VTNE - Animal Nursing Flashcards
As a dog or cat transitions from immature to mature, the recommended diet change is for a. increase in calories b decrease in fat, increase in fiber c addition of table scraps d decrease in fiber
B. Decrease in fat, increase in fiber
exp: fewer calories are required once growth is complete, and fiber is beneficial for GI function
What ratio is compromised by feeding a diet high in bran to horses?
a. Na/Cl
b. Ca/P
c. Vitamins A/D
d. Mg/CO2
B. Ca/ P
exp: bran is high in phosphorus
`Oversupplementation of vegetable oils can result in
a. increase in serum nitrogen
b decrease in absorption of vitamins A, D, E, and K
c. greasy coat
d. predisposition to autoimmune disease
B. decrease in absorption of vitamins A, D, E, and K
exp: fat soluble vitamins
A factor included in body condition score of dogs and cats is
a. age
b. visible waist
c. weight
d. palpation of ribs
B. visible waist
exp:should show an hourglass profile when viewed from above
Failure to decrease the grain intake for a horse that transitions from training/work to an idle status may cause
a. polydipsia
b. azoturia
c. anorexia
d. pyrexia
B. Azoturia
exp: Buildup of waste products leading to a diseased state of renal function
Hypoallergenic diets oftentimes contain:
a. soybean
b. corn
c. rice
d. ethoxyquin
C. Rice
exp:Protein source with low allergenic potential
When feeding horses, it is recommended to measure feed:
a. by volume, not weight
b. as a per-day ration
c. by weight, not volume
d. according to supplementation
C. By weight, not volume
exp: the horse stomach can hold approx 5 pounds
Oversupplementation of which of the following can be detrimental?
a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin K
c. Selenium
d. Biotin
C. Selenium
exp: Signs of selenium toxicity include nervousness, anorexia, and ataxia
Which of the following is a normal urine pH for a cat?
a. 6.2
b. 6.0
c. 7.0
d. 7.5
a. 6.2
exp: The normal urine pH range for cats is 6.2 to 6.6
When a product is labeled as flavored, it must contain at least what percent of said ingredient?
a. 10%
b. 28%
c. 3%
d. 12%
C. 3%
exp: per AAFCO guidelines
Protein that is not used by the body is converted to energy, and the waste: a. is stored as fat for energy b. is excreted by the kidneys c. is filtered by the liver d is reabsorbed as amino acids
B. Is excreted by the kidneys
exp: Feeding excess protein is expensive, and it goes to waste
Which of the following animals can easily become hyperthermic if chased?
a. Hogs and sheep
b. Goats and sheep
c. Goats and hogs
d. Cattle and goats
A. Hogs and sheep
exp: The hogs insulating layer of fat and the sheep’s thick wool will contribute to overheating if these animals are chased or handled for long periods
What is the best method to encourage a goat to stand still?
a. life up the head and chin
b. cover an eye
c. hold up a front leg
d. tie to a fence
C. hold up a front leg
exp: Most goats, large or small, will calmly stand in one place if a front leg is lifted
What is an example of a soluble carbohydrate?
a. lignin
b. glucose
c. cellulose
d. pectin
B. Glucose
exp: Lignin, cellulose, and pectin are all dietary fiber or insoluble carbohydrates
Vitamin C levels in guinea pig food decline after how many months of storage? a. 3 months b. 6 months c. 9 months .d 12 months
A. 3 months
What species is NOT nocturnal?
a. hamster
b. gerbil
c. hedgehog
d. sugar glider
B. Gerbil
exp: the gerbil and mouse are diurnal
Which statement about housing rabbits is accurate?
a rabbits should be housed in a warm and humid environment
b. Two female rabbits housed together will fight
c. two male rabbits housed together will fight
d. solid-walled cages with wire mesh flooring are best.
C. Two male rabbits housed together will fight
exp: Rabbits need a cool but dry environment. the cage should have good circulation with a solid floor area for resting and to prevent sore hocks.
What species is not a social animal and should be housed alone?
a. chinchilla
b. hamster
c. gerbil
d. guinea pig
B. Hamster
exp: hamsters are solitary in nature
Parvovirus causes what disease in cats?
a. panleukopenia
b. rhinotracheitis
c. infectious peritonitis
d. infectious anemia
A. Panleukopenia
exp: Coronavirus causes feline infectious peritonitis, and a rickettsial parasite causes feline infectious anemia.
Feline distemper is caused by the same type of organism as what canine disease?
a. canine distemper
b. canine parvovirus
c. parainfluenza
d. adenovirus type 2
B. Canine parvovirus
exp: Feline distemper (feline panleukopenia) is caused by a parvovirus similar to the canine parvovirus
What disease is not characterized by diarrhea, vomiting, and dehydration? a feline infectious enteritis b. feline infectious peritonitis c. feline panleukopenia d. feline distemper
B. Feline infectious peritonitis
exp: Feline infectious peritonitis is characterized by abdominal distention resulting from ascites
A dog has a HX of not eating for 2 days and has lost 10% of its body weight. This weight loss is most likely due to a loss of:
a. Lean body mass
b. fat
c. glycogen
d. water
D. Water
exp:acute weight loss is typically due to water loss
Scent glads in the male goat are located:
a. around the tail base
b. around the horn base
c. in the groin area
d. in the axial are
B. around the horn base
exp:scent glads in male goats are located around the horn base and may be destroyed at dehorning.
`The reason that adult dogs and cats will often have diarrhea after consuming a large quantity of milk is because
a. they are allergic to lactose
b. they have an inability to absorb lactose.
c. the protein in milk causes a toxic reaction to the microvilli of the small intestine, thus decreasing the amount of nutrient that can be absorbed
d. milk coasts the intestine, preventing the reabsorption of water, thus leading to diarreha
B. they have an inability to absorb lactose
exp: this is a good example of a food intolerance, not a food allergy. These animals lack the necessary enzyme, lactase, needed to break lactose into simple sugars for absorption.
Cholesterol would be found in the highest concentration in
a. corn oil
b. peanut butter
c. turkey breast without the skin
d. celery
C. turkey breast without the skin
exp: Cholesterol is found in animal tissues only
A cat fed only fish would be most at risk for which of the following problems?
a. pansteatitis
b. encephalomalacia
c. anemia
d. mulberry heart disease
A. Pansteatitis
exp: A high amount of unsaturated fatty acids without supplemented vitamin E puts a cat at risk of yellow fat disease or pansteatitis
Feeding an animal raw egg whites would put the animal at risk of a(n)
a. iron deficiency
b. vitamin E deficiendy
c. biotin deficiency
d. protein deficiency
C. Biotin deficiency
exp: Avidin in egg whites will bind to biotin, making it unavailable
Great care must be taken when dehorning a goat with a hot electric dehorner because:
a. the hair may catch fire
b. the smell of burning skin scares goats
c. it is difficult to control dehorning pain in goats
d. the heat may damage their brains
D. the heat may damage their brains
exp: Goats have thinner skulls than calves and may suffer brain damage if too much heat is applied to their heads with a dehorner
A cat being fed a homemade vegetarian diet caould be expected to be deficient in all of the following except:
a. Vitamin A
b. niacin
c. vitamin B12
d. protein
D. Protein
exp:A diet meeting all of a cat’s essential nutrient requirements cannot be entirely derived from plant products
Which of these signs is not seen in fearful animals?
a. constricted pupils
b. standing or lying tensely at the rear of the cage
c. facing the back corner of the cage, glancing over the shoulder to keep people in sight
d. ears pulled back
A. constricted pupils
exp: fearful animals have dilated pupils
If there were no contraindications for the following feeding routes, the best route would be via:
a. the cephalic vein
b. the jugular vein
c. a gastric tube
d. femoral artery
C. A gastric tube
exp: If the gut works, use it
An advantage of a nasoesophageal (NE) tube over a gastrostomy tube is:
a. it does not require general anesthesia to put the tube in.
b you can use regular dog or cat canned food with the NE tube
c. the NE tube can be left in place longer than a gastrostomy tube
d. there is less chance of aspiration pneumonia with a NE tube
A. It does not require general anesthesia to put the tube in.
After more than one day of not eating, animals are deriving most of their energy from:
a. fat stores
b. glycogen stores
c. protein stores
d. fiber pockets
A. Fat stores
exp: glycogen stores are exhausted in about 24 hours. Fat is burned to make volatile fatty acids for energy
What is not commonly associated with food allergies? a bilateral otitis externa b. diarrhea c. a sudden change in diet d. a nonseasonal pruritus
C. A sudden change in diet
exp: on the average, animals have been on a diet for 2 years before developing a food allergy to that food
What has been demonstrated to prevent periodontal disease?
a. tartar-control diets
b. chew toys
c. ionstrumental dental cleaning
d. dry food
C. Instrumental dental cleaning
exp: Diets and toys have been shown to decrease calculus and tartar, but they have not been shown to prevent periodontal disease
Which of the following would be most detrimental to feed a growing puppy?
a. an over-gthe-counter multivitamin
b. multivitamin tablet
c. vitamin C tablet
d. calcium supplement
D. Calcium supplement
exp: remodeling of bones is a necessary component of growth in a puppy. Excess calcium will prevent the necessary breakdown of bones and lead to bone deformities.
Greasy, foul-smelling feces usually indicates:
a. too high protein content in the diet
b. too high fat content in the diet
c. too high carbohydrate content in the diet
d. A problem with fat absorption
D. A problem with fat absorption
exp: Also called steatorrhea
A dog’s ideal weight is 20kg and its actual weight is 30kg. If each day you fed the dog 200kcal less than what it would take for the dog to maintain its ideal weight, how long would it take for the animal to reach its ideal weight?
a. 3 weeks
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 1 year
D. 1 years
exp: An animal will derive approximately 7700 kcal from 1kg of adipose tissue.
(10kg x 7700 kcal/kg = 77,000 kcal needed to lose 77,000 kcal/200 kcal lost a day = 385 days)
Which of the following is not an advantage to feeding a dog with lymphosarcoa a diet high in fat?
a. high-fat diets are usually very palatable
b. fat would increase the energy density of the diet
c. lymphosarcoma cells cannot use fat for energy
d. fats are beneficial to digestion
D. fats are beneficial to digestion
exp: Animals with cancer typically do not have much of an appetite, therefore a highly palatable, energy-dense diet is preferred. It has been demonstrated for lymphosarcoma cells, and is probably true for other types of cancer, that they are restricted to anaerobic metabolism, that is, glucose.
The guaranteed analysis statement on the label of bag of food will not give any information on the:
a. minimum amount of fat in the diet
b. minimum amount of protein in the diet
c. maximum amount of fiber in the diet
d. digestibility of the protein in the diet
D. Digestibility of the protein in the diet
exp:Guaranteed analysis statements address quantities of contents only, not the quality of contents
Advantages of giving an animal in respiratory distress a high-fat diet would not include which of the following?
a. less CO2 is produced from the metabolism of fat.
b. fat is more energy dense
c. diets are more palatable
d. fat in the diet will cause an animal to breathe slower
D. Fat in the diet will cause an animal to breathe slower
Which of the following would be the most accurate estimate of the energy a foodstuff would contribute to an animal?
a. gross energy
b. net energy
c. digestible energy
d. metabolizable energy
B. Net energy
exp:The net energy of any feed is the amount of energy left after deducting from the metabolizable energy the energy lost in the so-called “work of digestion.”
Which of the following terms would most likely predict forage with a high ADF value?
a. stemmy
b. prebloom
c. leafy
d. green
A. stemmy
exp: Acid detergent fiber (ADF) and neutral detergent fiber (NDF) are tests to analyze the fiber content of a forage. In general, the higher the ADF or NDF, the less digestible the forage.
By determining the nitrogen content of a food sample, one can estimate the amount of _____ in the diet:
a. fat
b. fiber
c. carbohydrate
d. protein
D. Protein
exp: Protein is a nitrogenous compound
A client of your practice calls you up with a question about the diet that was prescribed for her cat. This client noticed on the label that the cat food contains several kinds of animal protein. The client says that because all animal protein contains cholesterol, she wondered whether the food contained good cholesterol or bad cholesterol. Which of the following statements would not be included in your answer?
a. plant products and animal products contain cholesterol
b. cholesterol is an essential nutrient in the body used for estrogen, testosterone, bile, and so forth.
c. what is referred to as “good cholesterol” is actually a lipoprotein (HDL) that carries cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver
d. Bad cholesterol is actually a lipoprotein (LDL) that carries cholesterol to the peripheral tissues.
A. Plant products and animal products contain cholesterol
Which of the following would be least likely to induce diarrhea in a cat?
a. increased fiber in the diet
b. panleukopenia
c. food allergy
d. increased salt content in the diet
D. Increased salt content in the diet
Which of the following does not result in glucose in the blood?
a. diet
b. conversion of protein to glucose via gluconeogenesis in the liver
c. breakdown of glycogen
d. conversion of fatty acids to glucose via gluconeogenesis in the liver
D. Conversion of fatty acids to glucose via gluconeogenesis in the liver
exp: Fatty acids cannot be converted to glucose
Acidifying diets will help prevent what type of bladder stones?
a. struvite
b. oxalate
c. biurate
d. ammonium
A. Struvite
Acidifying diets may decrease the formation of struvite (triple phosphate) stones and contribute to the formation of oxalate stones
If a cat is eating grass, then you know that the
a. cat wants to vomit
b. cat has worms
c. cat has a nutritional deficiency
d. cause is unknown
D. Cause is unknown
exp: It is unknown why cats and dogs eat grass
What species is least likely to require frequent cage cleaning?
a. rats
b. mice
c. gerbils
d. hamsters
C. gerbils
The minimum relative humidity in a neonatal puppy housing unit should be:
a. 30%
b. 50%
c. 70%
d. 90%
B. 50%
During the first week of life, orphaned puppies and kittens should be reared in an environmental temperature of
a. 32.2 C (90F)
b. 26.7 C (80F)
c. 21.1 C (70F)
d. 15.6 C (60F)
A. 32.2 C (90F)
exp: Neonatal puppies and kittens usually stay right next to their dams, in an environment nearing body temperature. orphaned neonates require a similar environment.
To keep animals germ free inside a barrier unit, the air pressure inside compared with that outside must be
a. higher
b. lower
c. equal
d. much lower
A. Higher
exp: Higher pressure inside will prevent entry of outside contaminants when the door is opened.
In an isolation unit where sick animals are housed, the air pressure in the unit compared with that in the quarters housing healthy animals must be:
a. higher
b. lower
c. equal
d. much higher
B. lower
exp:This will prevent air from travelling from sick-animal areas to well-animal areas
Adults males of what species should not be group-housed?
a. rats
b. mice
c. guinea pigs
d. gerbils
B. Mice
Exp: males mice housed together will frequently display aggressive behavior
“Red tears” (chromodacryorrhea) in rats is caused by:
a. stress
b. infection
c. toxins
d. impaired blood clotting
A. stress
exp: Stress can cause rats to secrete red porphyrin pigments in their tears
Filter caps on rodent shoebox cages reduce the
a. ammonia levels
b. horizontal transmission of pathogens
c. cage temperatures
d. litter sizes of pregnant females
B. horizontal transmission of pathogens
exp: filters on the only opening in shoebox-type housing will filter out small particles, such as pathogens
Which of these is not a common strategy for managing heat stress in dairy cattle?
a. feeding early in the day
b. placing fans over housing areas
c. sprinkling or misting cows with water
d. cooling the holding pen near the milking parlor
A. Feeding early in the day
exp: typically, all farms feed early all of the time, plus it is imperative that cows have feed in front of them at all times.
If you are visiting all of the housing areas on a farm, in what order should you view or examine the animals?
a cows, weaned heifers or steers, calves
b. weaned heifers or steers, calves, cows
c. calves, cows, weaned heifers or steers
d. calves, weaned heifers or steers, cows
D. calves, weaned heifers or steers, cows
exp: The risk of spreading disease is reduced by visiting the stock in order, from youngest to oldest.
The height of a nipple watering device must be adjusted according to the size of the pigs in the pen. It should be set at a level that is:
a. even with the elbow of the pigs
b. just above the shoulder of the pigs
c. halfway between the shoulder and the elbow of the pigs
d. comfortably reachable when the pigs are lying down
B. just above the shoulder of the pigs
exp: The pig should have to reach up slightly to drink from a nipple watering device to minimize waste. In addition, the pigs are less likely to come into contact with the nipple, which could cause damage to themselves or to the device.
The number of nipple watering devices in group pens varies according to the size and number of animals involved. a pen of 20 pigs should have a minimum of
a. 1 nipple per pen
b. 2 nipples per pen
c. 3 nipples per pen
d. 4 nipples per pen
B. 2 nipples per pen
exp: Providing two nipples in a pen of 20 pigs allows all of the animals access to water. Generally, swine producers are encouraged to install a minimum of 2 watering devices per pen.
Fences and dividers between groups of pigs should be constructed so that
a. the slats are positioned horizontally
b. the slats are positioned vertically
c. the top of the fence is no higher than the largest pig’s back
d. the bottom of the fence is at least 8 inches above the floor of the pen
B. the slats are positioned vertically
exp: Vertical slats prevent the pigs from climbing the fence
Frequently, the most challenging aspect of housing goats is
a. building materials
b. fencing
c. heating
d. size considerations
B. fencing
exp: Goats housing does not need to be sophisticated, and goats can handle hot and cold with proper shelter. however, they are good climbers, and fencing must be secure and 4 to 6 feet high
Excessive carbon monoxide levels in a swine barn are usually associated with
a. too many animals in a building or room
b. overheating of the animals in a building or room
c. incomplete combustion of fuel in a heater
d. excessive waste buildup in the pits
C. incomplete combustion of fuel in a heater
Chutes used for moving swine should be constructed so that the sides
a. have no openings
b. have vertical bars
c. have horizontal bars
d. are wider at the bottom than at the top
A. Have no openings
exp: If pigs see obstructions or movement in front of them, they stop moving.
Feeders in finishing hog pens should have
a. one feeder space per pig
b. wide openings so that two pigs can eat per hole
c. one feeder space per 6 to 10 pigs
d. shallow feeder spaces
C. one feeder space per 6 to 10 pigs
exp: One feeder space per 60 to 10 pigs allows the animals ample access to the food supply and is economical for the producer to provide.
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is a high-energy storage molecule used directly or indirectly to drive other cellular processes that require energy. What process is not driven by ATP?
a. transport of molecules and ions across cell membranes against concentration gradients that maintain the internal environment of the cell
b. synthesis of chemical compounds
c. contraction of muscle fibers and other fibers producing motion of the cells
d. synthesis of other low-energy compounds
D. synthesis of other low-energy compounds
exp: Should be “synthesis of other HIGH-energy components.”
What condition does not cause obesity in companion animals?
a. overfeeding
b. genetic predisposition
c. insufficient exercise
d. surgical neutering of males and females
C. insufficient exercise
exp: Neutering can be associated with obesity, but it does not cause it
What would provide the best information on the mineral status of a horse?
a. feed analysis
b. muscle analysis
c. blood and urine analysis
d. hair analysis
A. feed analysis
Sudden ration changes would not cause
a. cachexia
b. laminitis
c. diarrhea
d. colic
A. cachexia
exp: cachexia is a profound and marked state of malnutrition
Horses with active laminitis should be fed?
a. grain only
b. alfalfa hay and grain
c. alfalfa hay only
d. average-quality hay and no grain
D. Average-quality hay and no grain
exp: Grain and alfalfa hay are high in energy; high-energy feeds may exacerbate laminitis
A first line of attack to improving voluntary feed intake in a hospitalized patient is to:
a. initiate vitamin supplementation
b. improve palatability of feeds
c. feed stimulants
d. treat the primary condition
D. Treat the primary condition
During pregnancy, goats require extra dietary energy during the last:
a. 4 months
b. 3 months
c. 2 months
d. 1 week
C. 2 months
exp: fetal growth is greatest during the last 2 months of gestation
In goats, night blindness, poor appetite, weight loss, unthrifty appearance with a poor hair coat, and a thick nasal discharge have resulted from a lack of vitamin:
a. B
b. K
c. D
d. A
D. A
Lack of what vitamin in goats can cause nutritional muscular dystrophy (white muscle disease)?
a. E
b. B
c. D
d. A
A. E
Ruminants that consume excessive concentrates may be predisposed to
a. Ketosis
b. rumen acidosis
c. rumen alkalosis
d. parturient paresis
B. Rumen acidosis
exp: Fermentation of carbohydrates acidifies the contents of the rumen.
Consumption of unaccustomed quantities of grain, or of lush pasture when first turned out in the spring, by goats or sheep can lead to incomplete digestion, overgrowth of clostridia in the small intestine, and production of epsilon toxin. This syndrome is called:
a. parturient paresis
b. urolithiasis
c. posthitis
d. enterotoxemia
D. Enterotoxemia
exp: enterotoxemia due to clostridial overgrowth is also called overeating disease. Sheep and goats are commonly vaccinated against the disease.
What nutrient represents the greatest fraction of dairy cattle diets after weaning and is essential to optimizing milk production?
a. minerals
b. vitamins
c. carbohydrates
d. protein
C. Carbohydrates
Overfeeding of the nutrient class _____ to ruminants or horses predisposes them to laminitis, or founder.
a. vitamins
b. minerals
c. energy
d. protein
C. Energy
exp: Overfeeding to hoofed stock increases their risk of developing laminitis
Cattle add large quantities of saliva to their feed during chewing and also regurgitate during rumination. The most important effect of this is to:
a. add more moisture to forage materials
b. buffer the acids produced in the rumen
c. aid chewing and swallowing
d. keep the tongue moist
B. buffer the acids produced in the rumen
exp: Saliva in cattle is basic and helps buffer the acidic products of ruminal fermemtation
To supply nearly adequate nutrition via the intravenous route, solutions used must be:
a. hypertonic
b. hypotonic
c. isotonic
d. catatonic
A. Hypertonic
Which of the following is not recommended for a weak foal?
a. Bucket feeding
b. bottle feeding
c. nasogastric intubation
d. intravenous nutrition
B. bottle feeding
exp: Bottle feeding may cause aspiration pneumonia in a weak foal
To avoid abomasal bloat in calves, milk replacer must:
a. be low in protein
b. be fed at body temperature
c. be well mixed
d. contain antibiotics
C. be well mixed
exp: poorly mixed milk replacer contributes to bloat in preweaned calves
Successful strategies for preventing diarrhea in unweaned dairy calves include all of the following, except:
a. vaccination of the dam
b. dry, draft-free housing
c. colostrum feeding
d. limiting the amount of milk fed
D. limiting the amount of milk fed
exp: Vaccinations of the cow and calf, proper housing, and proper colostrum, management will help prevent diarrhea. Limiting the amount of milk fed will not prevent diarrhea
When a calf suckles and ingests warm milk, the reticular groove is stimulated to close so that milk and sliva pass directly into the
a. abomasum
b. rumen
c. reticulum
d. duodenum
A. abomasum
When the newobrn lamb receives no nutrition at all in cold environmental conditions, fat reserves last about
a. 4 hours only
b. 1 to 2 days only
c. 5 days only
c. 1 week only
B. 1 to 2 days only
The vitamin that is synthesized in the intestinal tract of dogs and other animals under normal conditions is:
a. vitamin E
b. vitamin K
c. vitamin B1
d. vitamin B12
B. vitamin K
During lactation, the feed intake of queens typically:
a. stays the same
b. increases about 1.5 times
c. increases about 2 to 3 times
d. increases about 50%
C. increases about 2 to 3 times
Because of their high fiber content and bulky nature, dry dog food should not be fed to dogs with
a. diarrhea
b. ascites
c. anemia
d. pancreatitis
A. Diarrhea
Goose-stepping in swine (excessive lifting of the rear legs during walking) is most likely to be caused by a deficiency of
a. copper
b. vitamin D
c. zinc
d. Pantothenic acid
D. Pantothenic acid
exp: a deficiency of pantothenic acid in the diet leads to deterioration of the sciatic nerve. Affected pigs exhibit an abnormal gait
Soybean meal is often a basic component of swine diets. What does this ingredient provide?
a. fat
b. protein
c. minerals
d. vitamins
B. Protein
Exp: soybean meal provides a readily available source of protein (44% to 48.5%) and satisfies the amino acid requirements of pigs
A diet high in vegetable protein will cause the animal to produce _____ urine.
a. cloudy
b. clear
c. alkaline
d. acidic
C. alkaline
What ingredient can be added to the diet of hogs to provide increased energy and reduce dust in the feed?
a. fat
b. water
c. soybean meal
d. silage
A. fat
exp: fats or oil provide a readily available source of energy to the diet, with the added benefit of reducing the level of dustiness of the feed
Which statement regarding disinfecting kennels is false?
a. mixing different disinfectants together can be dangerous.
b. the disinfectant must be allowed to stay in contact with all of the surfaces for 30 seconds, or it will not kill the disease organism
c. the area should be rinsed thoroughly after the appropriate contact time
d. the are should be dried before the animal is returned to the cage
B. the disinfectant must be allowed to stay in contact with all of the surface for 30 seconds, or it will not kill the disease organism.
exp: Disinfectants must remain on the surfaces for varying lengths of time. The manufacturers instructions must be followed.
If used improperly, what restraint instrument is most likely to cause broken bones, strangulation, and death?
a. cat bag
b. nose lead
c. restraint gloves
d. capture pole
C. restraint gloves
exp: restraint gloves decrease your tactile perception to the extent that you could cause strangulation, broken bones, and, ultimately, death
For oral administration of liquid medication to a dog or cat, you should
a. tilt the head up slightly and roll the lips over the canine teeth to open the mouth
b. leave the head in a horizontal position and administer the liquid between the lips and cheek.
c. tilt the head straight up and open the mouth, using the index finger of your other hand.
d. tilt the head straight up , administer the liquid between the lips, and stroke the throat
B. Leave the head in a horizontal position and administer the liquid between the lips and cheek.
exp: the head should remain horizontal and the mouth closed. Stroking the throat induces swallowing.
When applying a chain twitch to a horse, you should
a. place it on the upper lip and tighten with intermittent pressure.
b. place it on the upper lip and tighten as much as possible.
c. place it on the ear and tighten with intermittent pressure.
d. place it on the lower lip and tighten as much as possible
A. place it on the upper lip and tighten with intermittent pressure
exp: The twitch is placed on the upper lip, with pressure applied intermittently to keep the horses attention on the twitch and at the same time preserve circulation to the lip
The knot or hitch used to tie together two ropes of different sizes is a
a. bowline
b. sheet bend
c. halter tie
d. clove hitch
B. sheet bend
The knot or hitch that can be used for breeding hobbles is
a. bowline on a bight
b. clove hitch
c. halter tie
d. reefer
A. bowline on a bight
exp: When this knot is tied in the middle of a long rope, it forms a nonslip noose that can go around the animals neck. the long ends can be wrapped around the rear legs and secured so the mare cannot kick.
The knot or hitch used to secure a lead rope to a stationary object is a
a. square
b. clove hitch
c. bowline
d. halter tie
D. Halter tie
exp: This quick release knot should be the only knot used to tie a lead rope to a stationary object
The knot or hitch used to secure a rope to a vertical bar without slippage is the
a. clove hitch
b. halter tie
c. half hitch
d. bowline
A. Clove hitch
exp: Clove hitch will not slip, even when one end is pulled.
A nonslip knot or hitch that is safe to place around an animals neck is the
a. bowline
b. halter tie
c. clove hitch
d. sheet bend
A. bowline
After securing a mouse by its tail, the head and body can be restrained by
a. twirling the mouse until it is dizzy and then quickly grasping the scruff of its neck
b. placing the mouse on a smooth surface, pulling caudally on its tail, and then quickly grasping the scruff of its neck
c. grasping the loose skin along its back
d. placing the mouse on a grate, pullning back on its tail, and then quickly grasping the scruff of its neck
D. placing the mouse on a grate, pulling back on its tail, and then quickly grasping the scruff of its neck
exp: a mouse will instinctively grasp a grate with its forefeet. You can then quickly grasp it by the scruff of the neck.
What procedure is not a distraction technique?
a. taping the legs together
b. firm petting
c. twitching
d. blowing on the face
A. taping the legs together
exp: taping the legs is considered a RESTRAINT technique
What is the best time of day to restrain sheep in the summer?
a. midafternoon
b. afternoon
c. early morning
d. midmorning
C. Early morning
exp: Early morning is the coolest time and allows the owner to observe the flock for signs of distress throughout the rest of the day.
To judge whether a dog is being aggressive, observe its body language. An aggressive dog
a. looks from side to side
b. holds it head low between the shoulders
c. wags its tail
d. has eyes that dart from one thing to another
B. Holds its head low between the shoulders
Head held low between the shoulders is a classic stance of an aggressive dog.
To just whether a dog is nervous, observe its body language. A nervous dog usually
a. holds its head low between the shoulders
b. stares straight at you
c remains in a sit position
d. has eyes that dart from one thing to another
D. Has eyes that dart from one thing to another
A cat that was quiet and manageable before going into a cage has turned into a snarling mass of fangs and claws. What is the most likely cause of this behavior change?
a. someone hit it or beat it.
b. it has been frightened.
c. it is defending its territory
d. it is lonely
C. It is defending its territory
exp: cats are territorial and establish territory quickly
When restraining a rooster, be most careful of the
a. beak
b. spurs
c. wings
d. feet
B. Spurs
exp: the spurs on a roosters feet are sharp and can cause injury
When restraining a large parrot, be most careful of its:
a. beak
b. wings
c. talons
d. spurs
A. beak
exp: Parrots may bite
Of the caged birds listed, which one has the least tolerance for handling?
a. cockatiels
b. canaries
c. parrots
d. conures
B. Canaries
The canary is typically the most affected by handling, although the other birds can also have an adverse reaction to rough treatment.
The most common cause of fear-based aggression in adult dogs is:
a. abuse
b. neglect
c. hunger
d. poor socialization
D. Poor socialization
exp: Poor socialization is a more common cause of fear aggression than outright abuse or neglect.
When handling cattle with horns. stand
a. directly in front of the animal
b. to the left of the animal
c. to the left and in front of the animal
d. to one side, directly behind the horns
C. To the left and in front of the animal
exp: This is the safest area, as long as you stand well beyond the reach of the animals head.
The “shepherd’s crook” is used around the
a. front leg
b. chest
c. back leg
d. neck
C. Back leg
exp: Using a crook anywhere else can harm the animal
What species can have a seizure if handled too harshly?
a. gerbils
b. guinea pigs
c. mice
d. rats
A. gerbils
The safest place to stand next to a horse is:
a. directly in front
b. on the left side
c. on the right side
d. on the left and to the front
B. On the left side
exp: one should stand on the left side near the shoulder
Unlike other large animals, horses usually:
a. respond to voice commands
b. back away when approached
c. chase you if you make them angry
d. scatter if you try to round up an entire herd
A,. respond to voice commands
exp: most horses are trained to respond to “whoa” or “hold still” and a few other commands
Pigs can be challenging animals to handle. When working with swine, understand that:
a. there is no cause of concern about personal safety.
b. pigs are not normally vicious, but caution is advised when working with them.
c. lactating sows are calm and do not mind if their piglets are handled.
d. all pigs are extremely dangerous and will attack humans without provocation
B. pigs are not normally vicious, but caution is advised when working with them.
What restraint device would you choose to safely and easily collect blood samples from crated sows?
a. hog snare
b. sling
c. V trough
d. rope snare
D. rope snare
exp: the rope snare can be placed around the sows snot, and the end can be secured to the bars of the crate. A large sow can swing a regular hog snare against the bars of the crate and severely injure the handlers arms and hands.
A group of gilts is very nervous, because they have been caught with a snare several times in the past. What would you use to facilitate snaring them?
a. a cane or herding stick
b. a lariat
c. a pair of hog tongs
d. a bucket placed over the pigs head
C. A pair of hog tongs
Hog tongs facilitate snaring. one handler applies the tongs to the back of the neck, which causes the animal to squeal. As soon as a second person places the snare. the tongs are released. This procedure is usually less stressful than chasing the gilt around the pen.
Pigs exhibit territorial behavior. When several unfamiliar animals are mixed in a group pen, fighting may occur. If the animals are of similar size, the aggressive behavior:
a. will begin shortly after the animals are introduced an will be short term.
b. will not begin until several days after the pigs are introduced to the pen
c. will continue as long as the pigs are in the same pen
d. will not occur
A. will begin shortly after the animals are introduced and will be short term.
exp: Pigs are territorial and establish a dominance order when new animals are introduced. It is important to pen together pigs of similar size to minimize fighting. The aggression is normally short-lived, because the pigs determine the dominance order.
Grazing animals have the best depth perception when?
a. an object is at their side
b. an object is toward their rear
c. their heads are up
d. their heads are down
D. their heads are down
exp: grazing animals have poor depth perception when they are moving with their heads up. It does not matter where the object is placed, their heads have to be down in order to have the best depth perception.
All of the following disinfectants can be used on surgical instruments except:
a. quaternary ammonium compounds
b. phenolics
c. alcohols
d. halogens
D. Halogens
exp: Halogens easily penetrate the protective coating on stainless steel and cause corrosion of the metal
Which of the following is useful for dissolving urine scale from rabbit pans?
a. alkalies
b. anionics
c. acids
d. chelators
C. acids
exp: Urine scale is high in calcium, which can be dissolved using acids.
Rubber and plastic articles should be disinfected with a. alcohols b. halogens c detergents. d. aldehydes
D. aldehydes
exp: Aldehydes will disinfect rubber and plastic without causing damage
What disinfectant should not be used around cats or other felines?
a. quaternary ammonium compounds
b. phenolics
c. halogens
d. alcohols
B. phenolics
exp: Cats, birds, and some reptiles are more sensitive to phenol toxicity than other species
Solutions of bleach mixed with water are useful for disinfection for up to
a. 24 hours
b. 2 to 3 days
c. a week
d. 2 to 3 weeks
A. 24 hours
exp: Bleach solutions become ineffective 24 hours after mixing
A product that destroys 100% of bacteria is classified as a
a. sterilant
b. disinfectant
c. sanitizer
d. germicide
B. Disinfectant
Disinfectants are products that destroy pathogens, such as bacteria.
Chelating agents in cleaners remove
a. oil and grease
b. hard water minerals
c. urine scale
d. blood and serum
B. hard water minerals
exp: Chelating agents bind minerals
When disinfecting using two products, the rule is to
a. use one disinfectant at a time.
b. mix the disinfectants together.
c. dilute each disinfectant by half.
d. select one bactericidal and one bacteriostatic disinfectant.
A. use one disinfectant at a time.
Using disinfectants in sequence will maximize efficacy and minimize the risk of producing toxic mixes of compounds.
In hand-cleaning equipment after surgery, the degree of cleanliness is most influenced by the
a. contact time with the cleaner
b. degree of mechanical friction
c. thoroughness of subsequent rinsing
d. temperature of the wash water
B. degree of mechanical friction
exp: Instruments must be wiped or scrubbed for optimal cleaning.
Nursing mares and foals should not be put into pastures that were grazed the previous year by
a. stallions
b. mares
c. foals
d. yearlings
`C. foals
Avoiding putting foals in the same pasture year after year will help reduce parasite levels in the foals
Pastures should be free of
a. rocks
b. ponds
c. trees
d. fences
B. Ponds
Ponds may serve as reservoirs of pathogens
If stabling horseson clay floors, you should ____ once a year.
a. apply a sealanat to the clay floor
b. soak the floor with disinfectant.
c. replace the clay surface
d. culture the clay for microbes
C. replace the clay surface.
Clay surfaces may become uneven with wear and soaked with urine and should be replaced periodically
For effective sanitation, lights in the surgical suite should be
a. recessed into the ceiling
b. close to the air inlet
c. fitted with fluorescent bulbs
d. activated by entry of personnel
A. recessed into the ceiling
exp: These are not the surgery lights but the lights used to illuminate the room
