VTL Quizzer- Session 2 Flashcards
Consider the following lists to determine which does NOT contain an AUTHORIZED EMERGENCY VEHICLE.
A: Ambulance, Police vehicle, Correction vehicle
B: Fire vehicle, Civil Defense Emergency vehicle, Emergency Ambulance Service vehicle
C: Environmental Emergency Response vehicle, Sanitation Patrol vehicle, Public Utility Repair vehicle
D: Hazardous Materials Emergency vehicle, Ordnance Disposal vehicle of the Armed Forces of the U.S.
E: Police bicycle
C: The Public Utility Repair Vehicle may be a HAZARD vehicle, but it is NOT an authorized emergency
Which of the following defined terms is not correct according to the V.T.L.?
A: A “driver” means every person who operates or drives or is in actual physical control of a vehicle.
B: The term “drug” as used in the V.T.L. includes depressant, stimulant, hallucinogenic and narcotic drugs.
C: A “motorcycle” is a motor vehicle having a seat or saddle for the rider and designed to travel on not more than three wheels, any two of which are more than fifteen inches in diameter.
D: An “owner” of a vehicle does not include a lien holder.
E: An “intersection” is, among other things, the area embraced within the prolongation of the lateral curb lines.
C: No mention of wheel diameter.
Please note that re: a MOTORCYCLE, some points to remember
are:
1) Handlebars above shoulder height is prohibited.
2) Don’t carry package that prevents BOTH hands being on handlebars.
According to Article 1 of the V.T.L., which of the following is not correct?
A: A bus includes every motor vehicle used for transporting persons and designed to carry more than ten passengers.
B: An omnibus is any motor vehicle used in the business of transporting passengers for hire, except those used to transport agricultural workers to and from their employment.
C: A snowmobile is specifically excluded from the definition of a motor vehicle.
D: Parking means the standing of a vehicle, whether occupied or not, except when done temporarily for the purpose of, and while actually engaged in, loading or unloading merchandise or passengers.
A: 15 or more in addition to the driver.
NOTE: Re: MOTOR VEHICLE, excluded from the definition are the following:
1) Electrically-driven mobility assistance devices operated or driven by a person with a disability
2) Vehicles which run only on rails or tracks
3) Snowmobiles
4) All-Terrain Vehicles (REGISTRATION REQUIRED ALWAYS)
5) Electric scooters
According to the V.T.L., a “business district is defined as the territory contiguous to and including a highway when, within any 600 feet along such highway, there are buildings in use for business or industrial purposes which occupy a certain amount of frontage along the highway.
Which of the following is correct concerning the frontage along the highway?
A: It must be at least 300 feet on both sides of the highway.
B: It must be at least 600 feet collectively on both sides of the highway.
C: It must be at least 300 feet on one side or 300 feet collectively on both sides.
D: It must be a minimum of at least 150 feet on each side of the highway.
C: 105 V.T.L.
Which of the following is not correct according to the V.T.L.?
A: A “traffic infraction” is a violation of a law regulating traffic (other than re: snowmobiles or vessels) which is not declared to be a felony or a misdemeanor.
B: Punishment for a traffic infraction shall not be deemed a penal or criminal punishment.
C: For purposes of arrest without a warrant, a traffic infraction shall be deemed an offense.
D: Any fine imposed by an administrative tribunal for a traffic infraction shall not be a civil penalty.
D: Yes, it shall.
Please note that offenses connected with the REGISTRATION OF SNOWMOBILES &
VESSELS are NOT considered to be traffic infractions. Section 155
According to Section 125 of the V.T.L., which of the following would be considered to be a motor vehicle?
A: A motorcycle
B: A snowmobile
C: A vehicle which runs only upon rails or tracks
D: An electrically-driven invalid chair operated or driven by an invalid
E: An all-terrain vehicle
A: A MOTORCYCLE IS a MOTOR VEHICLE.
Note: Every vehicle operated or driven upon a public highway which is propelled by other than muscular power is a MOTOR VEHICLE, except for the listed exceptions in Section 125.
1) Electrically-driven mobility assistance devices operated or driven by a person with a disability
2) Vehicles which run only on rails or tracks
3) Snowmobiles
4) All-Terrain Vehicles (REGISTRATION REQUIRED ALWAYS)
5) Electric scooters
Which of the following would NOT be considered a VEHICLE as that term is defined in Section 159 of the V.T.L.?
A: A device used exclusively upon stationary rails or tracks
B: A motor driven bicycle
C: An air-powered four-wheeled wagon
D: A limited-use motorcycle
A: Consider this: What is a SUBWAY TRAIN?
It is neither a VEHICLE (runs on tracks), nor a MOTOR VEHICLE (same reason).
Suppose someone INTENTIONALLY damages an occupied subway train by throwing an explosive into it.
Is this a FELONY Arson? NO – NO BUILDING or MOTOR VEHICLE is
involved.
TOUGH CONCEPT. Section 159
According to the V.T.L., the “parking area” of a shopping center is sometimes subject to the traffic control regulations of the V.T.L.
Which of the following is correct concerning the size of such parking area?
A: At least one acre
B: At least 100 feet of business frontage
C: At least 500 feet along a highway
D: Any size if the public has access and more than one business is serviced thereby
A: Please note that the D.W.I. laws in the V.T.L. apply in this area AND in any PARKING LOT having capacity for 4 or more vehicles, except private property areas of a one- or two-family residence.
Therefore, if a three-family house has a four-car parking area, it is subject to the D.W.I. laws.
Section 129-a
According to Section 252 of the V.T.L., a temporary in-transit or transportation registration or permit issued by another state to the purchaser of a motor vehicle shall be valid only for a period of _____ days after the holder thereof has entered this state for the purpose of transporting the vehicle to the jurisdiction in which it will be regularly registered.
A:3
B:5
C:7
D:30
D: Section 252
Which of the following is not accurate concerning required lights on motor vehicles?
A: Two front lamps, one on each side, having light sources of equal power, shall be displayed from 1/2 hour after sunset to 1/2 hour before sunrise.
B: The lamps referred to in (A) shall also be displayed at such other times when visibility for a distance of 1,000 feet ahead of such motor vehicle is not clear.
C: At least one lighted red lamp on the rear of such motor vehicle if manufactured before 1/1/52, visible for a distance of at least 500 feet, shall be displayed during the times referred to in (A) and (B).
D: All passenger motor vehicles shall be equipped with a white rear light which shall be lighted when the ignition is energized and reverse gear is engaged.
D: Every PASSENGER vehicle registered in N.Y.S. and assembled after 1/1/69.
Section 375, subd. 34
Which of the following is not correct according to Article 375 of the V.T.L.?
A: No vehicle shall be towed by a rope or other non-rigid connection which is longer than 16 feet.
B: A motor vehicle being towed by a non-rigid connection must have a licensed driver in such motor vehicle who shall steer it when it is being towed.
C: The rule (as in (B)) does not apply in the counties of Nassau or Suffolk when a tractor is towing two trailers.
D: The general rule is that a motor vehicle shall not be used to tow more than one other vehicle.
C: Just a bit of nonsense. Section 375
During daylight hours, when visibility for a distance of _____ feet ahead is not clear, a motor vehicle driven upon a public highway shall display its lights
A:350 feet.
B:500 feet.
C:1,000 feet.
D:100 feet.
C: This one caught many competitors napping a few years back. Section 375
According to Section 501 V.T.L., which of the following is not correct re: LICENSE ENDORSEMENTS?
A: A T endorsement is required to OPERATE a double or triple trailer.
B: An H endorsement is required to operate a vehicle carrying hazardous material.
C: An N endorsement is required to operate a tank vehicle.
D: A W endorsement is required to operate a tow truck.
E: An S endorsement is required to operate a school bus.
B: This endorsement is required to TRANSPORT the HAZMAT when the vehicle is required to be placard, etc. See full text of law
Evaluate the following statements according to Section 511 V.T.L.
- Aggravated Unlicensed Operation of a Motor Vehicle 2nd and 3rd Degree are punishable as misdemeanors.
- Aggravated Unlicensed Operation of a Motor Vehicle 1st Degree is punishable as a Class E Felony.
- Aggravated Unlicensed Operation of a Motor Vehicle 1st Degree requires that the defendant currently be violating Section 1192, subd. 1, 2, 3, 4, or 5 V.T.L.
______________________________________________
A: All 3 are correct.
B: Only #3 is correct.
C: Only #1 and #2 are correct.
D: Only #2 is correct.
C: Both 2nd and 3rd Degree are Misdemeanors, but punishment differs.
1st Degree can occur if the defendant has at least 10 suspensions on separate dates for failure to answer, etc.
If he has 3 or more it is 2nd Degree, but 10 or more on separate dates, etc. is 1st Degree. a Class E Felony.
Roger and Tondelayo are partners. Tondelayo knows that Roger’s license to drive has been suspended and, in spite of this knowledge, Tondelayo lends her car to Roger at Roger’s request. If Roger drives
Tondelayo’s car under these circumstances, Tondelayo is guilty of:
A: Allowing and Permitting Unlicensed Operation.
B: Facilitating Aggravated Unlicensed Operation 3rd Degree.
C: Aggravated Unlicensed Operation 3rd Degree.
D: Criminal Negligence in the Operation of a Motor Vehicle.
B: Section 511-a
Which of the following statements is not correct concerning accident reports under Section 605 V.T.L.?
A: An Accident Report is required whenever any person is killed or injured.
B: An Accident Report is required whenever property damage exceeds $600 to any one person.
C: If the operator of the involved vehicle cannot make the report, then the owner should make it within 10 days after he learns the facts.
D: The report required shall be made in such form and number as shall be required by the Commissioner.
B: The dollar amount is more than $1,000. A frequently-used question. Section 605
The set of facts below which describes a FELONY is:
A: Leaving the Scene of a personal injury accident.
B: Leaving the Scene of a personal injury accident by failing to provide license and insurance card after being convicted of the same offense on a prior occasion.
C: Leaving the Scene of a serious personal injury accident.
D: Leaving the Scene of an accident involving injury to certain animals.
C: Property damage only or animals is a TRAFFIC INFRACTION.
P.I. is a “B” Misdemeanor, but goes to an “A” Misdemeanor if defendant simply fails to produce license and insurance card. P.I. goes to an “E” Felony second time around if the defendant FLEES.
S.P.I. first time where the defendant FLEES is an “E” Felony. And it goes to a “D” Felony if DEATH is caused.
In which of the following situations is FINGERPRINTING mandatory?
- Leaving the Scene of a personal injury accident by failing to provide papers, etc.
- Driving While Intoxicated
- Leaving the Scene of a serious personal injury accident
- Reckless Driving
______________________________________________
A:#1, #2, #3 and #4
B:#2 and #3, but not #1 and #4
C:#1, #2 and #3, but not #4
D:#2 and #4, but not #1 and #3
B: Although this is really a C.P.L. question, the examiners frequently use these V.T.L. offenses in conjunction with a fingerprint question.
Under what circumstances can a police officer make an arrest without a warrant for a Leaving the Scene which is NOT criminal and which did NOT occur in the officer’s presence?
A: When the offense was, in fact, committed and the officer has reasonable cause to believe that the violation was committed by the arrested person.
B: When the officer has reasonable cause to believe (RCTB) that the offense was committed and RCTB that the person to be arrested committed it.
C: Only when there is sufficient cause to justify such an arrest under Article 140 C.P.L.
D: Such an arrest cannot be made since petty offenses must occur in the officer’s presence and geographical area of employment (G.A.O.E.) before such an arrest is authorized.
A: This is a special law of arrest limited to offenses involving LEAVING THE SCENE. Section 602
Roger is an ambulance driver enroute to a local hospital with a seriously ill patient. He knows time is of the essence and so he does not stop for all traffic control devices. Because he is in the vicinity of the hospital, he uses only his warning lights, not wanting to disturb people in the hospital with the loud siren, as he drives through a red light.
According to the V.T.L., Roger’s conduct is:
A: justifiable under the “choice of evils” doctrine in Article 35 of the Penal Law.
B: permitted under the V.T.L.
C: in violation of Section 1104 of the V.T.L.
D: not against the law and if an accident occurs would be considered to be a civil matter only.
C: in violation of Section 1104 of the V.T.L.
Police Officer Mullins is on routine motor patrol when he is given an emergency job by the dispatcher. He drives through a red light after hitting his siren. He did NOT use his red flashing dome light. He collided with a deaf motorist lawfully in the intersection. The patrol sergeant’s investigation disclosed that P.O. Mullins did not have time to turn on the red flashers before driving through the intersection. It would be most appropriate for the sergeant to:
A: bring administrative charges against P.O. Mullins.
B: ignore the matter because of the emergency call.
C: issue a traffic ticket to P.O. Mullins for violating the V.T.L.
D: direct P.O. Mullins to cite the deaf motorist for failure to yield to an emergency vehicle.
A: A prior concept which points out that although police vehicles need not always use BOTH means of warning, he must continue to exercise due care for the safety of all persons.
No motor vehicle shall make a U turn near the crest of a grade where such motor vehicle cannot be
seen by the driver of any other motor vehicle approaching from either direction within:
A:1/4 mile.
B:250 feet.
C:500 feet.
D:1000 feet.
C: Just another number to clutter up your mind. Section 1161
Under what circumstances may a vehicle be driven across a solid double yellow line on a highway?
A: When overtaking and passing a slow moving vehicle
B: To yield to an emergency vehicle coming from behind
C: To make a left turn into a driveway
D: When there are two lanes of traffic in each direction
C: Another well-worn question used by the examiners. Section 1126(b)
P.O. Mullins has stopped Roger for an equipment infraction, two front headlights out. P.O. Mullins has reason to question Roger’s identity and he asks Roger to sign his name as a means of further identification. Roger then says, “Those headlights give me a pain. Watch this.” Roger kicks the fender
and both lights start to work. Unfortunately, P.O. Mullins has already given Roger the traffic citation. P.O. Mullins says, “I will certify that you fixed the lights in my presence prior to 1/2 hour after sunset on the next full business day and the judge will dismiss the charge against you.”
Based on these facts and the provisions of the V.T.L., which of the following statements is correct
A: P.O. Mullins’ comment re: the dismissal was correct.
B: The offense committed by Roger was a misdemeanor.
C: P.O. Mullins’ comment re: the dismissal might have been correct if only one headlight was out.
D: P.O. Mullins had no right to direct Roger to sign his name as a means of further identification.
C: When the equipment infraction involves two headlights out OR service brakes, the driver is out of luck.
Assuming it was a DISMISSAL case, the time period mentioned is correct. Furthermore, P.O.
Mullins has a statutory right to direct Roger to sign name. Section 376-a
Which of the following is not correct concerning the speed provisions of the V.T.L.?
A: No person shall drive a vehicle at a speed greater than is reasonable and prudent under the conditions and having regard to the then-existing hazards, both actual and potential.
B: Except where a special hazard exists or when maximum speeds have otherwise been established, no person shall drive a vehicle in excess of 50 mph.
C: A third conviction within 18 months may give rise to imprisonment for 180 days.
D: No person shall drive a motor vehicle at such a slow speed as to impede normal movement of traffic, except when necessary for safe operation in compliance with law.
B: The speed, of course, is 55 mph. See Section 1180 V.T.L.
See the 1997 provisions re: RADAR DETECTORS on motor vehicles with a G.V.W. RATING of more than 18,000 pounds [Sec. 1180(g)]
Reckless driving means driving or using any motor vehicle, motorcycle, or any other vehicle propelled by any power other than muscular power or any appliance or accessory thereof in a manner which unreasonable interferes with the free and proper use of the public highway. The above statement
defines a
A:Traffic Infraction.
B:Misdemeanor.
C:Petty Offense.
D:Felony, if there has been a prior conviction within 18 months.
B: Please note that RECKLESS DRIVING is in Section 1212 of the V.T.L.
Furthermore, reckless driving is NOT a misdemeanor for which fingerprinting is mandatory.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct according to the V.T.L.?
A: Evidence of .05% or less blood alcohol is prima facie evidence that the person is neither impaired nor intoxicated.
B: Evidence of more than .05% blood alcohol but less than .07% blood alcohol is prima facie evidence that the person is NOT intoxicated, but is RELEVANT evidence that the person is impaired.
C: Evidence of .07% blood alcohol but less than .08% blood alcohol is prima facie evidence that the person is NOT intoxicated, but is PRIMA FACIE evidence that the person is impaired.
D: Evidence of .08% or more blood alcohol is prima facie evidence that the person is intoxicated.
D: There is NO WEIGHT of evidence given to .08% or more blood alcohol. It is PER SE against the law under Section 1192, subd. 2 of the V.T.L. and is described as DRIVING WHILE INTOXICATED, PER SE.
NOTE: When a person violates 1192, subd. 2, 3 or 4, and causes S.P.I. or DEATH, this fact MUST be
indicated on the accusatory instrument. See 1192, subd. 12.
Which of the following is not accurate according to the V.T.L.?
A: No person shall operate a motor vehicle while he has .08 of one percentum or more by weight of alcohol in his blood.
B: Any person who operates a motor vehicle or motorcycle in this state shall be deemed to have given his consent to a chemical test of his breath, blood, urine, or saliva for the purpose of determining the alcoholic or drug content of his blood.
C: Only a physician or a registered professional nurse acting at the request of a police officer shall be entitled to withdraw blood, urine, or saliva for the purpose of determining alcoholic or drug content.
D: The person tested shall be permitted to have a physician of his own choosing administer a chemical test in addition to the one administered at the direction of the police officer.
C: There is no limitation on who can collect the breath, urine or saliva sample. There is a restriction on who can withdraw blood. The persons authorized to do so have been expanded over the years. See
1194, subd. 4 of the V.T.L. NOT INCLUDED in the list is a LICENSED PRACTICAL NURSE, and this is
usually the question asked.
Testing procedures: (a) Persons authorized to withdraw blood; immunity; testimony. (1) At the request
of a police officer, the following persons may withdraw blood for the purpose of determining the alcoholic or drug content therein: (i) a physician, a registered professional nurse or a registered physician’s assistant; or (ii) under the supervision and at the direction of a physician; a medical laboratory technician or medical technologist as classified by Civil Service; a phlebotomist; an advanced emergency medical technician as certified by the Department of Health; or a medical laboratory technician or medical technologist employed by a clinical laboratory approved under Title Five of Article Five of the Public Health Law. This limitation shall not apply to the taking of a urine,
saliva or breath specimen.
Which of the following body substances is NOT included in those substances which may be tested to determine blood alcohol level?
A:Blood
B:Urine
C:Saliva
D:Perspiration
D: An easy question, but one which has been used frequently. Section 1194
Which of the following is not accurate according to 1192 of the V.T.L.?
A: Driving While Intoxicated is a Misdemeanor.
B: Driving While Intoxicated, per se, is a Misdemeanor.
C: A person who now stands convicted of (A) or (B) above and who has a prior conviction of either within 10 years is guilty of a Felony.
D: Driving While Ability to Operate is Impaired by drugs is a Misdemeanor.
E: A person who now stands convicted of (D) above and who has a prior conviction of (D) above within 10 years is guilty of a Felony, but if the prior conviction is of (A) or (B) above, it is not a Felony.
E: Yes, it is. Section 1192, subd. 2, 3 or 4 are all in the MISDEMEANOR category. But, you can MIX and MATCH any of them with a prior conviction within 10 years to convert them into a felony.
According to the provisions of Section 1194 V.T.L. under the heading of COMPULSORY CHEMICAL TESTS, a person who is arrested for violating 1192 V.T.L. and who has been involved in an accident involving DEATH or SERIOUS PHYSICAL INJURY to another, is NOT PERMITTED TO REFUSE THE CHEMICAL TEST and a Court Order may be obtained to compel the test. Re: such procedures, which
of the following is NOT correct?
A: The application for the Court Order may be made to any Criminal Court Judge within the jurisdiction where the arrest was made.
B: The usual two-hour limitation between time of arrest and administration of the chemical test is not
applicable.
C: The application for the Court Order may be made by telephone, radio or other means of electronic communication, or in person.
D: Once the Court Order is issued and the arrested person still refuses, he may be forcibly compelled to submit.
A: Supreme Court, County Court, District Court, New York City Criminal Court. Section 1194
Unauthorized speed contests such as “drag racing” amounts to a:
A: Traffic Infraction.
B: Misdemeanor.
C: Violation.
D: Traffic Infraction or Misdemeanor depending on the speed attained.
B: But see Sections 1182 and 1182-a of the V.T.L. where provision is made for REGULATED speed contests on the public highways.
According to the STOPPING, STANDING, and PARKING regulations contained in 1202 V.T.L., no person shall stand or park a vehicle, whether occupied or not, except momentarily to pick up or discharge a passenger, within ________ of the driveway entrance to any fire station unless a different distance is indicated by official signs, markings or parking meters.
A: 75 feet
B: 15 feet
C: 20 feet
D: 50 feet
C: But see Section 1202 where parking on the side of the street OPPOSITE the entrance is restricted within 75 feet.
Which of the following is correct concerning following of a fire apparatus?
A: The prohibited distance is 200 feet.
B: The prohibited distance in a city and Nassau County is 100 feet.
C: The prohibited distance is 500 feet throughout the state.
D: The prohibited distance is 500 feet throughout the state except in a city, Nassau County, and Suffolk County.
A: Section 1217. FOLLOWING includes in the SAME lane or an adjacent lane.
Include the following prohibition:
1) Do not DRIVE INTO or PARK within the BLOCK
OR
2) Where there is no block, do not drive into or park within 1,000 feet of where such fire vehicle has stopped in answer to a fire alarm.
Who can give authorization to draw blood from an unconscious arrested person according to the V.T.L.?
A: The arresting officer
B: Any Criminal Court Judge
C: A Superior Court Judge
D: An attending physician
C: There must have been a serious accident involved and the person is arrested and has refused or is incapable of consenting to the chemical test. Section 1194
Which of the following is NOT authorized to take blood from a person arrested for D.W.I. at the request of a police officer?
A: A physician
B: A phlebotomist
C: A registered nurse
D: A practical nurse
D: Section 1194(4)
Roger leaves his car on a portion of public highway where parking is not permitted. His car will be
considered abandoned if he leaves it there for more than
A: 12 hours.
B: 24 hours.
C: 72 hours.
D: 96 hours.
B: Section 1224
When someone repossesses a motor vehicle, he is required to:
A: personally notify local police PRIOR to the repossession.
B: personally notify the local police immediately AFTER the repossession.
C: confiscate the license plates and deliver them to the D.M.V.
D: notify the owner prior to the repossession because title vests in the owner.
B: Section 425
The minimum speed that can be set by a village for a highway which passes by a school building is:
A: 10 miles per hour
B: 15 miles per hour
C: 20 miles per hour
D: 25 miles per hour
B: Section 1620
Shane, a Massachusetts resident, has moved to New York to take up residence here. How much time does he have to get a New York State license?
A: 10 days
B: 20 days
C: 30 days
D: 45 days
C: 30 days
A lost motorist halts his car at the curb under a “No Parking” sign so he can study a road map. A
passing police officer observes him. The officer should
A: ignore the situation.
B: give the man directions but take no enforcement action.
C: give the man directions and inform him that he is in violation of a posted sign.
D: arrest the violator and impound the vehicle.
C: Know what is meant by STOPPING, STANDING and PARKING.
Which of the following blood alcohol readings is prima facie evidence of impairment?
A: .05% or less
B: .06% and .07%
C: .07% but less than .08%
D: .08% or more
C: Watch out for these readings:
.05% or less is P.F. neither INTOX. nor IMPAIRED.
More than .05% but less than .07% is P.F. not intox.,but RELEVANT to prove impaired.
.07% but less than .08% is P.F. not intox., but P.F. he is impaired.
There is NO WEIGHT OF EVIDENCE attached to .08% or more.
The one of the equipment offenses listed below which is a crime and not a petty offense is
A: defective service brakes.
B: two front headlights not working.
C: defective emergency brake.
D: defective tires.
A: Remember, when a Summons is served for an equipment offense, the violator can beat the Summons in court if he properly shows that the defect was corrected by 1/2 hour after sunset on the next full business day (Saturday, Sunday and holidays are not a business day). But, this grace period doesn’t apply when the offense is defective service brakes or two front headlights out. Section 376-a
Roger does all of the following with his motorcycle:
1. Operates it with handlebars above shoulder height.
2. Operates it without a rear view mirror.
3. Operates it without an approved helmet.
4. Operates it on private property with a muffler cut-out.
Which of the above violate the provisions of the V.T.L.?
_____________________________
A: #1, #2, #3 and #4
B: #1, #2 and #3, but not #4
C: #1 and #2, but not #3 and #4
D: #1, #2 and #4, but not #3
B: This would violate the law if on public highway.
On Friday, at 9:30 PM, P.O. Mullins serves an Appearance Ticket on Roger for defective license plate light. It is possible for Roger to “beat the rap” if he can show, by proper certification, that the defect was corrected before:
A: the returnable date of the ticket.
B: 1/2 hour after sunset on the following Monday.
C: 1/2 hour after sunset on the next day.
D: 1/2 hour after sunset on the next Sunday.
B: Monday is the next business day. Section 376-a
The procedure for “beating the rap” as outlined in the last question is applicable to all of the following equipment violations, except
A: headlight offenses.
B: emergency (hand) brake offenses.
C: service brake offenses, or two front headlights out.
D: defective horn.
C: In these cases a ticket must be issued and the violator can’t “beat the rap” by showing it was corrected.
In all other equipment offenses the case can be dismissed if defect is properly corrected. Section 376-a
“It means the stopping of a vehicle, whether occupied or not, otherwise than temporarily, for the purpose of and while actually engaged in receiving or discharging passengers.”
The above describes:
A: Parking.
B: Stopping.
C: Standing.
D: Halting.
C: Standing.
“It means the standing of a vehicle, whether occupied or not, otherwise than temporarily for the purpose of and while actually engaged in loading or unloading merchandise or passengers.”
The above describes:
A: Parking.
B: Stopping.
C: Standing.
D: Halting.
A: Remember the person who halted his car under a “No Parking” sign in order to read a road map.
An “IN TRANSIT” permit shall be valid for:
A: 90 days.
B: 60 days.
C: 45 days.
D: 30 days.
D: Section 401-a
It is against the law for a disabled vehicle over 65 feet long to be towed more than what distance on a highway?
A: 10 miles.
B: 7 miles.
C: 5 miles.
D: 3 miles.
A: 10 miles.
