veterinary abbreviation “S/R” means:

Answer 481

suture removal

Question 482

The common veterinary abbreviation “Sx” means:

Answer 482

surgery

Question 483

The common veterinary abbreviation “Wk” means:

Answer 483

week

Question 484

The common veterinary abbreviation “y or yr” means:

Answer 484

year

Question 485

A term related to patient history when they are not eating or have a decreased appetite is ________.

Answer 485

Anorexia

Question 486

The term “BM” when related to patient history is:

Answer 486

bowel movement

Question 487

The term “D” when related to patient history is:

Answer 487

diarrhea

Question 488

The term “Dysuria” when related to patient history is:

Answer 488

difficulty or trouble with urination

Question 489

The term “Dz” when related to patient history is:

Answer 489

disease

Question 490

The term “HBC” when related to patient history is:

Answer 490

hit by car

Question 491

The term “Hematuria” when related to patient history is:

Answer 491

blood in the urine

Question 492

The term “Hx” when related to patient history is:

Answer 492

history

Question 493

The term “Lethargic” when related to patient history is:

Answer 493

tired or inactive

Question 494

The term “PD” when related to patient history is:

Answer 494

polydipsia (increased thirst)

Question 495

The term “PU” when related to patient history is:

Answer 495

polyuria (increased urination)

Question 496

The term “U” when related to patient history is:

Answer 496

urine

Question 497

The term “V” when related to patient history is:

Answer 497

vomiting

Question 498

The term “V/D” when related to patient history is:

Answer 498

vomiting and diarrhea

Question 499

“Acute” is a term related to physical examination and means:

Answer 499

short term

Question 500

“Anals or AG” is a term related to physical examination and means:

Answer 500

anal glands