VTNE Review Flashcards

1
Q

Feature of the capillary technique in a FNA Bx

A

Cells are forced into the hub of the needle from the pressure of the puncture

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2
Q

Not commonly measured in a liver function test

A

Urea

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3
Q

Disinfectant that is least damaging to stainless steel

A

Alcohol

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4
Q

Purpose of the aluminum filter in an x-ray machine

A

Remove longer wavelength x-rays from the x-ray beam

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5
Q

False statement regarding canine aggression

A

Cannot be cured by performing Sx

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6
Q

Avg moisture content of canned pet food

A

72% - 82%

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7
Q

Preferable site of blood collection in birds

A

R jug, brachioulnar, and medial tibiotarsal

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8
Q

Pale pink MM in a horse during Sx suggests

A

Fever, blood loss, anemia

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9
Q

Most difficult animal to intubate (adult)

A

pig

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10
Q

Common sign of acetometaphine toxicity

A

Methemoglobenemia

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11
Q

Infections with Histoplasma or Balantidium organisms are commonly identified by which kind of testing

A

Rectal mucosal scraping

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12
Q

Baermann testing is best for diagnosing

A

Lungworm larvae

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13
Q

Surgeon removed sample from external lesion for multiple imprint analysis. Which is the best way to prep cytology sample for examination

A

Tzanck method

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14
Q

Description of the lipid envelope surrounding a virus

A

The freezing/thawing process will render enveloped virus inert

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15
Q

Factor mAs mostly affects which component

A

Density

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16
Q

Purpose of time-gain compensation (TGC).

A

Adjust brightness of image

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17
Q

How soon after birth should a foal be standing/suckling?

A

Within the first 3 hours

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18
Q

When is a puppy first able to adapt to a exploring a new environment?

A

10-12 weeks

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19
Q

What feeding method is best for large-breed puppies

A

Food-restricted meal feeding

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20
Q

Preferred site for IM inj in a lizard

A

Front leg

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21
Q

Which drug therapy should be avoided during corticosteroid therapy.

A

Etodolac (NSAID)

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22
Q

A dog’s mandible is wider than the maxilla in the area of the premolars. How is this condition described?

A

Caudal crossbite

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23
Q

Ethylene glycol toxicity

A

A blood sample to test for ethylene glycol should be obtained before administering Diazepam in patients with seizure activity.

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24
Q

Microscopic examination of a skin scraping sample shows the presence of infectious gram-positive cocci within a group of phagocytis cells. Which must be the infectious agent?

A

Staphylococcus spp.

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25
Q

In which species do the placentae allow 100% of the maternal IgG antibody to cross, protecting the fetus from systemic infection?

A

Primates and humans

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26
Q

The use of what on a contaminated open wound may result in the formation of coagulum

A

Alcohol

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27
Q

In what species does he maintenance of pregnancy dependent on luteal progesterone?

A

Goat

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28
Q

Signs of lead toxicity in birds

A

Lethargy, depression, green diarrhea, and paresis

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29
Q

Which agent is used to Dx and Tx myasthenia?

A

Edrophonium and pyridostigmine

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30
Q

How does a systemic acid antacid such as cimetidine act on the stomach?

A

Prevents the production of hydrochloric acid

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31
Q

What condition calls for periocardiocentesis?

A

Cardiac tamponade

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32
Q

Which teardrop-shaped, paired intracellular parasite is a piroplasmid protozoan of mammals, fish, and reptiles?

A

Babesia spp.

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33
Q

Common name for Toxascaris leonine?

A

Roundworm

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34
Q

Simonsiella spp is

A

Normal oral flora

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35
Q

Which pair of electrolytes have an inverse relationship (one is neg and one is pos charged)

A

Calcium and Phosphorus

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36
Q

Viral samples should

A

Survive up to 3 weeks without refrigeration.

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37
Q

How can radiographic detail or definition be increased on an image?

A

Increase source-image distance

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38
Q

In US, which term describes an error where the majority of the US beam is reflected or absorbed at the interface and no sound wave penetrates into the deeper tissues?

A

Shadowing

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39
Q

What time frame is the most critical for kittens to socialize with humans?

A

2-3 weeks of age

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40
Q

Pigs are not usually fed what?

A

Diets high in nonprotein nitrogen (NPN)

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41
Q

The normal GI flora of psittacine includes what?

A

Mostly gram-positive bacteria

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42
Q

The normal GI flora of psittacine includes what?

A

Mostly gram-positive bacteria

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43
Q

Which can cause hypoxemia when using N2O in GA?

A

Decreased inspired O2 concentration

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44
Q

What best described the goal of antimicrobial therapy?

A

Kill/inhibit microorganisms in the host without killing the host.

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45
Q

Which vein is most commonly used in small ruminants for IVCs?

A

Jugular

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46
Q

Which is the most common type of oral tumor in dogs?

A

Melanoma

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47
Q

Which drug (given IV) can increased heart rate and force of contrations?

A

Epinephrine

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48
Q

Which skin infection can be diagnosed by intradermal skin testing?

A

Mycobacterium spp.

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49
Q

Under a microscope a technician sees a collection of WBCs with variable nuclear shapes, diffuse chromatin, and blue-gray cytoplasm, some with vacuoles. Which type of cell is the technician seeing?

A

Monocytes

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50
Q

What description best fits the nature of a virus?

A

Obligate intracellular parasites

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51
Q

Why is a second vaccine administered to elicit a secondary immune response in a patient?

A

To results in a stronger, faster immunity by causing a secondary immune response

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52
Q

How is a lead shank useful when working with a horse?

A

Lifting up the horse’s leg

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53
Q

Which type of disinfectants has sporicidal activity?

A

Aldehydes

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54
Q

What term describes the process of one gene’s alleles nidifying or preventing the expression of other genes?

A

Epistasis

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55
Q

How mangy gallons of water does a lactating cow require to produce 1 gallon (3.8L) of milk?

A

3-5 gallons (11.4-18.9 L)

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56
Q

Which set of bones comprises the avian pectoral girdle?

A

Clavicle, coracoid, and scapula

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57
Q

Potomac horse fever is transmitted by which of the following?

A

Mosquitos

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58
Q

What is the best description of Taenia spp.?

A

Dark brown and nearly spherical with striations evident.

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59
Q

Definition of a latent infection

A

Often dormant until the host is stressed

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60
Q

Which part of the x-ray machine contains a major kV selector and a minor kV selector?

A

Autotransformer

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61
Q

A mechanical transducer consists of one or more crystals mechanically moved to produce what type of image?

A

Pie shaped

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62
Q

Which disease is most associated with vitamin E & selenium deficiency?

A

White muscle disease

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63
Q

You have 4 antiemetics to chose from: which should NOT be used for a patient vomiting because of a vestibular disturbance?.

A

Aminopentamide

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64
Q

Which type of surgical masks allows the least amount of air to escape?

A

Flat pleated

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65
Q

In a non-intubated dog with an orogastric tube being placed, how do you indicate it is in the proper place?

A

Palpating “two” tubes in the neck region (one is trachea and one is tube)

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66
Q

Which of the following is transmitted to horses by mosquitos?

A

Equine encephalomyelitis

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67
Q

In bovine anesthesia, which step will assist in the prevention of bloat?

A

Ensure nose is parallel to table surface

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68
Q

UO feline patient has arrhythmias and hyperkalemia, which IV drugs can help resolve arrhythmia?

A

Calcium gluconate

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69
Q

Which pairing identified the structure containing the receptors for hearing and where that structure if found?

A

Organ of Corti, inner ear

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70
Q

What genetically causes type I atopy?

A

Overproduction of IgE antibodies

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71
Q

Which disinfectant is inactivated by organic debris?

A

Chlorine

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72
Q

As the contrast of the radiograph decreased, what results?

A

Grayer radiograph with many steps but fewer differences in each step

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73
Q

What term describes a structure that permits the majority of the sound to pass through to deeper regions, with only a few echoes being reflected back?

A

Sonolucent

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74
Q

What is meant by the term “autotomy”? in exotic medicine?

A

Ability of a lizard to shed its tail when captured

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75
Q

What is NOT a duty of a sterile assistant?

A

Retrieve instruments from across the sterile field

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76
Q

What is a core equine vaccine?

A

Equine encephalomyelitis (along with Tetanus & Rabies)

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77
Q

What is paradoxical respiration?

A

Lack of synchronous movement of abdominal wall and chest wall

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78
Q

What is the correct term for a condensed neutrophil nucleus?

A

Pyknosis

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79
Q

What best describes a mesothelial cell?

A

Cytoplasm is slightly basophilic and may contain phagocytic debris

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80
Q

What method is best to use when moving a pig from one place to another?

A

Use a hurdle or plastic pipe

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81
Q

What type of disinfectant is effective against prions such as Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?

A

No disinfectant is effective

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82
Q

In US of bladder, part of beam falls outside of the bladder and echoes, resulting in part of the beam being erroneously placed within the structure, creating echoes on the image that mimic sediment. What describes this artifact?

A

Slice thickness artifact

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83
Q

Percentage of weight loss per week for an obese cat per week (based on total obese body weight)?

A

0.5%

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84
Q

What is a reptile’s “spectacle”?

A

Sheddable eyelid

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85
Q

IN large animals, which blade side is usually used with a no. 4 Bard-Parker scalpel handel?

A

20

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86
Q

Best IM inj site on a pig

A

Dorsolateral neck

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87
Q

Antidote for organophosphate toxicity

A

2-PAM (pralidoxime)

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88
Q

A lactose-fermenting bacterial colony is what color on MacConkey agar?

A

Purple

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89
Q

Max amount of time for using a hog snare to handle a pig?

A

15-20 min

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90
Q

What occurs with an increase object-receptor distance?

A

Less sharp image that is larger

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91
Q

In US, which organ is most echogenic?

A

Spleen

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92
Q

What describes a gene that has been altered by the addition of exogenous DNA

A

Transgenic strain

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93
Q

Which of the following controls a turtle’s respiration?

A

Alternating body cavity pressure during locomotion and pharyngeal pumping

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94
Q

Which are the most commonly occurring electrolyte imbalances associated with Addison’s disease?

A

Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia

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95
Q

Term for variation in erythrocyte size

A

Anisocytosis

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96
Q

What is the function of trypsin-like immunoreactivity (TLI)?

A

Highly specific assay for canine exocrine pancreatic insufficiency

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97
Q

What rule apples to proper nomenclature for a viral genus?

A

End in -virus

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98
Q

Which radiography error is more likely to cause a white or clear mark than a black mark on a film radiographic image?

A

Debris on the cassette

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99
Q

What is attenuation on US

A

Loss of intensity of the US beam as it travels both into and out of the tissue

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100
Q

What percent of equine parturition results in dystocia?

A

Less than 1%

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101
Q

Max amount that can be given as an IM inj to a mouse (at a single site)

A

0.05mL

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102
Q

When performing wound lavage, what is the most effective method of cleaning the wound?

A

Chlorhex diacetate in a solution spray bottle

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103
Q

Which drug administration route is commonly used during a resuscitation attempt?

A

Intratracheal

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104
Q

What is the scientific name for swine?

A

Sus scrofa

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105
Q

What is a prokaryote

A

A cell that lacks a true membrane bound nucleus and organelles

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106
Q

Spatial resolution

A

Max achievable spatial res (ability to separate two closely spaced objects) is defined by pixel size and spacing.
Approx spatial res for digital radiography is approx 4 to 5.
Apprx spatial res for film screen radiography is 8 to 9.

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107
Q

Stains used for assessing sperm morphology

A

Nigrosin and eosin

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108
Q

What is the primary causes for dystocia in mares?

A

Fetus’s long legs

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109
Q

Type of drug name that represents chemical structure

A

Generic

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110
Q

In a lab set up with isolators and barrier units with mice that are germ free and have been introduced to one or more known nonpathogenic microorganisms. What term describes these mice?

A

Axenic

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111
Q

What has the least amount of digestible protein?

A

Grass hay

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112
Q

Actions of biguanide such as Chlorhex agent

A

Provides microbial control through inhibition of cell membranes

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113
Q

Reason for vet to NOT compound drug

A

Decrease therapeutic effect

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114
Q

What is a normal finding in hepatobiliary cytology

A

Hemosiderin

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115
Q

How is the x-ray beam directed for a lat view of a snake’s GI tract

A

Horizontal

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116
Q

What is displayed on the horizontal axis of the M-mode US display screen?

A

Time

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117
Q

Which disease can dogs often be vaccinated against with a polyvalent vaccine?

A

Infectious tracheobronchitis

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118
Q

Antimicrobial actions of peracetic acid

A

Releases O2 in response to cellular debris to kill anaerobes

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119
Q

Normal % fat in bone marrow of a young colt

A

25%

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120
Q

Which method is preferred when tattooing a lab mouse

A

GA

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121
Q

How long should accelerated hydrogen peroxide be applied to surface before it has sanitized the surface?

A

30 seconds

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122
Q

What patient situation is a category 3 anesthetic risk for complications?

A

HM and moderate dehydration

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123
Q

Which mode of action is used by an ethylene oxide sterilization chamber

A

Alkylation of proteins, DNA, and RNA

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124
Q

What feline disorder has no vaccine?

A

Feline immunodeficiency virus (lentivirus)

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125
Q

What is a way of measuring protein usability in the body?

A

BV

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126
Q

Behavior from a chicken that demonstrated pain

A

Gasping, standing on 1 foot, easy to handle

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127
Q

What is most helpful when trying to identify oocysts of Cryptosporidium?

A

They can resemble fungal spores

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128
Q

Signal that a cat is anxious

A

Purr

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129
Q

What disease in bovines has a vaccine that is passed to calf from dam via colostrum

A

Scours complex

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130
Q

Sorghum is a type of what

A

Grass

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131
Q

Which microbial agent has the highest level of resistance to microbial control methods?

A

Prions

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132
Q

In radiography, what effect does higher kV have on the image?

A

Decreased contrast

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133
Q

What can cause penile trauma during feline mating?

A

FLUTD

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134
Q

What describes Western blotting?

A

Particularly helpful in detection of viruses such as FeLV and FIV

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135
Q

How should the transducer be manipulated to obtain a transverse US image of the stomach?

A

Rotate clockwise and move cranially

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136
Q

What substance in blood can alter the rate and amount of absorption of barbituates?

A

Protein

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137
Q

What method uses high-freq sound waves passed through a solution to create thousands of bubbles to pull debris from instruments?

A

Cavitation

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138
Q

In bone marrow, what usually accounts for 80%-90% of the erythroid cells?

A

Rubricytes and metarubricytes

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139
Q

What mineral deficiency can cause goiter or myxedema?

A

Iodine

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140
Q

What pair electrolytes has an inverse relationship (one goes up and the other goes down)?

A

Calcium and phosphorus

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141
Q

By what means does O2 and carbon dioxide enter and exit cells?

A

Diffusion

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142
Q

The ban on feeding mammalian tissue to ruminants was implemented to eliminate the potential of ruminants acquiring and spreading what disease?

A

Spongiform encephalopathy

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143
Q

Which organ is most anechoic?

A

Urinary bladder

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144
Q

What feline behavior expressed offensive aggression?

A

Rump elevated

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145
Q

What is true of a Bier block?

A

The LA used with this procedure can only be lidocaine (no epinephrine)

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146
Q

What disorder is caused by an arbovirus infection?

A

Sleeping sickness

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147
Q

What best describes thermionic emission?

A

Electrons are boiled off the cathode

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148
Q

What type of surgical scissors has blunt tips with one blade terminating into a thin/curved hook?

A

Littauer

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149
Q

What is a proteinaceous concentrate fed to ruminants?

A

Biuret

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150
Q

What type of shampoo is best for treating deep pyodermas?

A

Benzoyl peroxide 2.5%

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151
Q

What is the preferred Dx type for mouse parvovirus?

A

PCR using spleen or mesenteric lymph node

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152
Q

What preanesthetic drug will cross the blood brain barrier/placental barrier in pregnant patients, causing more than minimal fetal effect?

A

Atropine

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153
Q

Appropriate route of administration for techentium-99m for nuclear scintigraphy?

A

IM

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154
Q

What fatty acid is recommended as additional nutritional supplement to help brain/vision/CNS development in the womb?

A

Docosahexaenoic acid

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155
Q

Administering a cat epidural: when needle is advanced, the cat’s hind leg twitches. What does this indicate?

A

The needle does not have to be re-directed, drug may be injected

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156
Q

Main function of Mayo scissors

A

Cut/dissect dense tissue

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157
Q

Siamese cat- aspirate sample from thoracentesis has increased lymphocytes- what does this suggest?

A

Neoplasia (lymphosarcoma)

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158
Q

Which disorder is characterized by hypophosphatemia?

A

Hyperinsulinism

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159
Q

What should be the first layer applied when bandaging an open wound?

A

Wet-to-dry adherent dressing

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160
Q

Greatest disadvantage of a CRI analgesic drug

A

Difficulty in dosage calculations

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161
Q

What disorder manifests with circular/crusty lesions?

A

Trichophyton spp.

162
Q

What disease should dogs be tested for prior to breeding to avoid abortion, fetal reabsorption, or infertility?

A

Brucella canis

163
Q

Sound-producing organ in birds

A

Syrinx

164
Q

In which disorder is the cornea in danger of penetration?

A

Descemetocele

165
Q

What is a normal result of aging in the eyes

A

Nuclear sclerosis

166
Q

What involved the transcutaneous delivery of medications via direct current using electrostatic repulsion?

A

Iontophoresis

167
Q

What infection is marked by both elevated ALT and lymphocyte counts?

A

Avian flu

168
Q

In what patient groups are the butyrophenones most commonly used for preanesthesia?

A

Swine/exotics

169
Q

An owner trains his dog by continually exposing it to a stimulus; then when a behavior follows, there is no reward, and eventually there is no response on the pet’s part. What kind of behavior modification is this?

A

Habituation

170
Q

Pentobarbital sodium is used for what purpose?

A

Euthanasia

171
Q

A patient has 2 maxillary incisors that are displaced so that they are lingual to the mandibular incisors. What malocclusion is this?

A

Rostral crossbite

172
Q

For what disease are young rams most at risk when housed together and allowed to butt heads?

A

Blackleg

173
Q

Most common use of Gigli wire in equine bandaging?

A

Placed between impervious stockinet and a horse’s cast for ease of removal.

174
Q

What is the electrically positive portion of the x-ray tube?

A

Anode

175
Q

A sample from a thoracic effusion indicated an inflammatory disorder. Which cells are most likely predominant in this sample?

A

Neutrophils

176
Q

Cat shows signs of bronchitis (+ blood and mucus detected in the bronchioles). Centrifugal fecal float reveals rough/granular/thick-walled/barrel-shaped/straw-colored eggs with asymmetrical bipolar plugs. What Dx is most likely?

A

Eucoleus aerophilus

177
Q

Min preferred sperm motility for breeding

A

60%

178
Q

Which tail position most often indicated that a horse is in pain

A

Straight down

179
Q

What causes the complication known as :bandage bow” in horses?

A

Bandage is too tight or too loose

180
Q

What species does not have a gallbladder?

A

Rats

181
Q

Which therapy is controlled by means of a piezoelectric effect on a crystal housed in a transducer head?

A

Therapeutic US

182
Q

What opioid is a mixed agonist-antagonist, in that it can block one type of receptor and stimulate another?

A

Pentazocine

183
Q

What species’ erythrocytes tend to be more resistant to osmotic pressure changes when the animal consumes large amounts of water?

A

Camelids

184
Q

What is a malignant tumor of smooth muscle

A

Leiomyosarcoma

185
Q

Which forceps are used for holding a bowel?

A

Doyen

186
Q

Which pain and relaxation therapy option can be used both to courage the lungs or to cause muscles to fire/contract for strengthening?

A

Tapotement

187
Q

What are clinical signs of nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism in reptiles?

A

Problems with laying eggs and tremors

188
Q

What suction tip is preferred for removing abdominal fluid without being plugged by omentum?

A

Poole

189
Q

Most likely cause of physiological thrombocytosis?

A

Movement of platelets from storage pools (i.e.: spleen) as a result of stress and exercise

190
Q

Performing an acid-fast stain test: multiple solutions are applied to the slide (directly or as part of the specimen smear). What stain or solution is applied after the slide is heat fixed?

A

Carbol fuchsin

191
Q

What is a key difference in avian imaging (as opposed to canine/feline radiography)?

A

Not measuring the bird

192
Q

According to the AAFCO guidelines, a pet food’s statement of “complete and balanced” refers to a diet that contained all essential nutrients in concentrations that are proportional to what?

A

The energy density of the food

193
Q

Sawhorse stance in sheep and cattle indicated what?

A

Tetanus

194
Q

Type of pain treated in myofascial trigger point therapy

A

Pain of soft tissue origin characterized by a hardened muscle band that is intensely painful on palpation

195
Q

How is lymphocytosis transmitted among fish in an aquarium?

A

Infected skin cells rupture and release viral particles into the water

196
Q

What is a RNA virus of the family paramyxovirus (parainfluenza virus type 1)?

A

Sendai virus

197
Q

Russian tissue forceps have

A

Rounded tips

198
Q

Transduction phase of nociception is what

A

Process by which afferent nerve ending translate to noxious stimulus into nociceptive impulses

199
Q

What role does trypsin place in small intestine?

A

Aids in digestion of proteins

200
Q

What is antigenic drift?

A

A virus mutates so that preexisting antibodies can no longer bind and become useless

201
Q

What area does the US beam reach its narrowest point?

A

Focal point

202
Q

Type of cells most likely to have the highest # of mitochondria

A

Skeletal muscle

203
Q

Goal of Salmonella-Shigella agar

A

Select pathogenic enteric bacteria
Select gram-negative bacteria
Differentiate on the basis of lactose fermentation
Differentiate on the basis of hydrogen sulfide production

204
Q

Type of disinfectant most toxic to cats

A

Phenols

205
Q

How do true ruminants use nonprotein nitrogen (NPN)?

A

Conversion to protein and energy

206
Q

What is a congenic strain?

A

Animals that genetically differ at one particular locus

207
Q

Normal bovine rumen motility

A

2-4 contractions per min

208
Q

Vertebral formula of felines and canines

A

C7 T13 L7 S3 Cd6-23

209
Q

Vertebral formula of horses

A

C7 T18 L6 S5 Cd 16-18

210
Q

Microscopic exam of skin scrape shows presence of infectious gram-positive cocci within a group of phagocytic cells. What is the infectious agent?

A

Staphylococcus spp.

211
Q

Major site of roughage fermentation in horses

A

Cecum

212
Q

Strong protective covering of the heart

A

Pericardium

213
Q

Which antibody class is produced during the secondary immune response?

A

IgG

214
Q

Inappropriate contact bedding for lab animals

A

Cedar chips

215
Q

What has valves?

A

Veins and lymphatic vessels

216
Q

Epithelial cell tumor that usually exfoliates in clusters of cells

A

Carcinoma

217
Q

What caused quantum mottle on a radiographic film image?

A

Too few photons (reduced mAs) producing the image

218
Q

Antidote to lead poisoning

A

Calcium EDTA

219
Q

NOT represented on ECG

A

Atrial repolarization

220
Q

4 primary body tissues

A

Muscle, nerve, epithelial, connective

221
Q

Hyaline casts

A

Cylindrical/clear/colorless/refractive/composed of mucoprotein or plasma protein

222
Q

Mesenchymal cell tumor that exfoliates as single cells

A

Sarcoma

223
Q

Effective monitoring of steam sterilization

A

Bowie-Dick is a class 2 chemical monitor testing for the presence of air within the chamber

224
Q

Which animal’s age of puberty is directly related to body weight

A

Cattle

225
Q

Rabbit urine is

A

Cloudy and thick

226
Q

Dimercaprol (BAL in oil) treats

A

Arsenic, lead, mercury, or gold toxicity

227
Q

Contact with this species represents the main way humans are exposed to Lepto

A

Rats

228
Q

Stain used to determine presence of nucleated cells, bacteria, fungi, and mast cells

A

New methelyne blue

229
Q

What are the steps of the viral replication cycle

A

Attachment, penetration, uncoating, replication, assembly, release

230
Q

Describe autosomal dominance

A

Dominant alleles transmit disease from one affected individual to 50% of their offspring

231
Q

Where to give an IM inj to animal entering the food chain

A

Lat cervical muscles

232
Q

A multiunit smooth muscle

A

Arrector muscle of hair

233
Q

Campylobacter spp can

A

Be presumptively identified on a gram stain by their shape & they do require a microaerophilic environment to grow

234
Q

Coombs test is used for

A

Detecting the presence of antibody against red blood cells to subsequently diagnose IMHA

235
Q

Two species that benefit from “browse”

A

Goat and llama

236
Q

How are horses infected with equine protozoal myeloencephalitis?

A

Opossum feces

237
Q

What happens to metabolic waste in plasma during glomerular filtration

A

Passes into Bowman capsule

238
Q

Copper toxicity is a serious issue in what two species

A

Cattle and sheep

239
Q

The nature of conjugated form of bilirubin

A

It is found mainly as glucuronic acid

240
Q

Risk-based vaccine for horses

A

Botulism

241
Q

Infection that causes “diamond skin disease”

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

242
Q

What is the Compton effect

A

Scattering of radiation that occurs when an incoming photon ejects an outer-shell electron from the atom, causing the photon to lose energy and change direction, often leaving the anatomic part

243
Q

Function of RER (rough endoplasmic reticulum)

A

Transport proteins

244
Q

Intraosseous catheter in a bird should be placed where

A

Distal ulna

245
Q

What is the Bruce effect?

A

When a pregnancy block occurs because a pregnant females mouse if exposed to a strange male within 5 days of copulation.

246
Q

Hangar-Rose skin test can diagnose

A

Cat scratch fever

247
Q

Metabolic crisis characterized by ventroflexion of the neck with a stilted forelimb gait

A

Hypokalemia

248
Q

Describe the joint movement of circumduction

A

The movement of an extremity of one end of a bone in a circular pattern

249
Q

In what organ are most drugs metabolized (biotransformed)?

A

Liver

250
Q

What is the recommended dosage for intratracheal drug administration during cardiac arrest?

A

Up to ten times the intravenous dose

251
Q

What is the function of cheek ligaments in horses?

A

Prevent strain and overextension of the joint

252
Q

An increased or rising central venous pressure (CVP) is caused by:

A

Fluid overload

253
Q

Which of the following molecules is not a lipid?

A

Ribose

254
Q

What is a substance that is naturally derived from chili peppers?

A

Capsaicin

255
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding sedation and anesthesia in the pediatric patient?

A

Drug doses often need to be reduced because of slow metabolism, biotransformation, and excretion of drugs

256
Q

What is the formula to calculate minute volume?

A

Tidal volume multiplied by respiration rate

257
Q

What causes barotrauma in patients undergoing anesthesia?

A

Repetitive collapse and re-expansion of normal or diseased lung during positive pressure ventilation.
Excessive peak inspiratory pressure with positive pressure ventilation.
Closed pop-off valve

258
Q

A sign of chronic pain in a reptile includes:

A

Immobility

259
Q

Where is the most likely place for a rumenotomy incision in a dairy cow?

A

Left paralumbar fossa

260
Q

How long does it take for a horn to grown down from the coronet to the tip of the toe (on the ground surface) of a horse?

A

9–12 months

261
Q

What is a round or spherical shaped bacteria

A

Coccus

262
Q

Bovine “lumpy jaw” is caused by

A

Actinomyces bovis

263
Q

Which joint allows rotational movement of the head from side to side (from right to left or left to right)?

A

Atlantoaxial

264
Q

Gram-negative bacteria produce what

A

endotoxins

265
Q

In which species would you find the bursa

A

Birds (outpocketing of the cloaca)

266
Q

A cat presents with watery diarrhea. On

A

Metronidazole (Tx Giardia)

267
Q

What are the components of a typical X-ray

A

Cassette front, padding, intensifying screen,

268
Q

What is the name for the muscle group that

A

Quadriceps

269
Q

If you take the total protein measurement

A

Globulins

270
Q

Which type of cell should not be found in

A

Erythrocytes

271
Q

Which of the following is the most mature

A

Band

272
Q

Which of the following is the most mature

A

Band

273
Q

When drawing blood for a fructosamine level

A

Doesn’t matter

274
Q

Ancylostoma caninum and Cystoisospora are

A

The parasite does not require an intermediate

275
Q

What is the common term for Psittacosis

A

Parrot fever

276
Q

What does a lysosome do?

A

Makes enzymes to break up cellular debris

277
Q

Fructosamine levels are used to evaluate

A

Diabetes mellitus

278
Q

Which of the following is another term

A

Cestode

279
Q

Which vessel should be avoided when performing

A

Left jugular vein

280
Q

What is one way to help determine if a nasogastric

A

Gently blow air into the tube and listen

281
Q

Which test would provide the best measure

A

Bile acids

282
Q

A young male cat with symptoms of feline

A

Acidifying diet

283
Q

Lactose-fermenting bacteria such as Escherichia

A

Pink or red

284
Q

A 13-year old diabetic cat arrests during

A

Sodium bicarbonate

285
Q

Which of the following is a zoonotic disease?

A

Psittacosis (Chlamydia psittaci)

286
Q

Cardiac Output (CO) is determined by what variables?

A

Stroke volume x Heart rate

287
Q

The elbow is extended by which muscle?

A

Triceps brachium

288
Q

A patient presents with rodenticide toxicity and is hemorrhaging. The doctor decides the animal needs a transfusion. What blood product is most likely to help stop the patient’s bleeding?

A

Fresh frozen plasma

289
Q

Minor cross-match products used for blood products in dogs

A

Recipient red blood cells, donor plasma

290
Q

What blood products are used in a minor cross-match

A

Recipient red blood cells, donor plasma (see if the factors in the plasma of the donor are going to react to the recipient’s red blood cells)

291
Q

Muscles and ligaments attach to structures on bony surfaces. What is an example of something that is not found in the forelimb?

A

Trochanter (only located where femur hip and thigh muscles attach)

Are found on forelimb: tuberosity, epicondyle, and spine

292
Q

Pain known as first pain, because it is often the first pain felt after injury, is often described as sharp and short lived. This pain signal is transmitted by which nociceptor?

A

A-delta
(The A-delta receptors are activated by thermal or mechanical stimulation and produce short-lived, discriminative, sharp pain. C fibers are associated with a slower burning type of pain. A-beta fibers are responsible for conducting harmless information)

293
Q

Which suture materials is most likely to cause stitch granulomas if left in too long?

A

Silk

294
Q

Which type of uroliths are found in alkaline urine?

A

Struvite uroliths

295
Q

A symptom of botulism is:

A

Dysphagia

296
Q

The tricuspid valve controls the flow of blood:

A

Into the right ventricle

297
Q

When inspecting the mucous membranes during an oral assessment, which of the following should be looked at?

A

Vesicle formation and ulceration

298
Q

An example of an irregular bone is:

A

Cervical vertebra 1

299
Q

The pygostyle found in birds is located distal to which of the following?

A

Coccygeal vertebrae

300
Q

Which of the following are tranquilizers that cause muscle relaxation and might also cause excitation in some young healthy animals?

A

Benzodiazepines

301
Q

How do nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) exert their analgesic activity?

A

Inhibition of the enzyme cyclooxygenase (COX).

302
Q

Oral hypoglycemic drugs, such as glipizide (Glucotrol), are used to treat:

A

Non–insulin-dependent diabetes

303
Q

How many mL will you draw up to administer 25 units of epoetin (2000 U/mL)?

A

0.01 mL

25 units ÷ 2000 units/mL = 0.01 mL

304
Q

What are the internal and external structures of the equine hoof?

A

External structures of the hoof include: frog, sole, bulbs of heel, seat of corn, bars, and coronet of coronary band.
Internal structures of the hoof include: bones, digital cushion, lateral cartilages, and corium.

305
Q

Which of the following options would not affect a manual WBC count?

A

Objective lens used

306
Q

Which white blood cell is known as “the first line of defense” after a microorganism has entered the body?

A

Neutrophil

307
Q

Which disease exhibit coughing, fever, and mucopurulent discharge?

A

Canine distemper

308
Q

An example of capillary action is

A

The action of blood filling a hematocrit tube

309
Q

In what species might dexamethasone administration lead to abortion during the last few weeks of gestation?

A

Horses and cattle

310
Q

The majority of the albumen is added to the egg as it travels down which structure in birds?

A

Magnum

311
Q

Which classes of drugs would include gabapentin?

A

Antiepileptics

312
Q

The pulmonary circulation is under:

A

Low pressure
(Blood going through the systemic circulation is under higher pressure than blood in the pulmonary circulation. Blood traveling away from the heart is under higher pressure because of the further distance it travels)

313
Q

If a patient is 5%–6% dehydrated, which characteristics would you expect to see?

A

Subtle loss of skin elasticity

314
Q

Lidocaine can be diluted with sodium bicarbonate to decrease pain associated with injection. What should this dilution be (sodium bicarbonate: lidocaine)?

A

1:09

315
Q

Where would you find an arrector pili muscle?

A

Hair follicle

316
Q

Which disease does an intradermal caudal

A

Tuberculosis

317
Q

Streptococcus is gram + or gram -

A

Gram positive

318
Q

Sulfasalazine is sometimes used in veterinary

A

Colitis

319
Q

Organelles reside in which of the following

A

Cytoplasm

320
Q

US probes:

A

Higher frequency probes have increased image resolution and decreased penetrating ability relative to lower frequency probes

321
Q

Which organ is responsible for producing cortisol?

A

Adrenal gland

322
Q

The term pediculosis indicates a problem with:

A

Lice

323
Q

Which disease can cause a severe bradycardia that could be life-threatening?

A

Addison’s disease ( due to high potassium level AKA hyperkalemia)

324
Q

Which of these cell types are all typically found in circulation?

A

Erythrocytes, leukocytes, thrombocytes

325
Q

Phenylbutazone (bute) (pain relief in horses) is associated with what adverse effect?

A

Right dorsal colitis

326
Q

Dental formula for guinea pigs and chinchillas?

A

2(I1/1 C0/0 PM1/1 M3/3) = 20

327
Q

Mannitol Salt Agar, or MSA, selects for

A

Staphylococcus

328
Q

Major cross-match

A

Donor red blood cells, recipient plasma

329
Q

Fracture types

A

Fracture types:
Oblique - a fracture which goes at an angle to the axis
Comminuted - a fracture of many relatively small fragments
Spiral - a fracture which runs around the axis of the bone
Compund- a fracture which breaks the skin
Greenstick- a fracture of soft bone where the bone can bend and be partially broken (young animals)

330
Q

Schiff-Sherrington posture

A

paralysis of the hindlimbs

331
Q

Where would you find a Sertoli cell tumor?

A

Testicle

332
Q

Impulses are carried away from the neuronal cell body by

A

Axon

333
Q

of chambers does the stomach of a llama

A

3

334
Q

percentage of body weight should a horse consume in forage (i.e. hay) per day?

A

2%

335
Q

Tick that carries Lyme

A

Ixodes scapularis

336
Q

Canine permanent teeth with 2 roots

A

Mandibular premolars 2, 3, and 4, and molar 1

337
Q

Gram stain causes gram neg bacteria to turn which color

A

Pink

338
Q

Differentiate between male and female tortoises

A

The plastron is concave in males

339
Q

Swollen glands in neck of guinea pig- what is the cause

A

Streptococcus zooepidemicus

340
Q

Fat-soluble vitamins

A

A, D, E, and K

341
Q

DN formula for goats (do they have incisors)

A

No incisors

2 ( I 0/3 C 0/1 P 3/3 M 3/3) = 32

342
Q

DN formula for goats (do they have incisors)

A

No incisors

2 ( I 0/3 C 0/1 P 3/3 M 3/3) = 32

343
Q

Where is the mediastinum located

A

In the chest

344
Q

How much urine should a dog produce in one day

A

Normal urine output for a dog is 1-2 mL per kg per hour

345
Q

degenerative left shift

A

More neutrophilic bands than normal neutrophils

346
Q

Components/settings of x-ray that influence x-ray beam quality

A

kVp and filtration

347
Q

Whipworm eggs look like

A

Oval with bipolar plugs

348
Q

Ringtail occurs in rats due to

A

Living in an area where the humidity is too low

349
Q

In horses, the condition Sweeny is caused by damage to which structure?

A

Suprascapular nerve

350
Q

Positive Ortolani sign

A

indicated hip dysplasia

Ortolani sign: palpable sensation of gliding the femoral

351
Q

Hormone causes vaginal cells (female K9s) to proliferate and form cornified epithelim

A

Estrogen

352
Q

How long after birth can foals absorb protective maternal antibodies?

A

18-24 hours

353
Q

Whole blood transfusion includes

A

Plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells,

354
Q

The sacculus rotundus is part of the intestinal anatomy of which species?

A

Rabbit

355
Q

How long does estrus in the dog typically last?

A

4-13 days

356
Q

Another term for the type of parasite known as a tapeworm

A

Cestode

357
Q

What is the etiology of Clostridium botulinum, the toxin that causes botulism in cattle?

A

Ingestion

358
Q

Condition of “founder” in the horse refers to

A

Inflammation of the laminae of the equine hoof and subsequent rotation of the third phalanx

359
Q

function of a goblet cell?

A

Produce mucus

360
Q

Lactose-fermenting bacteria such as Escherichia coli and Klebsiella appear what color on MacConkey agar?

A

Pink or red

361
Q

causative agent of what is commonly known as “Ich” in fish?

A

Ichthyophthirius multifiliis

362
Q

Olecranon is a structure of which bone?

A

Ulna

363
Q

Which cranial nerve is known for three major branches?

A

CN V

364
Q

Gentamicin is considered an:

A

aminoglycoside

365
Q

What represents depolarization from the SA node through the atria on an electrocardiogram (ECG)?

A

P wave

366
Q

Minute volume of a 4kg cat

A

1L

Minute volume: 180-380 ml/kg/min

367
Q

What are the three layers of the meninges?

A

Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater

368
Q

What type of organism is typically detected with an acid-fast stain?

A

Mycobacteria

369
Q

Name for canine hookworm

A

Ancylostoma spp.

370
Q

White muscle disease is caused by a deficiency of which element

A

Selenium

371
Q

What type of estrous cycle does a cow have?

A

Non-seasonal polyestrus

372
Q

What heart valve is responsible for separating blood between the left atrium and left ventricle?

A

Mitral valve

373
Q

What is the shape of a bacillus such as the bacteria that causes anthrax, Bacillus

A

Cylindrical

374
Q

The “hock joint” of a horse is more appropriately identified as what structure?

A

Tarsocrural joint

375
Q

What is the neurotransmitter for skeletal muscle?

A

Acetylcholine

376
Q

When performing a major cross-match when a blood transfusion is necessary, which samples are mixed?

A

Recipient serum with donor erythrocytes

377
Q

What is the vertebral formula for dogs and vats?

A

Cervical 7, Thoracic 13, Lumbar 7, Sacral 3

378
Q

Which bacteria will not stain using the

A

Mycobacterium

379
Q

How is tularemia transmitted (what is the vector?)

A

Ticks

380
Q

dysecdysis means

A

Abnormal shedding of the skin

381
Q

What is the average cloacal temperature of a chicken?

A

107F

382
Q

Which of the 4 stomach compartments in the ruminant is considered the true glandular stomach?

A

Abomasum

383
Q

Which of the following terms describes variation in cell size?

A

Anisocytosis

384
Q

What term describes a dilated pupil?

A

Myadriatic

385
Q

The olecranon is a structure of which bone?

A

Ulna (proximal portion of the ulna, forms the point of the elbow, triceps attaches here)

386
Q

Which of the following diseases would be most likely to cause the development of cataracts in dogs?

A

Diabetes mellitus

387
Q

Name the heart chamber responsible for pumping blood toward the lungs.

A

Right ventricle

388
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi is the cause of which disease?

A

Lyme

389
Q

A rupture or tear in the thoracic duct would result in what?

A

Chylothorax

390
Q

Whipworm eggs (trichuris) look like what under microscopic examination?

A

Bipolar plugs on each end of the oval egg.

391
Q

When are needle teeth in piglets usually clipped?

A

Within 24 hours of birth

392
Q

A multi-lumen jugular catheter must be placed in a canine with renal disease for CVP monitoring. To what anatomical landmark should the catheter be inserted to?

A

3rd thoracic vertebrae

393
Q

Trichomoniasis causes which of the following conditions in cattle?

A

Abortion

394
Q

Approximately what percentage of body weight should a horse consume in forage (i.e. hay) per day?

A

2%

395
Q

Which of the 4 stomach compartments of a ruminant is considered a true glandular stomach?

A

Abomasum

396
Q

Youngest to oldest of tick lifecycle

A

Egg, larva, nymph, adult

397
Q

A rabbit is brought in for skin problems. Upon exam, you notice large flakes of dead skin over the dorsum. Some of these flakes appear to move.

A

Cheyletiella

398
Q

hypotonic solution will do what to a RBC?

A

Cause the red blood cell to burst

399
Q

How many mammary glands does the goat have?

A

2

400
Q

The analgesic effects of NSAIDs occur mainly because of their ability to:

A

inhibit the production of prostaglandins.

401
Q

Antibodies belong to a class of

A

Proteins