Volume II Flashcards by Ruben Florez

Command Procedures M.P. 201.01

Who is responsible for the completion of Tactical Objectives?

the Incident Commander

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Command Procedures M.P. 201.01

What are the Tactical Objectives?

Rescue
Fire Control
Property Conservation

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Command Procedures M.P. 201.01

The _______ _______ ________ is used to facilitate the completion of the Tactical Objectives

Incident Command System

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Command Procedures M.P. 201.01
The _______ of ________ define standard activities that are performed by the Incident Commander to achieve the Tactical Objectives

Functions, Command

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Command Procedures M.P. 201.01

The first ___ functions must be addressed immediately from the initial assumption of Command

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Command Procedures M.P. 201.01
The first fire department member or unit to arrive at the scene of a _______ unit response shall assume command of the incident.

multiple

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Command Procedures M.P. 201.01
One or two company responses that are not going to escalate beyond the commitment of these companies do not require the first arriving unit or officer to assume Command. True or False?

True

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ommand Procedures M.P. 201.01

The radio designation “COMMAND” will be used along with the _______ or _______ of the incident.

occupancy, address

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Command Procedures M.P. 201.01

No crew will remain in a hazardous area without what?

radio communications

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Command Procedures M.P. 201.01

What is another term for Command Team?

Incident Advisory Team

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Command Procedures M.P. 201.01

Who is a part of the Command Team?

Senior Advisor, IC, Support Officer

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Command Procedures M.P. 201.01

Assumption of Command is discretionary for whom?

Assistant Chiefs and the Fire Chief

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Command Procedures M.P. 201.01
When an incident is so large or of such duration that State or Federal resources are called to assist, who may be assigned to manage these resources?

an Incident Management Team (IMT)

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Command Procedures M.P. 201.01

When a Chief Officer arrives at the scene at the same time as the initial arriving Company, who should assume command?

The Chief Officer

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Command Procedures M.P. 201.01

By radio is the preferred method to transfer Command. True or False?

False-Face to face is the preferred method

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Command Procedures M.P. 201.01
When an incident becomes so large that an Incident Management Team (IMT) is requested, Command will not transfer to the IMT (Type I,III) unless a formal written Delegation of Authority has been signed by who?

the JHA and the IMT

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Command Procedures M.P. 201.01
The arrival of a ranking Officer on the incident scene does not mean that Command has been automatically transferred to that Officer. True or False?

True

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Command Procedures M.P. 201.01

Command should consider adding a command officer to any sector with _____ or more operating companies

three

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Command Procedures M.P. 201.01

Command Officers should stage over the radio. Staff Personnel should do what?

report directly to the Command Post to notify the Incident Commander of their availability to assume incident duties.

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Command Procedures M.P. 201.01

When there are no working incidents, who has the responsibility of initiating the ICS?

the Alarm Headquarters and its Supervisor

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Command Procedures M.P. 201.01

One of the Roles of the ______ ______ is to assign logistics responsibilities

Support Officer

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Command Procedures M.P. 201.01

Who is usually the highest ranking member of the Command Team?

the Senior Advisor

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Command Procedures M.P. 201.01
Some roles and responsibilities of the _____ ______ include initiating Section and Branch functions as required, and providing a liaison with other city agencies and officials, outside agencies, property owners and/or tenants.

Senior Advisor

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Command Procedures M.P. 201.01

The Strategic and Tactical levels are in place to support the _____ level.

Task

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Command Procedures M.P. 201.01 | The accumulated achievements of Task level activities accomplish _______ _______.

Tactical Objectives

Command Procedures M.P. 201.01 | What are the Tactical Objectives on fires?

Rescue Fire Control Property Conservation Customer Stabilization

Command Procedures M.P. 201.01 | This is a standard system of dividing incident scene command into smaller units or pieces.

Sectoring

Command Procedures M.P. 201.01 Whenever there are three or more companies operating in a sector, the IC should assign a ______ _____ and _____ to that sector.

Battalion Chief, FIT

Command Procedures M.P. 201.01 | The maximum number of Sectors that an IC can effectively manage is called the ______ __ _____.

Span of Control

Command Procedures M.P. 201.01 | The span of control is usually ____ sectors and should never exceed ____ sectors.

5, 7

Command Procedures M.P. 201.01 | Sectors may be assigned by their ______ _____ or ______.

geographic location, function

Command Procedures M.P. 201.01 | Divisions are assigned by their ______ ______.

geographic location

Command Procedures M.P. 201.01 | Groups are assigned by their _______.

function

Command Procedures M.P. 201.01 When the number of Sectors exceeds the span of control that the Incident Commander can effectively manage, the Incident Organization should be divided into ________.

Branches

Command Procedures M.P. 201.01 During offensive fires, ___ companies represents a reasonable maximum span of control for a Sector Officer. During defensive fires, ___ companies represents a reasonable maximum span of control.

5, 7

Command Procedures M.P. 201.01 | Command will assign a Command Officer to assume Sector responsibilities ___ _____ ____ _____.

as soon as possible

Command Procedures M.P. 201.01 | The ______ ______ must be in a position to directly supervise and monitor operations.

Sector Officer

Command Procedures M.P. 201.01 | When a command officer is assigned Sector responsibilities the FIT/ISO becomes the Sector _____ ______.

Safety Officer

Command Procedures M.P. 201.01 | The Branch level of the organization is designed to provide ________ between the Sectors and Command

Coordination

Command Procedures M.P. 201.01 | Adding Branches to the incident organization _______ the communication load on the IC

decreases

``` Command Procedures M.P. 201.01 Strategic Level-Incident Commander _______ Level-Branch Officers Tactical Level-Sector Officers Task Level-Companies ```

Coordination

Command Procedures M.P. 201.01 The intent of the ______ level of the Command structure is to split an incident into manageable components and reduce the span of control.

Branch

Command Procedures M.P. 201.01 | Branch Officers manage and direct activities of _____ _______.

Sector Officers

Command Procedures M.P. 201.01 | Branch Officer positions should be assigned to _______ ________.

Chief Officers

Command Procedures M.P. 201.01 | Branch Officers operate in _______ positions.

forward

Command Procedures M.P. 201.01 | Command must assign Officers in the Command post to monitor each _______ radio channel.

Branch

Command Procedures M.P. 201.01 | The Fire Department's involvement and needs at the incident scene can be divided into four sections. they are:

Logistics section Planning section Operations section Administrative section

Command Procedures M.P. 201.01 This section is the support mechanism for the organization. It provides services and support systems to all the organizational components involved in the incident.

Logistics

Command Procedures M.P. 201.01 This section is responsible for gathering, assimilating, analyzing, and processing information needed for effective decision-making. Information management is a full-time task at large and complex incidents.

Planning

Command Procedures M.P. 201.01 | This section is responsible for the tactical priorities, accountability, safety, and welfare of the personnel working.

Operations

Command Procedures M.P. 201.01 This section evaluates and manages the risk and financial requirements for the Fire Department's involvement in the incident.

Administration

Command Procedures M.P. 201.01 This section is responsible for obtaining any and all needed incident documentation for potential cost recovery efforts, or litigation, including criminal charges.

Adminstration

Command Procedures M.P. 201.01 Once the Operations Officer is in place and functioning, who's focus should be on the strategic issues, overall strategic planning and other components of the incident?

the Incident Commander

Command Procedures M.P. 201.01 In order to maintain continuity and overall effectiveness, the Incident Commander and Operations Officer should normally be where together?

the Command Post

In Transit, On deck, Company Recycle M.P. 201.01A | This is the time it takes for a company to reach their assignment area after receiving an order.

In Transit

In Transit, On Deck, Company Recycle M.P. 201.01A In Transit often varies due to: 1. ________ between staging and the incident 2. _____ of the incident perimeter 3. Amount of _______ the company needs to assemble

distance, size, equipment

In Transit, On Deck, Company Recycle M.P. 201.01A This is defined as a forward staging position located just outside the immediate hazard zone, safely distanced from the entrance of a tactical position/Sector

On Deck

In Transit, On Deck, Company Recycle M.P. 201.01A When an on deck crew is used as a relief crew, the Company Officer should do a face to face and transfer information with the officer exiting the structure. The information transferred should include:

1. interior conditions 2. routing instructions to the work area 3. interior obstructions 4. additional tools/resources required 5. sector objectives

In Transit, On Deck, Company Recycle M.P. 201.01A This is defined as a timely and efficient means of air replacement and rehydration of companies while maintaining their sector assignment

Recycling

Mayday Readiness and Response M.P. 201.01B This is defined as any situation where a firefighter is unable to safely exit the hazard zone or an event that cannot be resolved by that individual with 30 seconds.

Mayday

Mayday Readiness and Response M.P. 201.01B | ______ identification of a Mayday is critical

Early

Mayday Readiness and Response M.P. 201.01B The NFPA ______ Standard defines mayday readiness as the ability to "don, doff and manipulate the SCBA in zero visibility while wearing firefighting gloves."

1500

Mayday Readiness and Response M.P. 201.01B In order to establish effective Mayday readiness, it is necessary to recognize that Mayday readiness has two components. These components are:

Prevention and Response

Mayday Readiness and Response M.P. 201.01B | What does B.O.A. stand for?

Breath, Organize, Act

Mayday Readiness and Response M.P. 201.01B | GRAB LIVES

``` Gauge Radio Activate (pass) Breathing (control) Low Illuminate Volume Exit Shield Airway ```

Mayday Readiness and Response M.P. 201.01B | It is not acceptable to create ______ Mayday situations when resolving an existing Mayday.

further

Mayday Readiness and Response M.P. 201.01B Who has the ultimate responsibility for actively and continually providing for the prevention and response to a Mayday situation?

the Incident Command Team

Mayday Readiness and Response M.P. 201.01B | What is the tactical benchmark for the end point of a Mayday?

"Mayday resolved"

Mayday Readiness and Response M.P. 201.01B | Mayday is not just a fireground term, it can be used in any _______ _____.

hazard zone

Mayday Readiness and Response M.P. 201.01B Upon the initiation of a Mayday, the incident is upgraded using the Mayday nature code. 1. If 3-1 incident, then balanced to: 2. If 1st Alarm incident, then balanced to: Continues to 9 Alarms

1. 1st Alarm Mayday | 2. 2nd Alarm Mayday

Mayday Readiness and Response M.P. 201.01B | The only way to guarantee a successful outcome of a Mayday situation is to _______ ____!

PREVENT IT

Accountability M.P. 201.03 | The hot zone will be defined as any area that requires the use of an _____.

SCBA

Accountability M.P. 201.03 | Command will consider ____ ______ when making tactical assignments including rotation of crews.

air supply

Accountability M.P. 201.03 | Who must be in his/her assigned area to maintain close supervision of assigned crews?

Sector Officers, Division/Group Supervisors

Accountability M.P. 201.03 | Who must ensure that all crewmembers have proper helmet company ID and nametags on scba facepiece and helmet?

Company Officers

Accountability M.P. 201.03 | What is the Engineer's responsibility?

they are the Accountability Officer who tracks crews and crewmembers who take handlines from his/her apparatus.

Accountability M.P. 201.03 | A minimum crew size will be considered ___ or more members.

two

Accountability M.P. 201.03 | Accountability equipment for each piece of apparatus and shift consists of what?

a Passport with a pouch, small company ID tag, helmet ID stickers, and hose ID tag.

Accountability M.P. 201.03 | What is the size of the passports?

approximately 3 by 4 inches

Accountability M.P. 201.03 | What is the small company ID tag, kept in a pocket on the back of the passport pouch, used for?

it is used to replace the passport at the pump panel in the event that accountability is tracked closer to the building by a sector/division/gro

Accountability M.P. 201.03 | Extra individual nametags should be kept where?

on the underside of the firefighter's helmet

Accountability M.P. 201.03 Who is responsible for ensuring that the passport and MCT roster reflects only the members presently assigned to the company?

the Company Officer

Accountability M.P. 201.03 | Passports shall reflect only those crewmembers about to enter the ____ _____.

hot zone

Accountability M.P. 201.03 | The use of the accountability system will commence when?

as the first unit arrives on the scene

Accountability M.P. 201.03 | Who and where will each crew deliver their passports to?

to the engineer of the engine where they deployed handline(s).

Accountability M.P. 201.03 | The Engineer becomes the _______ _____ for those crews that took hoselines from his/her apparatus.

accountability officer

Accountability M.P. 201.03 | Ladder crews will leave their passports where?

on the apparatus dash when going to the roof to perform ventilation. When going to the interior of the structure, each ladder crew will deliver their passport to the engine closest to their point of entry.

Accountability M.P. 201.03 | Upon exit, who must retrieve their passport?

the Company Officer

Accountability M.P. 201.03 | Each back up Accountability Kit is kept in a blue nylon bag that contains the following equipment

1. three blank hoseline ID tags-to mark company ID with grease pencil 2. one passport pouch 3. one blank passport-to mark crew member ID's with grease pencil 4. one black passport with Velcro-to attach crew member nametags from underside of helmet 5. one grease pencil

Accountability M.P. 201.03 As Battalion Chiefs are assigned to manage sectors/divisions/groups, who will assume safety sector/division/group responsibilities, which includes accountability?

the FIT

Accountability M.P. 201.03 Passport accountability will be maintained throughout the entire incident. Accountability can be terminated following a report of what?

"fire under control"

Accountability M.P. 201.03 | Reports of PAR's should be conducted how within the sector/division/group or company whenever possible?

face to face

Accountability M.P. 201.03 | A PAR will be required every ___ minutes of elapsed time

Accountability M.P. 201.03 | All crews reporting to the building will deliver their passports to the building ______.

lobby

Accountability M.P. 201.03 | The hoseline ID tag will be taken by each crew to mark their hoseline in the ______ at the _____.

stairwell, standpipe

2 in/ 2 out M.P. 201.04 OSHA states that "once firefighters begin the interior attack on an interior structure fire, the atmosphere is assumed to be _____ and paragraph ___ ____ ____ (two in/ two out) applies."

IDLH, 29 CFR 1910.134 (g)(4)

2 in/ 2 out M.P. 201.04 | The 2 in/ 2 out procedure will be established when?

anytime firefighters are on air inside a structure and no other units have arrived on scene.

2 in/ 2 out M.P. 201.04 | What are the standard exceptions to the 2 in/ 2 out requirement at structure fires?

1. when there is reported or suspected life hazard where immediate action could prevent the loss of life. 2. when the fire is in an incipient stage (fire which can be controlled or extinguished by portable fire extinguishers, class II standpipe or small hose systems without the need for protective clothing or breathing apparatus).

2 in/ 2 out M.P. 201.04 The standards state that the second member of the 2 in/ 2 out team may be engaged in other activities within the hazard zone such as?

Engineers operating the pumper

Lobby Sector M.P. 201.05C This Sector is used to control access to a building or area during fires, hazardous materials incidents, rescue operations or any other situation where it is necessary to control and maintain accountability for the entry and exit of personnel.

Lobby

Lobby Sector M.P. 201.05C | Who should entry be limited to by Lobby Sector?

authorized personnel with appropriate PPE

Lobby Sector M.P. 201.05C In the case of a technical operation, hazardous material incident, trench rescue or confined space, the perimeter shall be defined by what?

HAZARD ZONE tape with an entrance/exit point identified

Lobby Sector M.P. 201.05C When beginning operations at these incidents, at least ___ firefighter(s) from the initial arriving companies should be left to establish a lobby sector.

one

Lobby Sector M.P. 201.05C | Civilian personnel entering the building area shall be accompanied by whom?

a firefighter with a portable radio

Air Operations M.P. 201.07 | How many immediate patients are Med-Evac helicopters capable of carrying?

one

Air Operations M.P. 201.07 | How many patients are DPS helicopters capable of carrying?

one

Air Operations M.P. 201.07 | Helicopter medical transportation should be considered for what types of patients?

1. Immediate trauma patients requiring urgent surgery 2. Patients requiring specialized treatment (OB, peds, burns, neurological) 3. Any other patient Medical Control deems necessary

Air Operations M.P. 201.07 | Most news station helicopters have the capability to communicate on fire channels. True or False?

True

Air Operations M.P. 201.07 During major incidents, Command may request to have the surrounding airspace restricted to avoid interference with emergency operations. The request must be made to whom?

the FAA Flight Service Station

Air Operations M.P. 201.07 Who has the ability to put two Bambi Buckets in service and are available to respond to brush fires to provide aerial water drop capability?

The Phoenix Police Air Unit

Air Operations M.P. 201.07 | Who has the ability to put one Bambi Bucket in service?

The Mesa Police Department

Air Operations M.P. 201.07 The Phoenix Fire Department currently has _____ buoy wall tanks. Mesa Fire Department has ____ buoy wall (tank). The buoy wall tanks will hold either _____ or _____ gallons of water.

4, 1, 3000, 4000

Air Operations M.P. 201.07 | How much water can the Bambi Buckets hold?

from 67 to 96 gallons

Air Operations M.P. 201.07 | Who will assist the water tender driver with the set up and filling of the buoy wall tank?

The engine company assigned to the landing zone sector

Air Operations M.P. 201.07 | Apparatus must be kept at least ____ feet to the side of the flight path of helicopters dipping tank.

150

Air Operations M.P. 201.07 | With Contract Helicopter Services, how many gallons of water can they drop on each pass?

approximately 120

Air Operations M.P. 201.07 | One or more helicopters may be requested for the operation. Average flying time per fuel load is how long?

1 1/2 to 2 hours

Air Operations M.P. 201.07 An engine company shall be assigned to control the landing zone. A supply line shall be laid from a hydrant and ____ 2 1/2 inch lines shall be extended. Line(s) are to refill belly tanks, wet down area, and to provide fire protection.

two

Air Operations M.P. 201.07 | All refilling is done from the _____ side of the aircraft.

right

Air Operations M.P. 201.07 | Crews will approach and withdraw along the same path, to the front of the aircraft within ___ degrees.

Air Operations M.P. 201.07 | Any "special use" of helicopters during rescue operations will require proper ______ _______ to be completed.

load calculations

Air Operations M.P. 201.07 | The load calculation form will be retained by whom, and submitted with the TRT rescue report?

Technical Rescue Sector Officer

Air Operations M.P. 201.07 Who has no direct communications capability with fire department ground units? Landing instructions must be given by hand signals.

National Guard helicopters

Air Operations M.P. 201.07 | What is the designation for a helicopter operating under the direction of the Phoenix Fire Department?

Firebird

Air Operations M.P. 201.07 | What is the designation of the Mesa Police Department helicopter?

Falcon

Air Operations M.P. 201.07 | What is the designation of the DPS helicopter? Who staffs it?

Ranger 41, 1 DPS officer/pilot, 1 DPS officer/paramedic, and 1 Phoenix Fire Paramedic

Air Operations M.P. 201.07 Should anything become unsafe during the approach of any helicopter during landing operations, what should the pilot be instructed to do?

GO AROUND three times

Air Operations M.P. 201.07 The landing zone must be relatively flat and free of obstructions for an area of at least ____ by ____ for each helicopter

100', 100'

Air Operations M.P. 201.07 All spectators, vehicle traffic (including emergency vehicles) and animals must be kept a minimum of ____ away from the landing zone.

200'

Air Operations M.P. 201.07 | In the center of the landing zone, a ___ by ___ "touch down" area shall be identified with appropriate visual markers.

60', 60'

Air Operations M.P. 201.07 The individual communicating with the pilot shall stand at the front ______ corner (as seen by the pilot) of the touch down area.

right

Air Operations M.P. 201.07 | For heavily loaded helicopters (i.e., water drop), the clear path should extend at least _____ yards in each direction.

100

Air Operations M.P. 201.07 | The landing zone should be located at least ____ yards from other activity areas.

100

Air Operations M.P. 201.07 While the helicopter is on the ground, whether running or not, a "tail guard" shall be stationed ___ to ___ feet from the tail rotor to keep the area secured. At no time shall personnel pass behind the body of the helicopter and the tail rotor.

50, 100

Air Operation M.P. 201.07 | Stage patients waiting to be loaded at least ____ feet away.

150

Standard Company Functions M.P. 201.01 In the absence (or delay) of Ladder company response, Command should assign ladder functions to a Heavy Rescue or an Engine company. True or False?

True

Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02 | The establishment of the Critical Fireground Factors for any incident is done through the standard process of what?

size-up

Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02 | This is defined as "an appraisal of the magnitude or dimensions of an event or incident."

size-up

Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02 The critical fireground factors are meant to be used to assist the Incident Commander with simplifying complex information into ___ distinct categories.

Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02 It is acceptable to begin operations before adequately performing size-up and considering the critical fireground factors. True or False?

False. It is unacceptable.

Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02 | Action feels good in fireground situations while it can be perceived that thinking ______ action.

delays

Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02 Efforts must continue throughout the operation to ______ the information on which those decisions are based. Command will ______ operate with complete information during initial operations

improve, seldom

Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02 During an incident, fireground factor information is gathered utilizing one or more of the following overlapping forms of size-up:

Visual, Reconnaissance, Preplanning and Familiarity

Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02 | Fireground Factors which are obvious to visual observation and those absorbed subconsciously.

Visual

Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02 Fireground information that is not visually available to Command from a position on the outside of a tactical situation and must be gained by actually sending someone to check-out, go-see, look-up, research, advise, call, go-find, etc.

Reconnaissance

Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02 Intelligence that is gained from formal pre-fire planning, general informal familiarization activities and from CAD through the MDT.

Preplanning and Familiarity

Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02 | The following are fireground factors which should be evaluated by Command as they pertain to each tactical situation:

``` Building Arrangement Resources Fire Occupancy Other Factors/Conditions Life Hazard ```

Tactical Objectives M.P. 202.02A | These objectives though separate are interrelated activities which must be dealt with concurrently. They are:

1. Rescue 2. Fire Control 3. Property Conservation

Tactical Objectives M.P. 202.02A | The activities required to protect occupants, remove those who are threatened and to treat the injured.

Rescue

Tactical Objectives M.P. 202.02A | The activities required to stop the forward progress of the fire and to bring the fire under control.

Fire Control

Tactical Objectives M.P. 202.02A | The activities required to stop or reduce primary or secondary damage to property.

Property Conservation

Tactical Objectives M.P. 202.02A | What is the announce benchmark of the Tactical Objective of Rescue/primary search?

All clear

Tactical Objectives M.P. 202.02A | What is the announce benchmark of the Tactical Objective of Fire Control?

Under control

Tactical Objectives M.P. 202.02A | What is the announce benchmark of the Tactical Objective of Property Conservation?

Loss stopped

Tactical Objectives M.P. 202.02A Within the Command framework lies an on-going responsibility that is not completed with benchmarks. This is often referred to as the _______ ___ ______.

Umbrella of Service

Tactical Objectives M.P. 202.02A | The Umbrella of Service is made up of three on-going considerations. They are

Firefighter Safety, Customer Service, Loss Control

Fireground Strategy M.P. 202.02B | Structural fireground operations will fall in one of two strategies. What are they?

Offensive or Defensive

Fireground Strategy M.P. 202.02B | The Incident Command constantly reevaluates the fireground strategy, driven by what?

size-up and risk management

Fireground Strategy M.P. 202.02B | Initial attack efforts must be directed toward supporting what?

a primary search

Fireground Strategy M.P. 202.02B | Search, rescue, and fire attack are ________ operations.

simultaneous

Fireground Strategy M.P. 202.02B | Offensive fires should be fought _______.

aggressively

Fireground Strategy M.P. 202.02B | When possible reset or darken down the fire using what type of stream? Applied where? For how long?

straight, to the ceiling of the fire compartment, 15-30 seconds

Fireground Strategy M.P. 202.02B Make every effort to enter the structure at the ____ _____ side of the flow path. You want the air to be at your _____ as you make entry

air intake, back

Fireground Strategy M.P. 202.02B Command must establish an attack plan that overpowers the fire with ______ water application, either from offensive or defensive positions.

actual

Fireground Strategy M.P. 202.02B | Command must consider the ___ sides (or sectors) of the fire. What are they?

7, front, rear, side, side, top, bottom, and interior

Fireground Strategy M.P. 202.02B | Fires cannot be considered _____ ______ until all seven sides are addressed.

under control

Fireground Strategy M.P. 202.02B | What should be made in the fire area?

ventilation openings

Fireground Strategy M.P. 202.02B | Define a Marginal situation.

Defensive conditions with a known rescue

Fireground Strategy M.P. 202.02B | The Incident Commander determines the strategy, the ______ should not.

building

Fireground Strategy M.P. 202.02B It is imperative that Command assign a Roof Sector as early as possible during ______ situations for rapid evaluation of roof conditions.

marginal

Fireground Strategy M.P. 202.02B | The elements of an effective defensive strategy always include what?

Identify what is lost Write it off Protect exposures

Fireground Strategy M.P. 202.02B | The announcement of a change to a defensive strategy will be made how?

as Emergency Traffic

Fireground Strategy M.P. 202.02B | What shall be obtained after any switch from offensive to defensive strategy?

A PAR (Personnel Accountability Report)

Fireground Strategy M.P. 202.02B | What is generally the most effective tactic to be employed in defensive operations?

Master streams

Fireground Strategy M.P. 202.02B | For tactical purposes, a standard master stream flow of at least _____ GPM should be the guideline.

750

Fireground Strategy M.P. 202.02B | When the exposure is severe, and water is limited, the most effective tactic is to do what?

put water on the exposure

Fireground Strategy M.P. 202.02B _____ _____ ______ means the forward progress of the fire has been stopped and the remaining fire can be extinguished with the on-scene resources; it does not mean the fire is completely out.

"FIRE UNDER CONTROL"

Fireground Strategy M.P. 202.02B | If defensive operations are conducted from the onset of the incident, Command will notify Alarm of what?

that there will not be a primary search completed for the affected structure(s).

Rescue M.P. 202.02C | The Incident Commander must structure initial operations around the completion of what?

the primary search

Rescue M.P. 202.02C | A secondary search means that companies thoroughly search the interior of the fire area after what?

initial fire control and ventilation activities have been completed.

Rescue M.P. 202.02C | A secondary search should preferably be completed by whom?

different companies than those involved in the primary search activities. Thoroughness, rather than time, is the critical factor in a secondary search.

Rescue M.P. 202.02C | A secondary search should preferably be completed by whom?

different companies than those involved in the primary search activities. Thoroughness, rather than time, is the critical factor in a secondary search.

Rescue M.P. 202.02C | In working fire situations, a primary search must be followed by what?

a secondary search

Rescue M.P. 202.02C | Command must initially report fully involved conditions and that an "____ _____" will not be reported.

ALL CLEAR

Rescue M.P. 202.02C Command and operating companies cannot depend upon reports from spectators to determine status of victims. True or False?

True

Rescue M.P. 202.02C In some cases, occupants are safer in their rooms than moving through contaminated hallways and interior areas. Such movement may also ______ interior firefighting.

impede

Rescue M.P. 202.02C The term "_____ & _____" should be used when structuring a primary search over the radio. What should be used only as a completion report?

Search, Rescue, "ALL CLEAR"

Fireground Safety M.P. 202.05 | _______ of operating companies can severely affect the safety/survival of such companies

Positioning

Fireground Safety M.P. 202.05 When operating in the defensive strategy, operating positions should be as far from the involved area as possible while still remaining effective. True or False?

True

Fireground Safety M.P. 202.05 | When operating in an offensive strategy, be ______ offensive.

aggressively

Fireground Safety M.P. 202.05 | When laddering a roof, the ladder selected shall be one which will extend ___' to ___' above the roof line.

2, 3

Fireground Safety M.P. 202.05 | If possible, when laddering buildings under fire conditions, place ladders where?

near building corners or fire walls as these areas are generally more stable in the event of structural failure.

Fireground Safety M.P. 202.05 This is defined as any area that requires an SCBA, charged hoseline, special protective clothing, or in which Firefighting Personnel are at risk of becoming lost, trapped, or injured by the environment or structure. Example: crews entering a structure reported to be on fire, confined space, etc.

The Hot Zone

Fireground Safety M.P. 202.05 This is defined as the area just outside the Hot Zone where the firefighters start their operations on the fireground. Example: Utility trucks, fire investigations, etc

The Warm Zone

Fireground Safety M.P. 202.05 This is defined as the area outside of the Warm Zone where no one is at risk because of the incident. Example: Rehab, Level I&II staging

The Cold Zone

Fireground Safety M.P. 202.05 | When crew members exhibit signs of physical or mental fatigue, the entire crew should be reassigned where?

to a Rehabilitation Sector if possible

Fireground Safety M.P. 202.05 | Individual crews shall not report to the Rehabilitation Sector unless assigned by their Sector Officer. True or False?

False; unless assigned by the Fireground Commander

Fireground Safety M.P. 202.05 | A 100' length of unprotected steel will expand __" when heated to 1100 degrees F.

Fireground Safety M.P. 202.05 If after __ to __ minutes of interior operations heavy fire conditions still exist, Command should initiate a careful evaluation of structural conditions, and should be fully prepared to withdraw interior crews and change to a defensive strategy.

10, 15

Fireground Safety M.P. 202.05 | The ______ ______ announcement is designed to provide immediate notification for all fireground personnel.

emergency traffic

Fireground Safety M.P. 202.05 | The use of what should be initiated only when the hazard appears to be imminent or has just occurred.

"Emergency Traffic"

Fireground Safety M.P. 202.05 | Individual search activities should be conducted by how many members when possible?

two or more

Fireground Safety M.P. 202.05 The elevator shaft must be checked to insure that heat/fire have not damaged the hoist mechanism, etc. This can be done how?

by checking the space between the door frame and the elevator car and shining a light up the shaft. If smoke or fire are visible in the shaft, DO NOT USE THE ELEVATOR.

Fireground Safety M.P. 202.05 | Before using the elevator, what should be identified?

the nearest enclosed stairway

Fireground Safety M.P. 202.05 | You must verify that the floor you are going to is _______.

uninvolved

Fireground Safety M.P. 202.05 When operating around a high-rise building where the potential hazards of falling glass and debris exist, a fireground perimeter shall be established ____' from the building and shall be observed by all Fire Personnel as a high hazard area.

200

Thermal Imaging Camera Deployment M.P. 202.05A While operating in an ______ strategy, may enhance the visibility in a visibility diminished atmosphere, thus increasing firefighter safety and survival, as well as improving the survival potential of our customers.

offensive

Thermal Imaging Camera Deployment M.P. 202.05A | The TIC can also be deployed while operating in a ______ strategy. How?

Defensive, early identification of structural compromise, fire location in the structure, e.g. attic, and identification of severely threatened exposures would provide valuable information when determining the strategy.

Thermal Imaging Camera Deployment M.P. 202.05A | What is the primary use of the TIC for the Fire Department?

conducting search/rescue and crew accountability tasks

Thermal Imaging Camera Deployment M.P. 202.05A | TIC deployment into the operation should not propagate a sense of _______.

security

SCBA M.P. 202.05B | When shall each member check the condition of their SCBA?

At the beginning of each shift, after each use, an at any other time it may be necessary to render the equipment in a ready state of condition.

SCBA M.P. 202.05B | Who shall assign a specific SCBA to each crew member?

Company Officers

SCBA M.P. 202.05B | Replacement SCBA's shall be obtained from whom?

Resource Management or from the on-duty engineer after normal working hours.

SCBA M.P. 202.05B | In routine fire situations, the decision to remove the SCBA shall be made by the member. True or False?

False; the decision will be made by the company officer(s)

SCBA M.P. 202.05B If there is any doubt about respiratory safety, SCBA use shall be maintained until the atmosphere is established to be safe by testing. Who shall be responsible for this determination?

Safety Sector personnel

SCBA M.P. 202.05B | An evaluation of all members of the Operations Division in the use of SCBA shall be conducted how often?

both quarterly and annually

Air Management M.P. 202.05C The practice of working in the hazard zone until the low air alarm sounds and then leaving is an extremely dangerous situation. True or False?

True

Air Management M.P. 202.05C Training exercises concluded that when the low air alarm is activated, the firefighter can travel less than ____ feet in good conditions until the air supply is exhausted.

150

Air Management M.P. 202.05C | Who is responsible for managing air in order to leave the hazard zone before the low air alarm activates?

the individual firefighter

Air Management M.P. 202.05C | The last ___% of the air supply in an SCBA is the emergency reserve.

Air Management M.P. 202.05C The initial ___% of air supply is the working and exiting air supply. This includes gaining access, working toward the tactical objectives and leaving the hazard zone.

Air Management M.P. 202.05C | Operating in an _______ strategy is the most dangerous position for firefighters.

offensive

Air Management M.P. 202.05C | The ability of firefighters to exit the hazard zone with a reserve of ___% air is a requirement.

Air Management M.P. 202.05C The policy of air management for the Regional Operations Consistency Committee (ROCC) is; it is unacceptable to leave the hazard zone with low air alarms activated during ______ operations.

normal

Air Management M.P. 202.05C Typically, who will monitor the work/rest cycles of operating companies within the sector while the Battalion Chief manages the completion of the tactical objectives?

the FIT/ISO

Air Management M.P. 202.05C | The policy is to _____ the hazard zone prior to the SCBA low air alarm sounding.

leave

Air Management M.P. 202.05C Firefighters are expected to know the air level of their SCBA prior to entering the hazard zone, during firefighting activities and upon leaving the hazard zone. This standard has been known as a what?

"round trip ticket"

Air Management M.P. 202.05C Data obtained from training exercises after the Southwest Supermarket fire indicates that it takes ___ rescuers to remove one firefighter in a "MAYDAY" situation. The data also demonstrated that one out of every ____ rescuers will end up having a "MAYDAY" situation and require assistance exiting the hazard zone.

12, five

Air Management M.P. 202.05C One requirement for a firefighter to be "MAYDAY" ready is that they are able to effectively don, doff and manipulate the PASS device and the emergency bypass on their SCBA valve with gloved hands. This is the standard established in NFPA _____.

1500

Air Management M.P. 202.05C The maximum distance a fire crew will enter any building is ____ feet without additional support mechanisms put in place by command.

150

Roof Sector M.P. 202.06 | Roof Sector crews must enter the roof from an established safe area and should have what in place?

a secondary means to escape the roof, or to a safe refuge on an unexposed and structurally sound roof surface.

Roof Sector M.P. 202.06 No firefighter shall operate on or under a ______ roof if there is any evidence that the fire has penetrated the attic, involves the trusses or the structure in any way.

bowstring

Roof Sector M.P. 202.06 | Buildings with metal roofs have the potential to limit roof operations in what way?

if the pitch of the roof as determined by the Ladder Company Officer assigned to ventilation is too steep to safely operate on.

Roof Sector M.P. 202.06 No firefighter shall operate on the roof of a residential structure fire covered with concrete roof tiles. True or False?

True

Roof Sector M.P. 202.06 | Extreme caution must be used when operating on ______ tile roofs.

commercial

Roof Sector M.P. 202.06 | Vent holes should not be made larger. True or False.

True

Roof Sector M.P. 202.06 | Once a standard size ventilation hole is cut and cleared, the crews must do what?

move away from that area

Rehabilitation Sector M.P. 202.08 | Who is responsible for the accountability of crews assigned to Rehab Sector?

the Rehab Sector Officer

Rehabilitation Sector M.P. 202.08 | A Rehab Team consists of what possible units?

1. Rehab Truck 2. Utility Truck 3. Rescue 4. ALS Company 5. Designated Sector Officer 6. C959, as needed 7. Health Center Officer, as needed

Rehabilitation Sector M.P. 202.08 | A Rehab truck will be dispatched on all _____ _____ and greater incidents, or when heat stress advisory is in effect.

First Alarm

Rehabilitation Sector M.P. 202.08 The Rehab Sector area boundaries will be defined and will have only one entry point. It will be divided into the following four functions:

Assessment Hydration and Replenishment Medical Treatment and Transport Documentation

Rehabilitation Sector M.P. 202.08 Rehab Sector is responsible for the continuation of Accountability and will assign a member to collect passports from crews and do what?

take a pulse rate on all crew members

Rehabilitation Sector M.P. 202.08 Any member who has a pulse rate greater than ____ will be recorded and tracked though the rehab sector. The member will be re-evaluated for pulse rate after ___ minutes.

120, 20

``` Rehabilitation Sector M.P. 202.08 To be reassigned, members must have: hr-? sys BP-? dia BP-? rr-? o2 sat-? no abnormal neuro findings, no complaints ```

below 100, 160, 100, 12-20, 92%+

Rehabilitation Sector M.P. 202.08 | Any member requiring further evaluation beyond 20 minutes will be what?

documented on an EMS patient care report. ALS evaluation and treatment per standard medical protocol.

Rehabilitation Sector M.P. 202.08 | Where EMS care is provided, an EMS PCR shall be generated and a copy placed where?

in the member's employee health record

Rehabilitation Sector M.P. 202.08 | All personnel leaving Rehab will do what from the Rehab Sector Officer?

retrieve passports

Attack Teams M.P. 202.10 An attack team is made up of companies that are assigned on the fireground in _____ to work toward a specific objective within a specific area

groups

Attack Teams M.P. 202.10 | A standard Attack Team consist of what?

two engine companies plus a ladder company

Salvage M.P. 202.12A This fireground activity is required to stop direct and indirect fire damage in addition to those required to minimize the effects of fireground operations. This includes losses from water, smoke, and firefighting efforts.

Salvage

Salvage M.P. 202.12A | Salvage operations must be aimed at aggressively controlling loss by the most expedient means. Salvage objectives are:

Stop or reduce the source of damage | Protect or remove contents

Salvage M.P. 202.12A | When removal is not practical, what should be done?

contents should be grouped in the center of rooms, raised off of the floor and covered to provide maximum practical protection.

Salvage M.P. 202.12A | Salvage efforts should begin where?

in areas most severely threatened by damage. In most cases that will be areas directly adjacent to or below the fire area.

Salvage M.P. 202.12A | What should the primary considerations be when performing salvage operations?

Replacement price and value

Salvage M.P. 202.12A | It is often difficult to separate _____ from price.

value

Overhaul M.P. 202.12B The goal of this fireground activity is to reduce the incidence of secondary fires, control loss, and stabilize the incident scene while providing for firefighter safety in doing so.

Overhaul

Overhaul M.P. 202.12B | Additional objectives of overhaul include:

Preserving evidence | Securing the fire scene

Overhaul M.P. 202.12B | Effective overhaul activities reduce the potential for what?

secondary fires

Overhaul M.P. 202.12B During rest breaks of fire crews, ensure at least ___ firefighter(s) remain in the fire area to detect any possible hidden fire and re-ignition.

two

Overhaul M.P. 202.12B | Closely coordinate overhaul with who?

Fire investigators

Overhaul M.P. 202.12B | Proper loss control operations shall be completed prior to any ____-____.

walk, through

Overhaul M.P. 202.12B | Foam application during overhaul can guarantee complete suppression of all materials. True or False?

False. Foam application cannot guarantee complete suppression of all materials.

Overhaul M.P. 202.12B | Who is responsible for insuring that the fire area has been thoroughly overhauled?

the IC

Overhaul M.P. 202.12B | Who is responsible for insuring fire extinguishment, when possible?

the company officer last leaving the scene

Overhaul M.P. 202.12B | The IC is further responsible for scheduling what?

post-incident drive-by/walk-through inspections of the fire building when needed.

Overhaul M.P. 202.12B | Who should examine all materials below salvage covers?

crews

Overhaul M.P. 202.12B | The IC may waive post incident inspections if what is in place?

fire watch

Overhaul M.P. 202.12B | If the IC believes the circumstances warrant a fire watch, who should be dispatched to the incident?

C99

Overhaul M.P. 202.12B Overhaul activities as described above will not be conducted on structures that have been declared defensive fires. True or False?

True

Overhaul M.P. 202,12B | Securing the fire scene is also a function of Overhaul. True or False?

True

PPV M.P. 202.12D | All offensive fire operations qualify for early application of PPV. True or False?

True

PPV M.P. 202.12D | Command should order PPV where appropriate and ______ in the operation.

early

PPV M.P. 202.12D | Ladder companies should expect to apply PPV and crews should dismount apparatus planning to do what?

to take fans to the fire scene

PPV M.P. 202.12D | Fans should be positioned ___-___ feet back from the entry point.

12, 15

PPV M.P. 202.12D | An "exit" for the pressurized air must be provided and must be located in the ____ area.

fire

PPV M.P. 202.12D | Positive pressure ventilation must be injected from the ______ side of the fire.

unburned

PPV M.P. 202.12D | Who is responsible for coordinating the control of air flow?

Ladder company officers or sector officers

PPV M.P. 202.12D | With multi-story/high rise fires, ______ should be used to direct air flow from PPV.

stairwells

PPV M.P. 202.12D Multi-story/high rise positive pressure ventilation is complex. What type of sector should be established to coordinate all aspects of PPV on all floors?

Ventilation

PPV M.P. 202.12D | If introducing PPV ahead of a moving fire and forcing it back into the fire area, what are you attempting to achieve?

exposure control

PPV M.P. 202.12D | An exit must be in the _____ area or the fire may be pushed into unburned portion.

burned

PPV M.P. 202.12D | It is recommended to direct a fire stream into an operating PPV exit point. True or False?

False; do not direct a fire stream into an operating PPV exit point

Water Supply and Fire Stream Management M.P. 202.12E First due companies approaching the scene with any evidence of a working fire in a structure should lay their own supply line. Exceptions to this guideline may include:

- obvious critical rescue requiring a full crew - unsure of actual fire location in multi-unit building complex - hydrant within fifty feet of the fire

Water Supply and Fire Stream Management M.P. 202.12E | A ______ supply line should be considered on any working incident.

second

Water Supply and Fire Stream Management M.P. 202.12E Always lay the line along the side of the roadway that the hydrant is on and cross over at the fire if necessary. True or False?

True

Water Supply and Fire Stream Management M.P. 202.12E | Slow down when laying lines, faster speeds result in excess hose on the roadway. True or False?

True

Water Supply and Fire Stream Management M.P. 202.12E | After initial arriving companies have established an adequate water supply, what should newer arriving companies do?

stage on those hydrants providing the ability to pump the hydrant

Water Supply and Fire Stream Management M.P. 202.12E | A non-pumped 500 foot 4" supply line can flow ___ gpm.

800

Water Supply and Fire Stream Management M.P. 202.12E | Contact with who should always be a consideration to provide total master stream gpm requirements?

the Water Department

Water Supply and Fire Stream Management M.P. 202.12E Most ladders in the metropolitan area are platforms and have ___ gun(s) with the ability to flow _____ gpm when provided an adequate water supply.

2, 2000

Water Supply and Fire Stream Management M.P. 202.12E | Failure to provide two lines will limit the ladder to about _____ gpm depending upon the length of the single line.

1200

Water Supply and Fire Stream Management M.P. 202.12E 5" hose has __/__ of the friction loss of 4" hose and will therefore provide a greater volume of water to the forward position.

1/3

Water Supply and Fire Stream Management M.P. 202.12E | 5" hose can typically supply _____ gpm 1000 feet away without being pumped.

1000

Water Supply and Fire Stream Management M.P. 202.12E A single 5" hose can deliver ____ - ____ gpm when pumped by a key pumper making it unnecessary to lay two 5" supply lines.

1800, 1900

Water Supply and Fire Stream Management M.P. 202.12E | With basic attack hose line placement, the first stream should be placed where?

between the fire and persons endangered by it

Water Supply and Fire Stream Management M.P. 202.12E | With basic attack hose line placement, when no life is endangered, the first stream should be placed where?

between the fire and the most severe exposure or unburned areas

Water Supply and Fire Stream Management M.P. 202.12E | With basic attack hose line placement, a second hose line should be deployed to protect what?

a secondary means of egress

Water Supply and Fire Stream Management M.P. 202.12E Fire Stream Characteristics and Considerations Solid Stream: Peripheral:

Solid Stream: Greater penetration, reach and striking power, less steam conversion Peripheral: Increased heat absorption/expansion, shorter reach, most effective in confined spaces and protecting exposures

Water Supply and Fire Stream Management M.P. 202.12E Fire Stream Characteristics and Considerations 1 3/4": 2 1/2": Elevated Master Stream: Engine Mounted Master Stream:

1 3/4: fast, mobile, greater volume, 175gpm 2 1/2": slow, difficult to move, 250gpm Elevated Master Stream: mostly stationary, slow to set up, 500 to 1000gpm Engine Mounted Master Stream: fast, large volume, great reach and penetration, 500 to 1000gpm

Water Supply and Fire Stream Management M.P. 202.12E | Beware of hose lines that have been operating in the same place for long periods. True or False?

True

Water Supply and Fire Stream Management M.P. 202.12E When utilizing crews with hand lines to enter basement fires, crews should not open nozzles until they can see and/or are near the fire-crews should not use fog streams when operating in basement fires. Steam production will be extensive, straight streams should be used. True or False?

True

Water Supply and Fire Stream Management M.P. 202.12E | Do not delay forcible entry until attack lines are in place. True or False?

False; have attack lines ready during forcible entry operations.

Water Supply and Fire Stream Management M.P. 202.12E | Exterior master streams should not be used with what in the same structure?

interior operations

Water Supply and Fire Stream Management M.P. 202.12E | When there is a change in strategy from Offensive to Defensive, what size handlines should be used?

large volume hand lines such as 2 1/2 inch and 2 inch lines may be used to protect exposures

Water Supply and Fire Stream Management M.P. 202.12E Pump operators should close the discharges to (small diameter) lines to prevent well-meaning firefighters from trying to use handlines where they are ineffective and place the firefighters inside the collapse zone. True or False?

True

Water Supply and Fire Stream Management M.P. 202.12E | Engine mounted Master Streams offer very large gpm flows ( _____ to _____ gpm)

500, 1000

Water Supply and Fire Stream Management M.P. 202.12E | Engine mounted Master Streams should never be operated when?

on a structure where firefighters are operating interior

Brush/Wildland Fire M.P. 202.15 | What is the primary objective for brush/wildland fire incidents?

firefighter safety

Brush/Wildland Fire M.P. 202.15 | This is Aerial reconnaissance aircraft which can provide information from above the fire by an observer.

air attack

Brush/Wildland Fire M.P. 202.15 This is a fixed wing aircraft certified by the FAA as being capable of transport and delivery of fire retardant solutions.

air tanker

Brush/Wildland Fire M.P. 202.15 | What conditions dictate a Red Flag Warning as issued by the National Weather Service as Very High or Extreme?

- sustained winds greater than or equal to 20mph - relative humidity less than or equal to 20% - scattered thunderstorms - increased thunderstorm activity after prolonged dry period - abrupt change in wind speed and direction that may affect the area

Brush/Wildland Fire M.P. 202.15 | A Single Engine Air Tanker (SEAT) can deliver fire retardant solutions of about ____ gallons.

800

Brush/Wildland Fire M.P. 202.15 | Type 1 engine-a typical structure engine. Crew of __ personnel, minimum of ____ gallon tank, and ____ gpm pump.

4, 400, 1000

Brush/Wildland Fire M.P. 202.15 Type 3 engine-typically a short wheelbase engine capable of both structure and wildland fire operations. Commonly 4-wheel drive. Minimum of ___ personnel, ____ gallon tank, ____ gpm pump.

3, 500, 250

Brush/Wildland Fire M.P. 202.15 Type 6 engine-typical Phoenix regional "brush truck". Minimum crew of __, approximately ___ gallon tank, ___ gpm pump with higher pump pressure capacity than an engine and pump-and-roll capability. Typically 4-wheel drive for off-road fire suppression.

2, 200, 50

Brush/Wildland Fire M.P. 202.15 This is a water transport and delivery fire apparatus. Capable of carrying ____ to ____ gallons of water. Pumps may range from ___ to ____ gpm.

1000, 5000, 50, 1500

Brush/Wildland Fire M.P. 202.15 | On any working First Alarm Brush assignment, who will be contacted?

the Arizona Forestry Division to inform them of the location/jurisdiction of the incident, the ID and location of the incident commander, and the fire spread potential.

Brush/Wildland Fire M.P. 202.15 The following resources will be dispatched for a brush/wildland incident- Still Brush:

Engine | Brush truck

Brush/Wildland Fire M.P. 202.15 The following resources will be dispatched for a brush/wildland incident- Brush Assignment:

2 Engines 2 Brush Trucks 1 Water Tender 1 Command Officer

Brush/Wildland Fire M.P. 202.15 The following resources will be dispatched for a brush/wildland incident- First Alarm Brush:

``` 5 Engines 4 Brush Trucks 2 Water Tenders 3 Command Officers 1 Shift Commander 1 Command Van 1 Safety Officer Rehab Unit Canteen Unit ```

Brush/Wildland Fire M.P. 202.15 The following resources will be dispatched for a brush/wildland incident- Greater Alarm Brush:

``` 5 Engines 4 Brush Trucks 2 Water Tenders Staff and Command Officer response Port-A-Potties Refueling Truck Mechanics Radio Technician Multiple Spare Radios Weather Reports ```

Brush/Wildland Fire M.P. 202.15 | These factors have a critical effect on the fire behavior of a wildland fire:

Weather Topography Fuel

Brush/Wildland Fire M.P. 202.15 | During a normal day, local winds will do what?

Change 180 degrees near midday and usually become gusty during the afternoon

Brush/Wildland Fire M.P. 202.15 | Morning winds are normally ____ to ____.

East, West

Brush/Wildland Fire M.P. 202.15 | What is often the most serious problem with topography?

access

Brush/Wildland Fire M.P. 202.15 | Aerial operations should not be located near what?

safety zones

Brush/Wildland Fire M.P. 202.15 | In regard to wildland operations, ffensive strategy employs this type of attack.

direct

Brush/Wildland Fire M.P. 202.15 | In regard to wildland operations, defensive strategy employs this type of attack.

indirect

Brush/Wildland Fire M.P. 202.15 | When immediate control is not possible, what is the primary goal?

protection of exposures

Brush/Wildland Fire M.P. 202.15 | Personnel should "anchor and flank" a fire by first doing what?

establishing a safe location, or anchor point, to start the attack without being outflanked by the fire. Examples of anchor points would be a road or green farm field.

Brush/Wildland Fire M.P. 202.15 | This is the fastest control evolution available to counteract wildfire spread.

a direct attack

Brush/Wildland Fire M.P. 202.15 This is used where fire personnel work some distance away from the fire's edge. This may be in support of wildland fire crew burnout operations, structure protection, or other tactic.

an indirect attack

Brush/Wildland Fire M.P. 202.15 | What does a "bump bag" consist of?

1 1/2" "trunk" line with a gated wye and one or two 1" forestry hose lines with nozzle(s)

Brush/Wildland Fire M.P. 202.15 | The objective of this activity is to put out all fire embers or sparks to prevent them from crossing the fire line.

mop up

Brush/Wildland Fire M.P. 202.15 | Mop up is composed of two actions. What are they?

putting the fire out, and disposing of fuel either by burning to eliminate it, or removing the fuel so it cannot burn.

Brush/Wildland Fire M.P. 202.15 | What are some indications of hot spots?

gnats swarming, white ash, ground which shows pin holes, and wood boring insects

Brush/Wildland Fire M.P. 202.15 During rehab of mop up crews, ensure at least __ firefighter(s) remain in the area to monitor for re-ignition or spread of fire.

Car Fires M.P. 202.16 | What is the minimum size of hoseline for a car fire?

1 1/2"

Car Fires M.P. 202.16 | At least one member of the attack team must have what?

forcible entry tools

Car Fires M.P. 202.16 If vapors escaping from the storage tank relief valve have ignited, allow the LPG/LNG to burn while protecting exposures and cooling the tank. True or False?

True

Car Fires M.P. 202.16 | Bumper assemblies have been known to travel ___ feet.

Car Fires M.P. 202.16 | Batteries can pose an explosion hazard due to the presence of what?

hydrogen vapors

Car Fires M.P. 202.16 | When disconnecting battery cables, which do you disconnect first?

ground cable first

Car Fires M.P. 202.16 | Well sealed interiors of modern vehicles present the potential for what?

backdraft

Aircraft Emergencies M.P. 202.17 | There are two types of aircraft crashes. What are they?

high impact | low impact

``` Aircraft Emergencies M.P. 202.17 If emergency evacuation is in progress, assist evacuation of passengers and/or provide them a path of egress, by discharging class __ foam only, from apparatus. ```

``` Aircraft Emergencies M.P. 202.17 If class B foam is not available, use what? ```

large volumes of water

Aircraft Emergencies M.P. 202.17 | Protect the aircraft fuselage from direct flame impingement since fire can burn through fuselage within ___ seconds.

Aircraft Emergencies M.P. 202.17 Use master stream appliances (stang guns) utilizing ____ patterns, provide quick water in large volumes to protect passengers during evacuation.

fog

Aircraft Emergencies M.P. 202.17 Deploy an attack line to the aircraft's interior, without inhibiting passenger egress. Fire intensity will require the use of what size handlines, utilizing fog patterns?

1 3/4", 2"

Aircraft Emergencies M.P. 202.17 | Fatalities in survivable aircraft crashes are usually due to what?

smoke inhalation

Aircraft Emergencies M.P. 202.17 | Consider establishing a _____ level command system to address Fire and Medical Operations.

Branch

Aircraft Emergencies M.P. 202.17 | The optimum place to cut is where?

around windows and roof area

Aircraft Emergencies M.P. 202.17 Be aware that aircraft have numerous high pressure hydraulic lines that operate at _____ psi, these can cause serious injury if cut or broken under pressure.

3000

Aircraft Emergencies M.P. 202.17 | Request the Alarm Room to notify whom? How do you do that?

the National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB). Notification can be made by contacting the FAA Air Traffic Control Tower at Sky Harbor Airport or by calling Sky Harbor Communications at 273-3311.

Aircraft Emergencies M.P. 202.17 | Off airport ARFF response from Sky Harbor has a __ mile radius.

Aircraft Emergencies M.P. 202.17 | The airport must maintain an index of ___ foam trucks at all times.

Aircraft Emergencies M.P. 202.17 | Who should report to the Command Post with District 19 Chief?

an airline representative, liaison from the Aviation Department, and any other agency that can assist with the incident.

EMS Responsibilities M.P. 203.01 It is the responsibility of the first-arriving company officer to implement these procedures on EMS incidents requiring the commitment of a _______ or greater.

two-and-one medical (2-1-M)

EMS Responsibilities M.P. 203.01 | This is defined as any incident with fewer than 25 patients.

"multi-patient incident"

EMS Responsibilities M.P. 203.01 | This is defined as any incident with 25 to 100 patients

"mass casualty incident"

EMS Responsibilities M.P. 203.01 | This is defined as any incident involving more than 100 patients.

"disaster"

EMS Responsibilities M.P. 203.01 | The EMS Tactical objectives to be completed during any multi-patient/mass casualty incident include:

1. Completion of a "Triage Report" | 2. Declaration of "All immediates transported"

EMS Responsibilities M.P. 203.01 | When possible, patients should be treated and transported in the following priority order:

1. Immediate 2. Delayed patients upgraded to Immediate 3. Delayed 4. Minor

EMS Responsibilities M.P. 203.01 | Triage tags should be used any time there are __ or more IMMEDIATE patients or more than __ (total) patients.

3, 10

EMS Responsibilities M.P. 203.01 | The first arriving company will go to the scene, as well as who else?

the first paramedic unit, first ladder, first chief officer, and first rescue. All other companies will use Level I staging upon their arrival.

EMS Responsibilities M.P. 203.01 | All First-Alarm-Medical Incidents (or greater) require what?

Level II Staging Area for all fire department resources, including rescue companies.

EMS Responsibilities M.P. 203.01 | Most multiple-patient incidents require what sectors?

Triage, Extrication, Treatment, Transportation. Because of potential vehicle congestion at the site, a Staging sector for apparatus is also a major consideration during larger incidents.

EMS Responsibilities M.P. 203.01 | MINOR patients who were directed earlier in the incident by triage teams to an Assembly Area will be assessed by whom?

Extrication, and delivered to the treatment area if further medical care is warranted.

EMS Responsibilities M.P. 203.01 Who is responsible to determine hospital availability through the Dispatch Center, coordinate patient allocation with Treatment and supervise the movement of patients from the treatment area to the ambulance loading area or helicopter landing zone?

Transportation Sector

EMS Responsibilities M.P. 203.01 | Command should assign _____ sector as soon as the basic sectors have been established.

Safety

EMS Responsibilities M.P. 203.01 This Sector is responsible for the procurement, delivery, and stockpiling of medical supplies needed at the scene. This sector should be established on 3rd Alarm Medical or greater incidents.

Medical Supply Sector

EMS Responsibilities M.P. 203.01 | These units will automatically be dispatched on 3rd Alarm Medical or greater incidents

Medical Support 19 (from the airport) and a Medical Supply Truck (from Resource Management)

EMS Responsibilities M.P. 203.01 | This Branch Director is responsible to ensure that the functions of triage, extrication, and treatment are carried out.

Medical Branch

EMS Responsibilities M.P. 203.01 | In a disaster level incident, some fire department resources may need to be allocated where?

to receiving hospitals until those facilities can obtain adequate hospital staff.

Triage Sector M.P. 203.02 The purpose of this sector is to categorize patients based on the severity of their injuries, prioritize their need for treatment and transportation and stabilize life-threatening injuries before additional resources arrive on-scene.

Triage

Triage Sector M.P. 203.02 | _______ and Triage should be assigned separately.

extrication

Triage Sector M.P. 203.02 Regardless of where triage is performed, the triage process requires close coordination between the ______ and treatment sector officers.

extrication

Triage Sector M.P. 203.02 | Triage tagging should be completed in accordance with procedures established in Volume ___ ("Triage Tagging").

Triage Sector M.P. 203.02 | Triage should be completed using the " ______ ______ ______". These red fanny packs are located on all fire apparatus.

Arizona Triage System

Extrication Sector M.P. 203.02 This sector is used in multiple patient incidents that require physical disentanglement and/or the removal of trapped victims.

Extrication

Extrication Sector M.P. 203.02 | This sector is responsible for removing and delivering patients to a treatment area.

Extrication

Extrication Sector M.P. 203.02 | Extrication will assist triage with any patient treatment that is necessary prior to disentanglement. True or False?

True

Extrication Sector M.P. 203.02 | Sector Responsibilities include extricate and _____ patients to the treatment area(s) or to a casualty collection point.

deliver

Extrication Sector M.P. 203.02 | A reasonable guideline is an initial commitment of one company per ___ victim(s).

Extrication Sector M.P. 203.02 Most ALS personnel should be assigned to the Treatment Sector. However, some paramedics may also need to be assigned to the Extrication Sector to provide ALS treatment for critical patients undergoing _______ extrication efforts.

extended

Extrication Sector M.P. 203.02 | When victims require forcible extrication, _______ companies should be assigned.

ladder

Extrication Sector M.P. 203.02 If the extrication requires specialized equipment (i.e., wreckers, cranes, cutting torches), these must be requested through ______.

command

Treatment Sector M.P. 203.04 | This sector is utilized to provide a site to manage the treatment of multiple IMMEDIATE and DELAYED patients.

Treatment

Treatment Sector M.P. 203.04 | The objective of the treatment sector is to rapidly treat and transport all patients. True or False?

True

Treatment Sector M.P. 203.04 | The goal will be to assign what resources to each patient, resources permitting?

one ALS or BLS company and one Rescue

Treatment Sector M.P. 203.04 | One salvage cover provides ample working room for up to ___ patient(s).

Treatment Sector M.P. 203.04 | Of all the sectors, the Treatment sector typically requires the heaviest commitment of personnel. True or False?

True

Treatment Sector M.P. 203.04 | During major incidents, one company per __ patient(s) should be the initial objective.

Treatment Sector M.P. 203.04 | First arriving patients should be placed where?

near the exit point. Rescuers should first fill from exit towards the entrance as patients are delivered to treatment. This will eliminate personnel from having to step over or move around patients as they are delivered or transported.

Treatment Sector M.P. 203.04 | Non-fire department medical personnel should be closely supervised by whom?

the Treatment Sector Officer or others. Command Staff, Branch Directors, and Sector Officers will have full supervisory authority over this staff.

Treatment Sector M.P. 203.04 | The Treatment Sector must cause aggressive treatment and packaging of patients with an emphasis on what?

rapid transport

Treatment Sector M.P. 203.04 | When is the only time extended treatment should be considered?

when immediate transportation is not available

Treatment Sector M.P. 203.04 | Rapid transport is of the essence. True or False?

True

Transportation Sector M.P. 203.04 | Transportation Sector Responsibilities include determining hospital availability status. True or False?

True

Transportation Sector M.P. 203.04 | How does Transportation Sector determine hospital availability status?

by contacting Dispatch of Med-9

Transportation Sector M.P. 203.04 | Rescues should be staged off site and brought in to the loading area as needed, no more than ___ at a time.

two

Transportation Sector M.P. 203.04 | These rescues should have a separate entry and exit point into the loading area. Why?

to eliminate the need to back ambulances

Transportation Sector M.P. 203.04 In general, it is preferred to "____ ____" MINOR patients to distant hospitals to minimize transport times for DELAYED patients to closer facilities.

leap frog

Transportation Sector M.P. 203.04 Personnel assigned to transportation will remove patients from the treatment area and deliver them to the selected rescues or other transport units. True or False?

True

Trench Rescue Operations M.P. 204.09 | It shall be the policy of the Phoenix Fire Department that NO personnel shall be allowed into what?

an unsafe trench or excavation

Trench Rescue Operations M.P. 204.09 What guideline regulates excavations for general industry and rescue service and shall be considered the basis for emergency trench rescue operations?

OSHA Regulations Standard 29 CFR 1926 Subpart P

Trench Rescue Operations M.P. 204.09 For the purpose of emergency response, an excavation shall be defined by any depression, hole, trench, or earth wall, man made or natural, of ___ feet or greater.

Trench Rescue Operations M.P. 204.09 First arriving company officer shall assume command and begin an immediate size-up of the situation while ensuring that apparatus remains at least ___ feet from the location of the trench failure.

Trench Rescue Operations M.P. 204.09 | Command shall announce that Level 1 staging should take place at least ____ feet from the trench failure.

150

Trench Rescue Operations M.P. 204.09 | Establish a hazard zone perimeter ___ feet from the collapse area.

Trench Rescue Operations M.P. 204.09 | Remove all non-essential civilian personnel at least ____ feet away from the collapse area.

150

Trench Rescue Operations M.P. 204.09 Re-route all non-essential traffic at least ____ feet from the collapse area. Shut down all heavy equipment operating within ___ feet of the collapse area.

300, 300

Trench Rescue Operations M.P. 204.09 | Approach the trench from where, if possible?

the ends

Trench Rescue Operations M.P. 204.09 | There should be at least 2 ladders placed into the trench no more than ___ feet apart.

Water Rescue Operations M.P. 204.09 | Remove all non-essential civilian personnel at least ____ feet away from the hazard zone.

150

Water Rescue Operations M.P. 204.09 All personnel operating at or near the water shall be in proper personal protective equipment which will include at a minimum:

PFD, approved water rescue helmet, and approved footwear

Water Rescue Operations M.P. 204.09 | The order of rescue from low-risk to high-risk are:

``` Talk Reach Throw Row Go Helo ```

Water Rescue Operations M.P. 204.09 | Rescue personnel shall never be attached to a life line without the benefit of what?

a quick-release mechanism approved for water rescue

Water Rescue Operations M.P. 204.09 | A Command Team shall be assembled to include, at a minimum, who?

A Chief Officer and a Technical Advisor

Water Rescue Operations M.P. 204.09 Consider the effects of inclement weather and water conditions on the hazard profile, the victim(s), and the rescuers, with particular attention to the effects of ______.

hypothermia

Structural Collapse Rescue Operations M.P. 204.12 | Assess the immediate and potential hazards to the rescuers. Hazards associated with structural collapse include:

``` Secondary collapse Explosion and fire Broken gas and water lines Energized electrical lines Falling debris ```

Structural Collapse Rescue Operations M.P. 204.12 The Phoenix Fire Department is the sponsoring agency of AZ-TF1, which is one of ___ FEMA Urban Search & Rescue task forces in the nation.

Structural Collapse Rescue Operations M.P. 204.12 | Remove all non-essential civilian personnel at least ___ feet away from the hazard zone perimeter.

150

Structural Collapse Rescue Operations M.P. 204.12 | Rescue Sector should establish a Building Triage team which shall consist of:

a Technical Rescue Technician trained and knowledgeable in structural collapse shoring techniques, a structural engineer, and a Hazardous Materials Technician

Structural Collapse Rescue Operations M.P. 204.12 Establish a transportation corridor. Command shall ensure roadways are clear in and out of the collapse site so that apparatus and other heavy equipment and machinery have access to the site. Consider establishing a liaison with who to accomplish this function?

the Police Department

Structural Collapse Rescue Operations M.P. 204.12 | Search teams shall not enter buildings which have been determined to be structurally unsafe until what?

appropriate shoring and stabilization measures have been taken.

Structural Collapse Rescue Operations M.P. 204.12 | Consider calling for additional resources and establishing what?

a Resource Sector

Structural Collapse Rescue Operations M.P. 204.12 Building Triage team, Search team, Rescue team, and any other such functional team operating in the collapse area shall be under the direction of who?

Rescue Sector

Tree Rescue Operations M.P. 204.13 | Establish a hazard zone perimeter ___ feet around the tree.

Tree Rescue Operations M.P. 204.13 | Remove all non-essential civilian personnel at least ___ feet away from the tree.

150

Tree Rescue Operations M.P. 204.13 | The order of rescue from low-risk to high-risk are:

Self-rescue Aerial Platform Ladder Truck Ground Ladders Climb the Tree

Tree Rescue Operations M.P. 204.13 | A Command Team shall be assembled to include, at a minimum, who?

Chief Officer and a Technical Advisor

Communications M.P. 205.01 Deployment will dispatch the appropriate assignment and upgrade the response as necessary based on information received up to what?

a Working First Alarm until command is established upon the arrival of the first unit.

Communications M.P. 205.01 PFDRDC has enhanced mutual aid with Rural/Metro Fire Department within __ mile(s) of the borders of Scottsdale and Phoenix in the Northeast portion of the valley.

Communications M.P. 205.01 PFDRDC has enhanced mutual aid for requests by Gila River Indian Community Fire Department for incidents that occur on I10 from Phoenix city limits to mile post ___; within ___ mile(s) from the border of the Gila River Indian Community and the cities of Chandler and Phoenix in Maricopa County; within ___ mile(s) of the border of the Gila River Indian Community, the City of Chandler, and the Sun Lakes Fire Districts in Pinal County.

169, 2.5, 1

Communications M.P. 205.01 PFDRDC has one way Automatic Aid onto Luke Air Force Base. CAD has been programmed to select LAFB units for any calls that fall within ___ mile(s) radius of the base. CAD will also select the next available unit to respond.

Communications M.P. 205.01 | The identification, prevention, and reduction of unnecessary responses are basic parts of the ______ function.

deployment

Communications M.P. 205.01 | The primary responsibility of the Calltaker is to determine what?

the location, telephone callback, and nature of the emergency and to verify entry of the incident into the CAD system.

Communications M.P. 205.01 | A unit can fulfill ____ primary requirement. A unit can fulfill how many secondary requirements?

1, more than one

Communications M.P. 205.01 | The requirements for ALS response are based on what?

Emergency Medical Dispatch protocol (EMD)

Communications M.P. 205.01 On this type of response, the Company Officer will make a C2 or C3 response decision and press the appropriate response on the MCT.

BLS

Communications M.P. 205.01 For this type of response, the patient must meet the following criteria; no loss of consciousness, peripheral injuries only, head/face; arm: below elbow; leg: below knee, no trunk injuries, no impaled objects, no amputations, no severe bleeding.

Minor Medical Calls

Communications M.P. 205.01 For this type of response, the incident has been determined unsafe to respond directly to the scene. Units assigned to the incident shall stage until the Police Department secures the scene.

Violent Medical Calls

Communications M.P. 205.01 The Fire Department ______ from Station 19 will identify the appropriate ARFF assignment to be dispatched on any aircraft emergency at Sky Harbor Airport. The default assignment to Sky Harbor Airport is what?

Captain, ARF2-1

Communications M.P. 205.01 What type of assignment will be dispatched for structure firs that do not indicate the need for a First Alarm assignment?

a 3-1

Communications M.P. 205.01 A _____ assignment will be dispatched on calls that involve hazardous materials of a minor nature. A ______ assignment should be dispatched on most situations involving leaks or spills of hazardous materials. This includes situations that appear to be manageable and do not create a major risk to the public by virtue of location, amount or type of hazard. A ______ assignment should be dispatched for incidents that indicate a major potential danger by virtue of materials involved, quantities, location, fire or explosion danger and/or number of people exposed.

HAZ, HAZ2-1, HAZ1A

Communications M.P. 205.01 | What is a request for the dispatch of the additional units necessary to upgrade the response type called?

a balance of assignment

Communications M.P. 205.01 When formulating a recommendation for a _____ _____, no consideration is given to the units already assigned to the incident.

Greater Alarm

Communications M.P. 205.01 | A 3-1 assignment that needs the resources of a Greater Alarm must first be balanced to what?

a Working Fire Alarm

Communications M.P. 205.01 Units changing their status to UNAVAILABLE should report to Deployment by radio on Tactical Channel ___ or telephone the reason and the length of time they will be unavailable.

Communications M.P. 205.01 Move-Up Policy Who is responsible for relocating units as necessary to maintain the best available resource coverage for the entire dispatch jurisdictional coverage area?

the on-duty Deployment Supervisor/Battalion Chief

Communications M.P. 205.01 | The need for move-up companies will be evaluated whenever:

- a working fire is declared - three or more units are committed to an incident in an outlying area - Greater Alarms are dispatched - simultaneous working incidents occur in one area of the city - coverage in an area is compromised - two or more adjacent first due areas will be uncovered for more than 30 minutes.

Communications M.P. 205.01 | Move-ups will respond how?

C2 unless advised to respond C3 due to a critical gap in coverage

Communications M.P. 205.01 If overall coverage in the City of Phoenix falls below ___ engines and ___ ladders, Deployment will immediately notify who?

12, 3, South Shift Commander

Communications M.P. 205.01 The ____ handles all communications between units assigned to an incident and Deployment on the assigned Tactical Channel.

TRO

Communications M.P. 205.01 If Deployment does not receive an acknowledgment within ___ minute(s), the TRO will request acknowledgment by radio on all channels and via MCT.

Communications M.P. 205.01 Deployment will send a cover assignment if no reply is received within a ___ minute(s) timeframe. If unable to contact the original unit, the company will be placed unavailable and the appropriate Battalion Chief notified of the circumstances

Communications M.P. 205.01 | Units responding to calls on the freeways will proceed C__.

Communications M.P. 205.01 If a unit is responding longer than ___ minutes on an AOI call, CAD will automatically place the unit in the UOI status, and they will no longer be considered for preemption.

Communications M.P. 205.01 Once a unit places themselves on-scene of an incident, they are no longer considered available for dispatches until they return to an available status. True or False?

True

Communications M.P. 205.01 If the company officer determines they do not want to be AOI while responding C2 to an incident, they may use the MCT command ____. This command will show the unit responding C2 however the unit will not be available for preemption.

UOI

Communications M.P. 205.01 | The term _____ _____ indicates a situation that will require the commitment of all responding companies.

Working Fire

Communications M.P. 205.01 | Any fire at a school facility requires that who should be contacted?

the State Fire Marshall

Communications M.P. 205.01 | Typically, Staging will be assigned to Channel ___.

Communications M.P. 205.01 | For Working Fire and Working Haz Mat incidents, this change will prompt what?

ELAPSED TIME NOTIFICATIONS

Communications M.P. 205.01 | The system will generate an elapsed time notification every ___ minute(s) until the incident is placed Under Control.

Communications M.P. 205.01 What is meant by the following Incident Milestones?: -906 -CO Below 50ppm

Fire unit(s) need immediate police department assistance, level of carbon monoxide is below 50 parts per million, units may operate without SCBA protection

Communications M.P. 205.01 | Without exception, the air belongs to any unit with what?

Emergency Traffic

Communications M.P. 205.01 The following code messages (from police radio code) may be used in sensitive situations, when a plain language message could cause a problem at the scene: -261 -906

rape, need police assistance IMMEDIATELY

Communications M.P. 205.01 | ______ should tell what to do-not how to do it.

Orders

Medical Incident Communications M.P. 205.03 | Ask Command if buses are needed. Dispatch _____ ______ buses to the Level 2 staging area.

Phoenix Transit

Emergency Deployment M.P. 205.05 | This is intended to significantly increase the number of available emergency response resources

Emergency Deployment

Emergency Deployment M.P. 205.05 Activation of a Type 1 Emergency Deployment will automatically modify response requirements for all non-EMS incidents through the following deployment directives: -All 3-1 response assignments will be modified to what? -All First Alarm response assignments will be modified to what? -All TRT2 response assignments will be modified to what? -All HAZ2 response assignments will be modified to what? -All TRT1 and HAZ1 response assignments will be modified to what?

``` 2-1-1 3-1-1 TRT1 HAZ1 TRT0, HAZ0 ```

Emergency Deployment M.P. 205.05 | Activation of a Type 2 Emergency Deployment will require the on-duty Operations Deputy Chief to do what?

call off-duty personnel in to staff brush trucks or other adjunct response apparatus.

Emergency Deployment M.P. 205.05 | Type 2 Emergency Deployment can be activated to address any specific operational issue including:

pandemic response and in instances where a specific call type is back logging the system due to a high volume of calls or inadequate number of response equipment available in the system.

Emergency Deployment M.P. 205.05 | Type 3 Emergency Deployment will require the on-duty Operations Deputy Chief or designee to do what?

call off-duty personnel in to staff reserve apparatus.

Emergency Deployment M.P. 205.05 System wide available resource guidelines: Any one large scale incident may use ___% of Automatic Aid resources.

Emergency Deployment M.P. 205.05 System wide available resource guidelines: If any two large scale incidents are working simultaneously, each incident may use ___% of Automatic Aid resources.

Emergency Deployment M.P. 205.05 System wide available resource guidelines: If any three large scale incidents are working simultaneously, each incident may use ___% of Automatic Aid resources.

Staging Levels I and II M.P. 205.06 | Level I Staging is automatically in effect for all incidents with ___ or more companies responding.

Staging Levels I and II M.P. 205.06 | At no time shall units _____-_____.

self, assign

Staging Levels I and II M.P. 205.06 | All Utility trucks shall go directly to the scene. True or False?

False; all Utility trucks will assume Level I staging

Staging Levels I and II M.P. 205.06 | If Level II staging has been implemented, Utility trucks will go to Level II staging location. True or False?

True

Staging Levels I and II M.P. 205.06 This is utilized when Command desires to maintain a reserve of resources on-scene, and when the need to centralize resources is required.

Level II Staging

Staging Levels I and II M.P. 205.06 | Level II Staging places all reserve resources in a central location and automatically requires what?

the implementation of a Staging Sector Officer

Staging Levels I and II M.P. 205.06 Companies which are already staged (level I) or en-route to Level I Staging, will stay in Level I unless otherwise directed by Command. True or False?

True

Staging Levels I and II M.P. 205.06 In the absence of such an assignment, who will automatically become the Staging Officer and will notify Command on arrival?

the first fire department officer to arrive at the Staging Area

Staging Levels I and II M.P. 205.06 | Due to the limited number of ladder companies, a ladder officer will transfer responsibility for Staging to who?

the first arriving engine company officer

Staging Levels I and II M.P. 205.06 All responding companies will stay off the air, respond directly to the designated Staging Area, and the Company Officer will report in person to the Staging Officer. The crew will do what?

standby their unit with crew intact and warning lights turned off

Staging Levels I and II M.P. 205.06 | Once Level II staging is implemented, all communications involving staging will be between Staging and who?

Command or Logistics

Staging Levels I and II M.P. 205.06 Unless arriving staff officers have predetermined responsibilities, these officer should assume a Level __ staging posture and announce their arrival on the tactical channel.

Staging Sector M.P. 205.06A The Staging Sector Officer should assume a position that is visible and accessible to incoming and staged companies. This will be accomplished how?

by leaving the red lights operating on the staging officer's apparatus and by wearing a sector vest.

Staging Sector M.P. 205.06A During major incidents where a Logistics Section is implemented, the Staging Sector will be working under the direction of whom?

the Logistics Officer

Apparatus Placement M.P. 205.07 | Apparatus ______ should regulate placement.

function

Apparatus Placement M.P. 205.07 | Avoid "______ to ______" placement on the fireground.

belly, butt

Apparatus Placement M.P. 205.07 | The officer must regard apparatus on the fireground in two categories:

Apparatus that is working | Apparatus that is parked

Apparatus Placement M.P. 205.07 | Apparatus should generally be positioned at least ___ feet away from involved buildings, even with nothing showing.

Apparatus Placement M.P. 205.07 | Beware of what when positioning apparatus?

overhead power lines

Apparatus Placement M.P. 205.07 | The water supply should be at least what?

one pumped line from an engine on a hydrant

Apparatus Placement M.P. 205.07 | Try to lay lines on the same side of street as the hydrant and cross over when?

near the fire

Apparatus Placement M.P. 205.07 Staff vehicle placement should go to Level __ staging unless that staff person has a pre-designated responsibility. The staging sector officer will advise Command of staff personnel available for assignment

Safe Parking While Operating in or Near Vehicle Traffic M.P. 205.07A Where possible, angle apparatus at ___ degrees away from curbside. This will direct motorists around the scene.

Safe Parking While Operating in or Near Vehicle Traffic M.P. 205.07A Where a charged hoseline may be needed, angle the engine so that the pump is "______", on the opposite side of on-coming traffic.

downstream

Safe Parking While Operating in or Near Vehicle Traffic M.P. 205.07A The initial Company Officer must operate as an initial ______ officer.

safety

Safe Parking While Operating in or Near Vehicle Traffic M.P. 205.07A For NIGHTTIME operations, turn OFF fire apparatus ______.

headlights

Safe Parking While Operating in or Near Vehicle Traffic M.P. 205.07A During NIGHTIME operations, other emergency lighting should be reduced to what?

yellow lights and emergency flashers where possible

Safe Parking While Operating in or Near Vehicle Traffic M.P. 205.07A Always wear what any time you are operating in or near vehicle traffic?

safety vest

Safe Parking While Operating in or Near Vehicle Traffic M.P. 205.07A At residential medical emergencies, park Rescue where, when possible?

in driveways

Safe Parking While Operating in or Near Vehicle Traffic M.P. 205.07A Place traffic cones at the scene to direct traffic. This should be initiated by the first company arriving on the scene and expanded, if needed, as alter arriving companies arrive on the scene. Always place and retrieve cones while _____ on-coming traffic.

facing

Safe Parking While Operating in or Near Vehicle Traffic M.P. 205.07A Listed below are general recommendations for the start of traffic cones/flares: -25mph -40mph -60mph

65 feet 105 feet 160 feet

Safe Parking While Operating in or Near Vehicle Traffic M.P. 205.07A Other apparatus should be parked ______ when possible.

downstream

Driver Safety M.P. 205.08 | Vehicle shall be operated in compliance with what?

the Arizona Motor Vehicle Code

``` Driver Safety M.P. 205.08 Emergency response (Code 3) does not absolve the driver of any _______ to drive with due caution. ```

responsibility

Driver Safety M.P. 205.08 | The driver of the emergency vehicle is responsible for it safe operation when?

at all times

Driver Safety M.P. 205.08 | The Co-driver is responsible for being what?

a second set of eyes and ears anytime a unit is responding Code 3.

Driver Safety M.P. 205.08 | Driver and Co-drivers must be focused on ______ management any time a PFD vehicle enters into an intersection Code 3.

intersection

Driver Safety M.P. 205.08 | If no response code is designated, the response will be Code ___ unless directed by a company officer

Driver Safety M.P. 205.08 When responding Code 3, warning lights must be on and sirens must be sounded to warn drivers of other vehicles, as required by what?

Arizona Motor Vehicle Code

Driver Safety M.P. 205.08 | The use of sirens and warning lights automatically gives the right-of-way to the emergency vehicle. True or False?

False; it does not automatically give the right-of-way to the emergency vehicle

Driver Safety M.P. 205.08 | Fire Department vehicles are authorized to exceed posted speed limits only when? How fast can they go?

when responding Code 3 under favorable conditions, a maximum of 10mph over the posted speed limit

Driver Safety M.P. 205.08 When emergency vehicles must travel in center or in oncoming traffic lanes, the maximum permissible speed shall be ___ mph.

Driver Safety M.P. 205.08 | What areas present the greatest potential danger to emergency vehicles?

intersections

Driver Safety M.P. 205.08 | When approaching and crossing an intersection with the right-of-way, drivers shall not do what?

exceed the posted speed limit

Driver Safety M.P. 205.08 When the first unit reports on the scene with "nothing showing" or an equivalent report, any additional units shall do what?

continue Code 3, but shall not exceed the posted speed limit

Driver Safety M.P. 205.08 | Drivers shall avoid ______ whenever possible.

backing

Driver Safety M.P. 205.08 | Where backing is unavoidable, ______ shall be used.

spotters

Driver Safety M.P. 205.08 | If no spotter is available, what shall the driver do?

dismount and walk completely around apparatus to determine if obstructions are present before backing

Driver Safety M.P. 205.08 | The company officer/driver of the vehicle will confirm what before the vehicle is permitted to move?

that all personnel and riders are on-board, properly attired, with seat belts on

Driver Safety M.P. 205.08 | Who is responsible for the safety of all vehicle operations and managing compliance of this procedure?

the officer in charge or driver

Driver Safety M.P. 205.08 | What shall always have priority over unnecessary speed and reckless driving enroute to an emergency incident?

safe arrival

Driver Safety M.P. 205.08 Prompt, Safe Response Shall be Attained by: 1. Leaving the station in a standard manner:

quickly mounting apparatus - all personnel on board, seated and belts on - station doors fully open

Standard Signals For Backing of Fire Department Apparatus M.P. 205.08A Where backing is unavoidable, ______ shall be used.

spotters

Standard Signals For Backing of Fire Department Apparatus M.P. 205.08A In addition, spotters shall be used when vehicles must negotiate forward _____ with restrictive side clearances and where _____ clearances are uncertain.

turns, height

Standard Signals For Backing of Fire Department Apparatus M.P. 205.08A Where engine or ladder companies are backed, who shall dismount and act as spotters?

all crew members (except the driver/tiller person), including the company officer.

Standard Signals For Backing of Fire Department Apparatus M.P. 205.08A Spotters should be located at as many corners as possible with at least one spotter where?

at the left rear corner of the apparatus

Standard Signals For Backing of Fire Department Apparatus M.P. 205.08A Where only a single spotter is available, the spotter should be located where?

off the left rear corner, and will act as the primary spotter

Standard Signals For Backing of Fire Department Apparatus M.P. 205.08A Spotter will discuss what with the engineer/driver before proceeding?

the backing plan

Standard Signals For Backing of Fire Department Apparatus M.P. 205.08A What will be done to allow for maximum communication/hearing between spotters and the engineer/driver?

both door windows (driver and front passenger) will be in the down position

Standard Signals For Backing of Fire Department Apparatus M.P. 205.08A What will be turned down?

fire radio volumes

Standard Signals For Backing of Fire Department Apparatus M.P. 205.08A When vehicles must be backed where other vehicle traffic exists, what must be done?

the vehicle's emergency lights (if equipped with such lights) shall be operating and orange safety vests shall be worn by all spotters.

Standard Signals For Backing of Fire Department Apparatus M.P. 205.08A Who is responsible for compliance with this procedure and the safe backing of the apparatus?

the company officer

Emergency Transportation Safe Customer Escort M.P. 205.08B | What are some of the reasons for transporting a patient with an escort in the rescue?

Patient care, family member care, parent care

Emergency Transportation Safe Customer Escort M.P. 205.08B | What is mandatory? Small adults or young children should not do what?

use of seatbelts, should not ride in any rescue cab with airbags installed.

Emergency Transportation Safe Customer Escort M.P. 205.08B | What are some of the reasons for refusing an escort in a rescue when transporting a patient to an emergency department?

infectious exposures, contamination, danger to rescue driver or patient

Emergency Transportation Safe Customer Escort M.P. 205.08B Who has responsibility on scene to obtain and consider the above information before a decision is made to allow an escort to ride with the patient in the rescue?

the company officer

Emergency Transportation Safe Customer Escort M.P. 205.08B | Who will make the final decision if there may be an escort?

the company officer

Ladder Tender Response M.P. 205.10 When responding from quarters, a complete crew will respond on the ladder truck to all structural assignments of what size?

3-1 or greater magnitude

Water Tender Response M.P. 205.11 | A Water Tender may be special called to any incident where required. Command will specify what?

either a water tender with driver only, or a full crew

Water Tender Response M.P. 205.11 | When a full crew is requested, the assigned company will respond with what?

the water tender plus their regular apparatus unless otherwise instructed

Water Tender Response M.P. 205.11 | When a water tender is requested with driver only, who is responsible to assign a qualified driver/pump operator?

the company officer

Water Tender Response M.P. 205.11 | What if the company housed with the closest available water tender is not in quarters?

alarm will dispatch an available company to pick up the water tender and respond

Water Tender Response M.P. 205.11 | Engineers may be assigned to water tenders on ______ ______ basis during periods of heavy brush fire activity

Constant Manning

Glendale Airport M.P. 205.13C | Aircraft emergencies are broken down into three categories: Alert 1, Alert 2, and Alert 3. What is an Alert 1?

Indicates an aircraft is having minor difficulties. A safe landing is expected.

Glendale Airport M.P. 205.13C | What is an Alert 2?

Indicates that an aircraft is having major difficulties. A difficult or crash landing may be expected.

Glendale Airport M.P. 205.13C | What is an Alert 3?

Indicates that an aircraft has crashed on or off the airport, or there is a high probability that the aircraft will crash, or the pilot has indicated that the landing gear will not work, and therefore, they will have to crash land on the airport

Glendale Airport M.P. 205.13C Glendale Airport Response Alert 1:

1 engine company

Glendale Airport M.P. 205.13C Glendale Airport Response Alert 2:

2 engine companies (one ALS) 1 ladder company 1 brush truck 1 battalion chief

Glendale Airport M.P. 205.13C Glendale Airport Response Alert 3:

``` 2 engine companies (one ALS) 1 ladder company 1 brush truck 1 utility truck 1 foam capability 1 battalion chief 1 Glendale shift commander ```

Glendale Airport M.P. 205.13C | Alert 1 and Alert 2 incidents all companies shall respond where?

to the Glendale Control Tower at Gate #9 and stage until the aircraft has landed

Glendale Airport M.P. 205.13C | If traveling on the runway is necessary, do so after doing what?

confirming with the Glendale Control Tower that the runway has been closed to all aircraft

Glendale Airport M.P. 205.13C | The Glendale Control Tower is staffed at what times Monday through Friday?

0600-2030 hours

Glendale Airport M.P. 205.13C | The Glendale Control Tower is staffed at what times Saturday and Sunday?

0700-1900 hours, including holidays

Glendale Airport M.P. 205.13C | Airport management is on site Monday through Friday at what times?

0530-2200 hours

Glendale Airport M.P. 205.13C | Airport management is on site Saturday and Sunday at what times?

0700-1700 hours

Glendale Airport M.P. 205.13C | Who is the point of contact and the Airport Manager?

Walter L. Fix, (623) 606-2582 (c)

Glendale Airport M.P. 205.13C | For Alert 3 incidents, all companies shall respond where?

directly to the crash site

Glendale Airport M.P. 205.13C | Companies responding should request through Phoenix Fire Dispatch Center what information?

number of passengers on board, the amount of fuel on board, the aircraft type

Freeway Response M.P. 205.15 | In most cases, a freeway incident will be reported by whom?

the Arizona Department of Public Safety (DPS)

Freeway Response M.P. 205.15 | if access problems are anticipated, or if the direction of travel is unknown, what will be done?

the Dispatch Center may send companies from opposite directions

Freeway Response M.P. 205.15 | If fire units are cancelled en-route, they should not proceed into the scene unless re-dispatched. True or False?

True

Freeway Response M.P. 205.15 | Units responding to calls on the Freeway will respond how?

Code 2 while on the Freeway mainline

Freeway Response M.P. 205.15 | The first unit arriving on the scene of a multiple unit incident will determine what?

if the DPS has established a Command Post

Freeway Response M.P. 205.15 | It's important to establish what as soon as possible?

a single "Unified Command"

Freeway Response M.P. 205.15 | It's important to physically assemble all representatives at a single ______ as soon as possible.

location

Freeway Response M.P. 205.15 | Who is responsible to research or know the location of hydrants and access to the freeway?

Each company officer

Freeway Response M.P. 205.15 | Water supplies and other factors must be ___-_____ by the first due officers.

pre, planned

Freeway Response M.P. 205.15 | Leave one crew member (usually the Engineer) to do what?

watch traffic and set up warning devices until the DPS arrives.

Freeway Response M.P. 205.15 | Parking brakes are to be set, and the apparatus set with the wheels at what?

an angle to the side

Response to Power Lines/Energized Electrical Equipment M.P. 205.20 A _____ _____ to ground can occur when contact is made between something energized and a portion of your body such as your hand, arm, head, or other body part.

direct path

Response to Power Lines/Energized Electrical Equipment M.P. 205.20 An _____ _____ to ground occurs when you are holding something or touching an object that is in contact with something energized. This could include tools or other equipment you may be holding or when touching a fence, vehicle, or other object that may be in contact with something energized.

indirect path

Response to Power Lines/Energized Electrical Equipment M.P. 205.20 When power lines are down, they will energize the _____ around them.

ground

Response to Power Lines/Energized Electrical Equipment M.P. 205.20 If your feet are in areas where there is a voltage difference, you could complete the circuit and be the source to the ground. This is called what?

"step potential"

Response to Power Lines/Energized Electrical Equipment M.P. 205.20 Step potential is more severe when the ground is ____.

wet

Response to Power Lines/Energized Electrical Equipment M.P. 205.20 Hose streams conduct current! Never spray directly into power lines. Use what type of water application?

Use a fog spray at the base of the pole. Short bursts of water are preferred methods to avoid being grounded.

Response to Power Lines/Energized Electrical Equipment M.P. 205.20 Never spray water onto electrical equipment until a utility rep has confirmed that the equipment is de-energized or "dead". True or False?

True

Response to Power Lines/Energized Electrical Equipment M.P. 205.20 What three ways is electrical equipment classified as?

- energized - de-energized - dead

Response to Power Lines/Energized Electrical Equipment M.P. 205.20 Most overhead conductors are not ______.

insulated

Response to Power Lines/Energized Electrical Equipment M.P. 205.20 Consider all down wires as "________"

energized

Operations at Violent Incidents M.P. 206.01 | What information provided is the weakest part of our information gathering system?

the information provided by the caller

Operations at Violent Incidents M.P. 206.01 | The system improves once we do what?

begin our strategic decision making model

Operations at Violent Incidents M.P. 206.01 | The initial dispatch information is rarely ______.

complete

Operations at Violent Incidents M.P. 206.01 The Phoenix Police Department TLO ( ______ ) is charged with establishing the same liaison position for the fire department.

C958PD

Operations at Violent Incidents M.P. 206.01 | C958 simply becomes a valuable _____ _____ to the IC in these instances.

technical advisor

Operations at Violent Incidents M.P. 206.01 | Who will not dictate a plan of action to our Fire Companies?

Law enforcement

Operations at Violent Incidents M.P. 206.01 | Staging where is an acceptable option if the incident is within proximity or for long durations?

in quarters

Operations at Violent Incidents M.P. 206.01 | Staging in quarters should not delay a company's ability to ______.

respond

Operations at Violent Incidents M.P. 206.01 | Level II staging should be utilized for what type of incidents or greater?

1st Alarm

Operations at Violent Incidents M.P. 206.01 | The best opportunity for accurate and timely information is direct communication with whom?

the PD officers onscene

Heat Stress Management M.P. 206.19 The following directives are to be implemented effective ____ ___ to ___ ____ of each year or at the discretion of the on-duty Shift Commander.

June, 1st, September, 30th

Heat Stress Management M.P. 206.19 | Dispatch and Deployment shall provide an additional ____ _____ company and ____ ____ to any working fire incident (s).

ALS, Engine, Rehab, Unit

Heat Stress Management M.P. 206.19 In addition to the above, Company Officers are responsible for monitoring and managing: -Cardiovascular activity shall be limited to a maximum of ___ minutes -A minimum of ___ ounces of fluid should be consumed during the 24 hour shift -Companies shall remain in rehab for a minimum of ___ minutes.

30, 64, 20

On Site Flashover Chamber Fires M.P. 202.14B The purpose of this procedure is to establish standard guidelines for conducting on-site training fires in the ESI flashover chamber, while complying with NFPA Standard ____.

1403

On Site Flashover Chamber Fires M.P. 202.14B | The following sectors shall be established on all flashover chamber fires:

Interior, rescue (RIC), Safety, Other

On Site Flashover Chamber Fires M.P. 202.14B Rescue Sector will provide a staffed, charged back-up line for each fire attack team, in position to assist in fire extinguishment and rescue of interior personnel. This sector will be staffed by experienced firefighter personnel (not recruit firefighters) and each Rapid Intervention Crew shall consist of at least ___ firefighters.

On Site Flashover Chamber Fires M.P. 202.14B The ______ officer shall have full authority to intervene and control or stop any aspect of the operations when in his/her judgment, a potential or real risk to personnel exists.

Safety

On Site Flashover Chamber Fires M.P. 202.14B The number of personnel involved in training fires inside the flashover chamber shall be limited to ___ personnel. To reduce risk, and assist with scene management, training fire participants shall be formed into individual teams consisting of no more than ___ members and supervised by ___ qualified flashover chamber instructors.

10, 8, 2

On Site Flashover Chamber Fires M.P. 202.14B | One officer on the scene shall be designated as an ______ officer and will assume those functions

accountability

On Site Flashover Chamber Fires M.P. 202.14B | PAR's should be used at the following accountability benchmarks:

``` upon entry any report of a firefighter in distress upon exiting the structure sudden hazardous event at the discretion of command ```

On Site Flashover Chamber Fires M.P. 202.14B | Passports will remain with the designated accountability officer near where?

the "point of entry" to the flashover chamber

On Site Flashover Chamber Fires M.P. 202.14B To reinforce safety procedures, a protective clothing and equipment inspection shall be conducted on all firefighters when?

before and after the flashover training

On Site Flashover Chamber Fires M.P. 202.14B ____ separate sources of water supply shall be established (one engine and one tender or engine). The water supply shall be test flowed by the forward pumper to ensure adequate water supply of a minimum of ___ gpm.

two, 500

On Site Flashover Chamber Fires M.P. 202.14B All fire suppression hoselines shall be supplied by one pumper. The RIC unit backup hoselines shall be supplied by a separate tender or pumper. All hoselines will be flow tested to confirm a minimum of ___ gpm, prior to igniting the fire

On Site Flashover Chamber Fires M.P. 202.14B All members shall have a full SCBA bottle prior to entering the flashover chamber. ____ capabilities shall be maintained on-scene during training fires.

ALS

On Site Flashover Chamber Fires M.P. 202.14B | Obtain approval from who prior to training?

Air Quality Control Immediate Supervisor Safety Officer

On Site Flashover Chamber Fires M.P. 202.14B The use of flammable or combustible liquids as defined in NFPA ___, shall be prohibited for use in live fire training evolutions. Only Class ___ materials shall be used in live fire training.

30, A

On Site Flashover Chamber Fires M.P. 202.14B | The ______ _____ is what produces and demonstrates the flashover.

combustible gas

On Site Flashover Chamber Fires M.P. 202.14B | The ignition process will be conducted under the direct supervision of the ______ officer.

Safety

On Site Flashover Chamber Fires M.P. 202.14B | Command shall assign an experienced firefighter to become ________.

"FIRESTARTER"

On Site Flashover Chamber Fires M.P. 202.14B | A ___ ____ ____ of the flashover chamber is required.

pre-fire tour

On Site Flashover Chamber Fires M.P. 202.14B | An evacuation flow and _____ shall be reviewed and agreed upon.

signal

On Site Flashover Chamber Fires M.P. 202.14B | Prior to conducting flashover chamber training fires, the following notifications must be made:

``` Dispatch and Deployment on duty PIO Safety Officer Air Quality Control Solid Waste Management (to the East) ```

On Site Flashover Chamber Fires M.P. 202.14B | On-site burn operations checklist, sectors established:

Interior Rescue (RIC) Safety Other

Mountain Rescue Operations M.P. 204.10 | The two categories of rescue are:

Non-technical | Technical

Mountain Rescue Operations M.P. 204.10 | Non-technical rescues with angles of inclination less than ___ degrees

Mountain Rescue Operations M.P. 204.10 | Most first responders have the equipment and training to affect this type of rescue

Non-technical

Mountain Rescue Operations M.P. 204.10 | Technical rescues with angles of inclination from ___ to ___ degrees.

40, 90

Mountain Rescue Operations M.P. 204.10 The types of rescues typically involve ropes and or rope systems and shall be performed by rescuers trained to the level of Technical Rescue Technician.

Technical

Mountain Rescue Operations M.P. 204.10 | NFPA _____ Standard on operations and training for technical search and rescue incidents.

1670

Mountain Rescue Operations M.P. 204.10 | NFPA _____ Standard for technical rescuer professional qualifications.

1006

Mountain Rescue Operations M.P. 204.10 | NFPA _____ Standard on life safety rope and equipment for emergency services.

1983

Supervising Less Experienced Personnel M.P. 206.03 | For the purpose of this procedure, a "less experienced" firefighter is defined as:

a probationary firefighter | any member with less than two years total experience assigned to firefighter duties

Supervising Less Experienced Personnel M.P. 206.03 It will be the responsibility of the company officer to determine the experience level of all firefighters assigned to his or her company through the following methods:

Interview Evaluate Training Follow-up

Supervising Less Experienced Personnel M.P. 206.03 The experienced firefighter, however, may be permitted, under appropriate and safe circumstances, to function at the incident without _____ ______ of a company officer.

direct supervision

Volume II Flashcards

(634 cards)