Voluntary ManSlaughter Flashcards

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1
Q

What is voluntary manslaughter?

A

Voluntary manslaughter is a homicide that would otherwise be considered murder, but is reduced due to a partial defense such as diminished responsibility or loss of control.

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2
Q

What are the two partial defenses to murder under voluntary manslaughter?

A

Diminished responsibility and loss of control.

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3
Q

Do you need to prove murder in order to use diminished responsibility or loss of control?

A

No, these defenses are used to reduce liability from murder to manslaughter.

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4
Q

Under what law is the defense of diminished responsibility outlined?

A

Section 2(1) of the Homicide Act 1957, as amended by s52 of the Coroners and Justice Act 2009.

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5
Q

Under what law is the defense of loss of control outlined?

A

Section 54 of the Coroners and Justice Act 2009.

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6
Q

What are the four elements required for the defense of diminished responsibility?

A

1) Abnormality of mental functioning, 2) Recognized medical condition, 3) Substantial impairment, and 4) Causal link to the defendant’s actions.

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7
Q

What case established the meaning of “abnormality of mental functioning”?

A

R v Byrne.

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8
Q

What must the abnormality of mental functioning be caused by?

A

A recognized medical condition.

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9
Q

How does R v Byrne define abnormality of mental functioning?

A

A state of mind so different from that of an ordinary person that a reasonable person would term it abnormal.

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10
Q

Is medical evidence necessary to support a claim of diminished responsibility?

A

Yes, medical evidence is needed to prove the recognized medical condition.

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11
Q

Does the Homicide Act list specific recognized medical conditions?

A

No, but cases provide examples such as depression, epilepsy, and battered spouse syndrome.

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12
Q

What recognized medical condition was argued in R v Campbell?

A

Frontal lobe brain damage and epilepsy.

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13
Q

What condition was recognized in R v Gittens?

A

Depression.

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14
Q

What was the condition in R v Ahluwalia and R v Hobson?

A

Battered spouse syndrome.

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15
Q

Does voluntary intoxication alone qualify as a recognized medical condition?

A

No, voluntary intoxication alone is not sufficient; it must be coupled with an underlying condition.

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16
Q

What does R v Tandy say about alcoholism as a defense?

A

Alcoholism may be a defense if it leads to an abnormality of mental functioning that affects the brain permanently.

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17
Q

In R v Dietschmann, what did the House of Lords say about alcohol and diminished responsibility?

A

They stated that if alcohol is removed, the defendant must still have an abnormality of mental functioning to use diminished responsibility.

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18
Q

What condition was accepted in R v Woods as a recognized medical condition?

A

Alcohol dependence syndrome.

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19
Q

Can alcohol dependence syndrome (ADS) support a diminished responsibility defense?

A

Yes, if it substantially impairs the defendant’s ability to function.

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20
Q

Why is acute voluntary intoxication not a recognized medical condition?

A

Because it is an external factor and does not permanently impair mental functioning.

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21
Q

What does ‘substantial impairment’ mean in diminished responsibility?

A

The defendant’s mental functioning must be more than trivially impaired but need not be totally impaired.

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22
Q

What three abilities must be substantially impaired for diminished responsibility to apply?

A

The ability to understand the nature of the act, form a rational judgment, or exercise self-control.

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23
Q

What case clarified that ‘substantial’ does not mean ‘total’ impairment?

A

R v Lloyd.

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24
Q

What does it mean to be unable to ‘form a rational judgment’?

A

The defendant cannot make reasoned decisions due to their abnormality of mental functioning.

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25
Q

How does the inability to ‘exercise self-control’ apply in diminished responsibility?

A

The defendant’s ability to control their actions is significantly impaired by their condition.

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26
Q

What must be proven between the abnormality and the defendant’s actions?

A

A causal link; the abnormality of mental functioning must explain the defendant’s conduct.

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27
Q

Why is it important to show the abnormality explains the defendant’s actions?

A

To establish that the condition led directly to the killing, thereby supporting the defense.

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28
Q

Can diminished responsibility apply if the abnormality did not contribute to the killing?

A

No, it must be a substantial factor in causing the defendant’s actions.

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29
Q

What is the significance of the phrase ‘provides an explanation’ in s2(1) Homicide Act?

A

It means that the abnormality must help explain why the defendant acted as they did.

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30
Q

What does R v Byrne illustrate about abnormality leading to conduct?

A

Byrne’s abnormality (irresistible impulses) directly caused his actions, reducing murder to manslaughter.

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31
Q

What are the three main elements of loss of control?

A

1) The defendant lost control, 2) there was a qualifying trigger, and 3) a person of similar characteristics might have acted similarly.

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32
Q

What does it mean to ‘lose control’ in this defense?

A

The defendant must genuinely lose their self-control, not just act out of temper or character.

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33
Q

Does loss of control need to be immediate?

A

No, under the Coroners and Justice Act 2009, it no longer needs to be sudden.

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34
Q

What does R v Jewell demonstrate about losing control?

A

The defendant must truly lose control; mere anger or frustration is not enough.

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35
Q

What are the two types of qualifying triggers under s55?

A

The fear trigger and the anger trigger.

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36
Q

What is the fear trigger?

A

The defendant fears serious violence from the victim against themselves or another person.

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37
Q

Which section of the Coroners and Justice Act defines the fear trigger?

A

Section 55(3).

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38
Q

In what case was the fear trigger applied successfully?

A

R v Ward.

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39
Q

Can the fear trigger apply if the violence is anticipated but has not happened yet?

A

Yes, if the defendant genuinely fears that violence is imminent.

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40
Q

What must be shown for the fear trigger to apply?

A

The defendant’s fear of serious violence was genuine.

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41
Q

What is the anger trigger?

A

The defendant lost control due to something said or done that was extremely provocative.

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42
Q

Which section of the Coroners and Justice Act defines the anger trigger?

A

Section 55(4).

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43
Q

What case illustrates the use of the anger trigger?

A

R v Bowyer.

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44
Q

What type of conduct qualifies for the anger trigger?

A

Conduct that is extremely grave and caused the defendant to feel justifiably wronged.

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45
Q

Can a trivial act trigger loss of control under the anger trigger?

A

No, it must be a significant provocation that justifiably angers the defendant.

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46
Q

What is the objective test for loss of control?

A

Whether a person of the same age and sex, with a normal degree of tolerance, would have reacted similarly.

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47
Q

Which section of the Coroners and Justice Act sets out this objective test?

A

Section 54(1)(c).

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48
Q

What does R v Camplin illustrate about age and sex in the objective test?

A

The jury must consider how someone of the defendant’s age and sex might react.

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49
Q

What did Zebedee establish about reactions in loss of control cases?

A

A normal person with ordinary tolerance would not react violently to trivial provocations.

50
Q

Why is the objective test important in loss of control?

A

It prevents the defense from applying to defendants who act unreasonably.

51
Q

What case involved a defendant losing control due to taunts about his sexuality?

A

R v Camplin.

52
Q

In R v Zebedee, what was deemed an insufficient trigger?

A

The victim’s repeated incontinence due to Alzheimer’s.

53
Q

What did R v Clinton clarify about sexual infidelity and loss of control?

A

Sexual infidelity alone is not a qualifying trigger but can be considered with other triggers.

54
Q

Why did R v Clinton limit sexual infidelity as a trigger?

A

To prevent defendants from using infidelity as an excuse for violence.

55
Q

Can loss of control be used if the defendant acts out of revenge?

A

No, the Coroners and Justice Act excludes acts motivated by revenge.

56
Q

If a defendant claims they were provoked by repeated insults, does this qualify for loss of control?

A

Only if the insults are extremely grave and cause justifiable anger.

57
Q

How would alcohol dependence syndrome support a diminished responsibility defense?

A

If it leads to a substantial impairment that explains the defendant’s actions.

58
Q

Can temporary anger or temper constitute loss of control?

A

No, it must be a genuine loss of self-control.

59
Q

Is there a requirement for expert evidence in diminished responsibility cases?

A

Yes, medical or psychiatric evidence is essential to prove the recognized medical condition.

60
Q

If a defendant’s condition does not impair self-control, can they still use diminished responsibility?

A

No, substantial impairment of self-control or judgment is necessary.

61
Q

What is voluntary manslaughter?

A

Voluntary manslaughter is a homicide that would otherwise be considered murder, but is reduced due to a partial defense such as diminished responsibility or loss of control.

62
Q

What are the two partial defenses to murder under voluntary manslaughter?

A

Diminished responsibility and loss of control.

63
Q

Do you need to prove murder in order to use diminished responsibility or loss of control?

A

No, these defenses are used to reduce liability from murder to manslaughter.

64
Q

Under what law is the defense of diminished responsibility outlined?

A

Section 2(1) of the Homicide Act 1957, as amended by s52 of the Coroners and Justice Act 2009.

65
Q

Under what law is the defense of loss of control outlined?

A

Section 54 of the Coroners and Justice Act 2009.

66
Q

What are the four elements required for the defense of diminished responsibility?

A

1) Abnormality of mental functioning, 2) Recognized medical condition, 3) Substantial impairment, and 4) Causal link to the defendant’s actions.

67
Q

What case established the meaning of “abnormality of mental functioning”?

A

R v Byrne.

68
Q

What must the abnormality of mental functioning be caused by?

A

A recognized medical condition.

69
Q

How does R v Byrne define abnormality of mental functioning?

A

A state of mind so different from that of an ordinary person that a reasonable person would term it abnormal.

70
Q

Is medical evidence necessary to support a claim of diminished responsibility?

A

Yes, medical evidence is needed to prove the recognized medical condition.

71
Q

Does the Homicide Act list specific recognized medical conditions?

A

No, but cases provide examples such as depression, epilepsy, and battered spouse syndrome.

72
Q

What recognized medical condition was argued in R v Campbell?

A

Frontal lobe brain damage and epilepsy.

73
Q

What condition was recognized in R v Gittens?

A

Depression.

74
Q

What was the condition in R v Ahluwalia and R v Hobson?

A

Battered spouse syndrome.

75
Q

Does voluntary intoxication alone qualify as a recognized medical condition?

A

No, voluntary intoxication alone is not sufficient; it must be coupled with an underlying condition.

76
Q

What does R v Tandy say about alcoholism as a defense?

A

Alcoholism may be a defense if it leads to an abnormality of mental functioning that affects the brain permanently.

77
Q

In R v Dietschmann, what did the House of Lords say about alcohol and diminished responsibility?

A

They stated that if alcohol is removed, the defendant must still have an abnormality of mental functioning to use diminished responsibility.

78
Q

What condition was accepted in R v Woods as a recognized medical condition?

A

Alcohol dependence syndrome.

79
Q

Can alcohol dependence syndrome (ADS) support a diminished responsibility defense?

A

Yes, if it substantially impairs the defendant’s ability to function.

80
Q

Why is acute voluntary intoxication not a recognized medical condition?

A

Because it is an external factor and does not permanently impair mental functioning.

81
Q

What does ‘substantial impairment’ mean in diminished responsibility?

A

The defendant’s mental functioning must be more than trivially impaired but need not be totally impaired.

82
Q

What three abilities must be substantially impaired for diminished responsibility to apply?

A

The ability to understand the nature of the act, form a rational judgment, or exercise self-control.

83
Q

What case clarified that ‘substantial’ does not mean ‘total’ impairment?

A

R v Lloyd.

84
Q

What does it mean to be unable to ‘form a rational judgment’?

A

The defendant cannot make reasoned decisions due to their abnormality of mental functioning.

85
Q

How does the inability to ‘exercise self-control’ apply in diminished responsibility?

A

The defendant’s ability to control their actions is significantly impaired by their condition.

86
Q

What must be proven between the abnormality and the defendant’s actions?

A

A causal link; the abnormality of mental functioning must explain the defendant’s conduct.

87
Q

Why is it important to show the abnormality explains the defendant’s actions?

A

To establish that the condition led directly to the killing, thereby supporting the defense.

88
Q

Can diminished responsibility apply if the abnormality did not contribute to the killing?

A

No, it must be a substantial factor in causing the defendant’s actions.

89
Q

What is the significance of the phrase ‘provides an explanation’ in s2(1) Homicide Act?

A

It means that the abnormality must help explain why the defendant acted as they did.

90
Q

What does R v Byrne illustrate about abnormality leading to conduct?

A

Byrne’s abnormality (irresistible impulses) directly caused his actions, reducing murder to manslaughter.

91
Q

What are the three main elements of loss of control?

A

1) The defendant lost control, 2) there was a qualifying trigger, and 3) a person of similar characteristics might have acted similarly.

92
Q

What does it mean to ‘lose control’ in this defense?

A

The defendant must genuinely lose their self-control, not just act out of temper or character.

93
Q

Does loss of control need to be immediate?

A

No, under the Coroners and Justice Act 2009, it no longer needs to be sudden.

94
Q

What does R v Jewell demonstrate about losing control?

A

The defendant must truly lose control; mere anger or frustration is not enough.

95
Q

What are the two types of qualifying triggers under s55?

A

The fear trigger and the anger trigger.

96
Q

What is the fear trigger?

A

The defendant fears serious violence from the victim against themselves or another person.

97
Q

Which section of the Coroners and Justice Act defines the fear trigger?

A

Section 55(3).

98
Q

In what case was the fear trigger applied successfully?

A

R v Ward.

99
Q

Can the fear trigger apply if the violence is anticipated but has not happened yet?

A

Yes, if the defendant genuinely fears that violence is imminent.

100
Q

What must be shown for the fear trigger to apply?

A

The defendant’s fear of serious violence was genuine.

101
Q

What is the anger trigger?

A

The defendant lost control due to something said or done that was extremely provocative.

102
Q

Which section of the Coroners and Justice Act defines the anger trigger?

A

Section 55(4).

103
Q

What case illustrates the use of the anger trigger?

A

R v Bowyer.

104
Q

What type of conduct qualifies for the anger trigger?

A

Conduct that is extremely grave and caused the defendant to feel justifiably wronged.

105
Q

Can a trivial act trigger loss of control under the anger trigger?

A

No, it must be a significant provocation that justifiably angers the defendant.

106
Q

What is the objective test for loss of control?

A

Whether a person of the same age and sex, with a normal degree of tolerance, would have reacted similarly.

107
Q

Which section of the Coroners and Justice Act sets out this objective test?

A

Section 54(1)(c).

108
Q

What does R v Camplin illustrate about age and sex in the objective test?

A

The jury must consider how someone of the defendant’s age and sex might react.

109
Q

What did Zebedee establish about reactions in loss of control cases?

A

A normal person with ordinary tolerance would not react violently to trivial provocations.

110
Q

Why is the objective test important in loss of control?

A

It prevents the defense from applying to defendants who act unreasonably.

111
Q

What case involved a defendant losing control due to taunts about his sexuality?

A

R v Camplin.

112
Q

In R v Zebedee, what was deemed an insufficient trigger?

A

The victim’s repeated incontinence due to Alzheimer’s.

113
Q

What did R v Clinton clarify about sexual infidelity and loss of control?

A

Sexual infidelity alone is not a qualifying trigger but can be considered with other triggers.

114
Q

Why did R v Clinton limit sexual infidelity as a trigger?

A

To prevent defendants from using infidelity as an excuse for violence.

115
Q

Can loss of control be used if the defendant acts out of revenge?

A

No, the Coroners and Justice Act excludes acts motivated by revenge.

116
Q

If a defendant claims they were provoked by repeated insults, does this qualify for loss of control?

A

Only if the insults are extremely grave and cause justifiable anger.

117
Q

How would alcohol dependence syndrome support a diminished responsibility defense?

A

If it leads to a substantial impairment that explains the defendant’s actions.

118
Q

Can temporary anger or temper constitute loss of control?

A

No, it must be a genuine loss of self-control.

119
Q

Is there a requirement for expert evidence in diminished responsibility cases?

A

Yes, medical or psychiatric evidence is essential to prove the recognized medical condition.

120
Q

If a defendant’s condition does not impair self-control, can they still use diminished responsibility?

A

No, substantial impairment of self-control or judgment is necessary.