Volume III - Med Admin & Pharm (URE) Flashcards

1
Q

Insulin may potentiate a hypoglycemic effect when taken concomitantly with

A

alcohol or salicylates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the actions of sulfonylurea medications?

A

Increase the insulin production of the pancreas and better peripheral insulin activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What type of medication has a cleansing action that produces watery evacuation of intestinal content?

A

Cathartics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The most serious complication of thrombolytic therapy is

A

bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Out of the several names given each medication, which of these drug names is given by the manufacturer?

A

Trade name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A major contributor of young children developing type II diabetes is

A

increased obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a potential side effect when antacids are taken concurrently with coumarin derivatives?

A

Increase bleeding time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When a pt is receiving penicillin for the tx of severe strep throat, what further pt-education is appropriate if the pt is also taking oral contraceptives for birth control?

A

Use a backup method of birth control while taking the penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

While undergoing heparin tx, Mr. Johnson’s diet should be monitored closely for foods rich in vitamin

A

K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Calcium channel blockers should not be taken with

A

grapefruit juice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

LtCol McNamara ordered a single dose of Phenergan 12.5 mg, to be administered IM to A1C Jones for nausea and vomiting. The Phenergan is supplied in 50 mg/2mL pre-filled syringes. How many mLs would you administer?

A

.50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which viral disease do mosquitoes transmit?

A

Yellow Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name the parts of a needle

A

Hub, shaft, bevel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ACE Inhibitors lower blood pressure by

A

decreasing vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The process by which a drug is transported from the site of entry to the circulatory system is known as

A

absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Non-opioid analgesics are available

A

over the counter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The drug of choice when treating PVCs associated with an MI is

A

Lidocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Antipsychotic medications are categorized as

A

major tranquilizers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the primary side effect of central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors?

A

Sodium and water retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Cathartics are categorized as

A

Laxatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Before administering any medication, you are responsible for all of the following except

A

for ensuring the patient is available for work the next day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The method of parenteral medication administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle is

A

IM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When administering a vaginal douche, how high above the patient’s vagina do you hang the bag?

A

12-18 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

To administer ear drops in a patient under three years of age you gently pull the earlobe

A

down to straighten the canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which statement is a disadvantage of inhalation medication?

A

Monitoring the precise amount of drug administration is difficult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How many pounds are equal to 65kg?

A

143

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which statement is true regarding how ambient temperature can affect drug action?

A

Warmer temperatures increase circulation and cause rapid drug action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Opioid antagonists are used in the treatment of

A

Opioid overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Aminoglycosides are used for

A

short term treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Drug administration is controlled primarily by

A

Federal law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Mr. Johnson has undergone a hip replacement and is receiving heparin tx. Mr. Johnson’s daughter has received education from the nurse at the hospital regarding the heparin tx. What pt education instructions would Mr. Johnson’s daughter receive in regards to the site of the heparin injection?

A

Do not aspirate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Pts who are allergic to penicillin are also likely to be allergic to

A

cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Narcotics, such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines, which have a high potential for abuse, but have acceptable medical uses are classified as

A

Schedule II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs is best described as a

A

Clinical Pharmacist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When ACE inhibitors are taken in conjunction with diuretics or vasodilators, what effect is produced?

A

Potentiate hypotension

36
Q

Vaginal suppositories are

A

administered to combat infection

37
Q

Among the endocrine medications, what drug action category do adrenal corticosteroids fall within?

A

Supportive

38
Q

When should Dramamine be taken when orally administered?

A

30 mins before expected motion

39
Q

Which endocrine therapy drugs are used to prevent organ transplant rejection?

A

Corticosteroids

40
Q

A finely ground drug that can be used internally or used externally describes a type of medication preparation called a

A

powder

41
Q

When administering eye medications, ensure the patient’s treated eye is lower than the other in order to

A

prevent the solution from running into the patient’s unaffected eye

42
Q

Dr. Young has ordered Mrs. Green to receive 5 mg/kg of Ancef twice a day. Mrs. Green weighs 65 kg. The medication Ancef is supplied in vials of 50 mg/mL. How many mLs of the Ancef will be given for each dose?

A

6.5

43
Q

Anti-inflammatory actions are associated with

A

preventing the formation of prostaglandins

44
Q

A patient’s weight is a factor in drug action due to

A

body fat absorption

45
Q

Extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) common to typical phenothiazines antipsychotic medications is a result of

A

blocking dopamine receptors

46
Q

Which statement is true regarding the role of a medical service technician in medication administration?

A

Technicians are permitted to administer medications under the supervision of a nurse or physician

47
Q

What antidote is administered for serious bleeding complications while under coumarin (Coumadin) therapy?

A

Vitamin K

48
Q

Penicillin administered to treat an infection is an example of what category of drugs?

A

Curative

49
Q

Which vaccine should not be administered to individuals allergic to eggs or egg products?

A

Influenza

50
Q

Hepatitis A is contracted through the transmission of

A

contaminated food or water

51
Q

What is the most common side effect of antihypertensives?

A

Postural hypotension

52
Q

Toxic side effects of digitalis include the following except

A

tachycardia

53
Q

What form should be filled out when reporting a medication error?

A

AF Form 765

54
Q

To prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid medication being transferred to inpatients are usually poured at what location?

A

Patient’s bedside

55
Q

Adrenergic blockers are used in low doses for patients with

A

lung conditions that cause bronchospasm

56
Q

Which vaccine do all recruits receive a booster for upon entering the Air Force?

A

Tetanus

57
Q

What administration method delivers medication directly into a patient’s digestive system?

A

Oral

58
Q

What vaccines are given to individuals deploying to Africa?

A

Yellow fever and typhoid

59
Q

Which element is not required on a medication order?

A

Patient’s age

60
Q

What type of medication would be prescribed for a pt with allergies to grass and tree pollen?

A

Antihistamines

61
Q

How many ways can a provider initiate a drug order?

A

Two

62
Q

Antacids containing aluminum or calcium carbonate have the common side effect of

A

constipation

63
Q

Into what body cavity are otic medications administered?

A

External auditory canal

64
Q

What do many medical treatment facilities use to avoid errors when copying a drug order?

A

Computer-generated product

65
Q

If after five days of the penicillin tx the pt develops diarrhea, what advice would be appropriate?

A

Add yogurt or buttermilk to her diet and monitor the number of episodes

66
Q

Which medication’s primary action is pain relief?

A

Analgesics, sedatives, hypnotics

67
Q

Antianxiety medications are prescribed for

A

the treatment of insomnia

68
Q

As a minimum, how often should controlled temperature drug storage be monitored?

A

Once per day

69
Q

Central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors are usually combined with

A

diuretics

70
Q

What food or drink is known for its high potential to change intestinal tract enzymes and interfere with the effectiveness of certain antibiotics, antifungals, antihistamines, and sedative-hypnotic drugs?

A

Grapefruit juice

71
Q

Which childhood disease was nearly eradicated worldwide by 1972 and in the 2000s the vaccine was reintroduced as a mobility vaccine for military personnel?

A

Small Pox

72
Q

What pt-education would be appropriate for a patient who has been prescribed Tessalon Perles to help stop coughing?

A

Do not chew the capsule

73
Q

Which medication acts as an absorbent and protectant to achieve a drying effect to the GI tract?

A

Kaopectate

74
Q

With type I diabetes the pancreas

A

is unable to produce enough insulin to control blood sugar

75
Q

Which statement is not considered one of the patient’s legal and ethical rights?

A

Choose the method of administration

76
Q

What law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances?

A

Controlled substances act

77
Q

A common side effect of sedatives and hypnotic medications is

A

a depressed state of REM phase of sleep

78
Q

Which OTC CNS stimulant is frequently taken in prolonged high doses producing habituation and psychological dependence?

A

Caffeine

79
Q

Why are oral medications that are taken before meals generally faster acting?

A

Lower digestive system content

80
Q

Quinidine is used primarily as a prophylactic therapy to

A

maintain normal rhythm after cardioversion

81
Q

What type of laxative is sorbitol

A

Hyperosmotic

82
Q

Which of these is a common reference source for drugs?

A

Physician Desk Reference

83
Q

What is not a side effect of tricyclics?

A

pupil constriction

84
Q

Which pulse point should be checked before the administration of digitalis?

A

Apical

85
Q

Which medication can interact with quinolones to potentiate cardiac arrest?

A

Theophylline

86
Q

Opioids are contraindicated with

A

head injury treatment