Volume 4 Flashcards
Which item is not checked when off-loading property from a carrier?
a) Production date.
b) Shipping label.
c) Obvious damage.
d) Transportation control number.
Production date.
Who works with the in-checker to ensure items are correctly identified and the appropriate condition tags or labels are used on the assets?
a) Customer.
b) Inspector.
c) Item manager.
d) Commander.
Inspector.
Which block of the AF Form 2005 will the inspector sign or stamp after the in-checker has signed and dated the form?
a) A.
b) B.
c) C.
d) D.
B.
Which operation includes verifying identity, security classification, condition, status, markings, tagging, and labeling for property?
a) Storage operations.
b) Inspection operations.
c) Receiving operations.
d) Inventory operations.
Inspection operations.
Who is responsible for overseeing the Care of Supplies in Storage (COSIS) program?
a) Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander.
b) Materiel management inspectors.
c) LRS deputy commander.
d) Chief inspector.
Chief inspector.
What three things are used to identify an item?
a) Reference number, item number, and stock number.
b) Stock number, nomenclature, and item description.
c) Stock number, item description, and specifications.
d) Reference number, stock number, and item description.
Reference number, stock number, and item description.
Which Department of Defense (DD) form is red and is used to identify property that is unserviceable and uneconomical to repair?
a) DD Form 1576, Test Modification Tag.
b) DD Form 1577, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag.
c) DD Form 1577–2, Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag.
d) DD Form 1577–3, Unserviceable (Reparable) Label.
DD Form 1577, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag.
What is the purpose of Department of Defense (DD) Form 2477, Inspection Extension?
a) Updates inspection data.
b) Identifies condemned items.
c) Identifies property forwarded to maintenance.
d) Identifies property in stock that has been suspended.
Updates inspection data.
What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to initiate a condition change?
a) FCH.
b) FCU.
c) FCC.
d) FCI.
FCC.
An organizational refusal would be a customer’s responsibility if the
a) property was damaged.
b) customer failed to cancel the due-out.
c) property delivered was an unsuitable substitute.
d) quantity issued was in excess of what the customer ordered.
customer failed to cancel the due-out.
Who schedules and accomplishes an aggressive surveillance inspection program of all items in storage?
a) Inspector.
b) Logistics manager.
c) Accountable officer.
d) Warehouse supervisor.
Inspector.
When is a supply discrepancy report (SDR) required?
a) Assets involving local base or station deliveries to or returns from internal or satellite activities.
b) Incorrect materiel, unacceptable substitutes, or duplicate shipments.
c) Logistic readiness squadron (LRS) processed an issue request.
d) LRS cancels an issue request.
Incorrect materiel, unacceptable substitutes, or duplicate shipments.
Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded when additional help is needed?
a) Major command (MAJCOM).
b) Stock control function.
c) Accountable officer.
d) Item manager.
Major command (MAJCOM).
At what temperature must a refrigerated storage chill space be maintained?
a) Between 50 and 60°F.
b) Between 32 and 50°F.
c) Below 32°F.
d) Below 0°F.
Between 32 and 50°F.
At a minimum, how many feet must separate flammable storage facilities from other facilities?
a) 25.
b) 50.
c) 75.
d) 100.
50.
What is a major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage?
a) Adverse weather.
b) Wet ground conditions.
c) Slipping on steel mat toppings.
d) Limited use of materiel handling equipment (MHE).
Limited use of materiel handling equipment (MHE).
The basic resource of any materiel management and distribution operation is the
a) materiel handling equipment.
b) gross space available.
c) storage space.
d) storage plan.
storage space.
What must be planned before the actual start of the storage operation to assure the floor and cubic capacity of the warehouse will be used to the greatest extent possible?
a) Bin rows.
b) Storage areas.
c) Item popularity.
d) Item similarity.
Storage areas.
When you increase the amount of space for an item in a location to eliminate overflow into another item’s location, you are implementing what storage factor?
a) Item quantity.
b) Item similarity.
c) Item popularity.
d) Item size and weight.
Item quantity.
What is used to identify a bin subdivision in the warehouse location code 05C045F056D?
a) 045.
b) 056.
c) F.
d) D.
D.
Warehouse stockrooms are sequenced from
a) left to right only.
b) right to left only.
c) left to right and front to rear.
d) right to left and rear to front.
left to right and front to rear.
What letter or symbol is entered in the “Warehouse Location Delete Flag” field when deleting a warehouse location?
a) R.
b) D.
c) #.
d) *.
*.
What item does the Air Force use to aid in inventory and warehouse validation?
a) Storage bays.
b) Corner markers.
c) Bar-coded labels.
d) Placement cards.
Bar-coded labels.
Within how many workdays of the start of an inventory cycle should the storage activity complete scheduled validations?
a) 3.
b) 7.
c) 10.
d) 14.
10.
How many days prior to the start of a warehouse validation is a warehouse location parameter input prepared?
a) 1.
b) 3.
c) 5.
d) 7.
1.
What action is required prior to performing a validation to ensure a warehouse is in the best condition for an inventory?
a) Inventory reserve assets.
b) Prepare the warehouse area.
c) Move assets to reserve location.
d) Move assets to alternate warehouse.
Prepare the warehouse area.
What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to move property to the correct location?
a) ISU.
b) FCS.
c) SPR.
d) TRM.
FCS.
The practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of storage space is called
a) honeycombing.
b) cross stacking.
c) mezzanine storage.
d) potential vacant space.
honeycombing.
Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be
a) saved as historical data.
b) obliterated.
c) recycled.
d) ignored.
obliterated.
Which transaction identification code (TRIC) identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative data change?
a) FCD.
b) FIC.
c) FCH.
d) 1SC.
FIC.
What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to manually transfer nondirected assets to the Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services (DLADS)?
a) A2*.
b) FTR.
c) SHP.
d) TRM.
TRM.
What routing identifier code (RIC) is processed with a special requisition when property is available in Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services (DLADS)?
a) AK1.
b) B14.
c) JBR.
d) SMS.
JBR.
What is used to identify hazards and safety measures associated with a particular product?
a) Environmental Protection Agency guidance.
b) The Materiel Management System.
c) Safety data sheet (SDS).
d) HAZMAT pharmacy.
Safety data sheet (SDS).
As a minimum, how often must a utility program be run to identify potentially hazardous item records that do not have an issue exception (IEX) code or health hazard flag (HHF) assigned?
a) Daily.
b) Weekly.
c) Monthly.
d) Quarterly.
Monthly.
Flammable solids include chemicals that are solids at a minimum temperature of
a) 80 degrees Fahrenheit (°F).
b) 90°F.
c) 100°F.
d) 110°F.
100°F.
What type of material storage is best used for items such as pesticides, poisons, and certain batteries?
a) High risk.
b) Flammable.
c) Corrosive.
d) Low hazard.
Low hazard.
When chemical and petroleum products reach their retest dates, what transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to suspend the outdated materiel on an unserviceable detail and prevent reissue?
a) FCA.
b) FCB.
c) FCC.
d) FCD.
FCC.
Hazardous disposal can generally be grouped into how many categories?
a) One.
b) Two.
c) Three.
d) Four.
Two.
Who is responsible for the costs of disposing of hazardous wastes?
a) Defense Reutilization and Marketing Service (DRMS).
b) Producing organization.
c) Inspection element.
d) Distribution officer.
Producing organization.
Which class of storage vault is used for storing secret and confidential materiel?
a) A.
b) B.
c) C.
d) D.
B.
Who is assigned as the installation Precious Metals Recovery Program (PMRP) manager/focal point for all matters concerning PMRP?
a) Item manager.
b) Maintenance supervisor.
c) Materiel management flight chief inspector.
d) Logistic readiness squadron (LRS) commander.
Materiel management flight chief inspector.
Who is responsible for transferring precious metals-bearing metals to the nearest Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services (DLADS) facility?
a) Department of Defense (DOD) activity.
b) Major command (MAJCOM).
c) Headquarters (HQ) USAF.
d) Item manager.
Department of Defense (DOD) activity.
As a minimum, how often must the combination on padlocks be changed for classified storage?
a) Monthly.
b) Quarterly.
c) Semiannually.
d) Annually.
Annually.
How are electronic sensitive devices (ESD) identified on the item record?
a) Issue exception (IEX) code 3.
b) IEX code 4.
c) Type cargo code 3.
d) Type cargo code 4.
Type cargo code 3.
What transaction identification code (TRIC) and activity code are used to process an electronic sensitive device (ESD) item from a detail record to maintenance for testing?
a) ISU, E.
b) MSI, E.
c) ISU, C.
d) MSI, C.
MSI, C.
If required, who can open an electrostatic discharge (ESD) item package?
a) Item managers.
b) ESD receiving personnel.
c) Materiel management inspector.
d) Logistics readiness squadron commander (LRS\CC).
Materiel management inspector.
What markings on an item provides proof that a functional check was done?
a) Base supply inspector’s stamp/signature.
b) Base maintenance inspector’s stamp/signature.
c) Maintenance point of contact stamp/signature.
d) The words “Functional Check Performed” on the container.
Base maintenance inspector’s stamp/signature.
As a minimum, how often is a functional check listing produced?
a) Weekly.
b) Monthly.
c) Semiannually.
d) Annually.
Semiannually.
What type of shelf life coded item has a definite nonextendable shelf-life?
a) Type A.
b) Type B.
c) Type I.
d) Type II.
Type I.
How many days prior to the expiration date should type II shelf-life items be scheduled for serviceability testing?
a) 10.
b) 15 to 45.
c) 60 to 90.
d) 120.
15 to 45.
What computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag to an item record?
a) FCC with suspect flag F.
b) FCD with suspect flag F.
c) FCC with suspect flag S.
d) FCD with suspect flag S.
FCD with suspect flag S.
What is employed to determine how counterfeit/discrepant materiel was procured to prevent reoccurrence?
a) Risk-based approach.
b) Safety-based approach.
c) Leadership-based approach.
d) Management-based approach.
Risk-based approach.
Which program reviews discrepant and suspected counterfeit materiel?
a) Air Force Discrepancy Reporting System.
b) Air Force Damage Reporting System.
c) Joint Discrepancy Reporting System.
d) Joint Damage Reporting System.
Joint Discrepancy Reporting System.
The information that must be annotated on the receiving document of a warranty or guaranty item is the serial number,
a) model, and manufacturer’s name.
b) model, and manufacturer’s reference number.
c) part number, and manufacturer’s name and address.
d) part number, and manufacturer’s reference number.
model, and manufacturer’s name.
At a minimum, how frequently is the unserviceable storage area reviewed by storage personnel for validation purposes?
a) Daily.
b) Weekly.
c) Monthly.
d) Quarterly.
Daily.
The inventory deadline date is the Julian date the actual count
a) begins.
b) ends.
c) is scheduled.
d) is verified.
begins.
Who ensures the warehouse does not remain closed to normal receipts and issues for an unreasonable length of time and that all backlog transactions are processed upon completion of the inventory?
a) Accountable officer.
b) Warehouse supervisor.
c) Maintenance supervisor.
d) Item manager.
Accountable officer.
When inventory count images are input, the computer compares the record balance with the
a) unit price.
b) unit of issue.
c) controlled item code.
d) physical count quantity.
physical count quantity.
When performing an inventory on an equipment account, which product is used to record the out-of-balance conditions?
a) Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL) (R14).
b) Parameter inputs.
c) 1GP output notice.
d) Equipment listing.
Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL) (R14).
What document is used to clear the “I” freeze code suspense file?
a) Reverse post output document.
b) Inventory count record.
c) Inventory recount image (IRC) output document.
d) Annotated 1GP notice.
Annotated 1GP notice.
An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when the record balance does not agree with the recount quantity and the dollar value of the adjustment is less than
a) $25.
b) $50.
c) $100.
d) $1,000.
$100.
To indicate that additional research is needed, the modified recount image contains a research indicator of
a) AC.
b) AR.
c) AT.
d) AZ.
AR.
At a minimum, how often will an inventory analysis be performed?
a) Daily.
b) Monthly.
c) Semi-annual.
d) Annual.
Monthly.
Which listing has an intermediate inventory adjustment summary of the inventory analysis?
a) D04.
b) D06.
c) M10.
d) R14.
M10.
Who initiates the deficiency report process to include the deficient property at the time of turn-in?
a) Materiel management personnel.
b) Maintenance personnel.
c) Warehouse supervisor.
d) Item manager.
Maintenance personnel.
Which document is an official report of facts and circumstances supporting assessment of financial liability for the loss, damage, or destruction of Air Force property?
a) Report of discrepancy.
b) Report of survey.
c) Supply discrepancy report.
d) Deficiency evaluation report.
Report of survey.
Which individual is appointed by the unit commander to accept custodial responsibility for government property under their control?
a) Item manager.
b) Accountable officer.
c) Property custodian.
d) Maintenance supervisor.
Property custodian.
Which concept mandates all personnel are essential to conserve, protect, and maintain available government systems, equipment and supplies for operational requirements?
a) Supply discipline.
b) Inventory adjustment.
c) Materiel deficiency report.
d) Reports of survey.
Supply discipline.
The expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD) for bench stock items must be
a) XB3.
b) XF3.
c) ND2.
d) XD2.
XB3.
What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load the initial master bench stock details?
a) 1BS.
b) 2BS.
c) 1F3.
d) 1GP.
2BS.
Once the date of last demand has exceeded how many days are bench stock items recommended for deletion?
a) 120.
b) 180.
c) 270.
d) 360.
270.
Which product recommends items that qualify for addition to organizational bench stocks?
a) M04.
b) R26.
c) R31.
d) S04.
M04.
How often must bench stock standard reporting designator (SRD) data and minimum reserve authorization (MRA) levels be validated?
a) Monthly.
b) Quarterly.
c) Semiannually.
d) Annually.
Annually.
Which principle of materiel handling obtains the greatest economy in moving materiel?
a) Advanced planning.
b) Use straight line flow.
c) Least handling is the best handling.
d) Volume dictates the method of handling.
Least handling is the best handling.
Which principle of materiel handling requires consideration of legal and physical restrictions concerning transportation?
a) Advanced planning.
b) Use straight line flow.
c) Least handling is the best handling.
d) Volume dictates the method of handling.
Advanced planning.
What can increase productivity and utilization of warehouse space in addition to improving mission capability and enhancing safety?
a) Honeycombing
b) Storage aids systems.
c) Support equipment.
d) Packaging materials.
Storage aids systems.
Short-life reusable containers are expected to survive at least how many round-trips?
a) 10.
b) 25.
c) 50.
d) 100.
10.
Which action makes cargo loading and unloading as fast and easy as possible?
a) Calibrate.
b) Palletize.
c) Refurbish.
d) Demilitarize.
Palletize.
Which element within the logistic readiness squadron (LRS) is responsible for providing secure storage for weapons?
a) Mobility.
b) Stock control.
c) Storage and issue.
d) Customer service.
Mobility.
What is defined as materiel that requires a high degree of protection and control due to statutory requirements or regulations?
a) Sensitive items.
b) Classified items.
c) Industrial supplies.
d) General supplies.
Sensitive items.
Identification of persons authorized to accept controlled material is done according to
a) Air Force Instruction (AFI) 31–401, Information Security Program Management.
b) Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 23–122, Materiel Management.
c) AFI 16–1404, Air Force Information Security Program.
d) AFI 23–2308, Management Program.
AFI 16–1404, Air Force Information Security Program.
Who is responsible for training logistics readiness squadron (LRS) personnel who will handle controlled materiel?
a) Inventory section.
b) Security forces.
c) Chief inspector.
d) Commander.
Chief inspector.
Who will Air Force activities report to concerning all discrepancies involving classified items?
a) Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander.
b) Maintenance supervisor.
c) Security manager.
d) Item manager.
Security manager.
What color of ink is used to stamp or write “Classified Item” on copies of source documents for classified items?
a) Blue.
b) Red.
c) Black.
d) Green.
Red.
Who is responsible for the health of assigned items to meet mission requirements?
a) Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) item management team.
b) Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander.
c) Defense Logistics Agency (DLA).
d) Item manager.
Item manager.
Who accounts for threat reduction assets at both organic and contract repair facilities?
a) Item manager.
b) Defense Logistics Agency (DLA).
c) Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander.
d) Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) item management team.
Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) item management team.
What item must be loaded in the Enterprise Solution–Supply (ES-S) system for all individuals who receive parts from the logistics readiness squadron (LRS)?
a) Customer record.
b) Position identifier.
c) Domain name server.
d) Stock control system.
Customer record.
Which report provides a snapshot of the effectiveness of meeting customer requirements with on-the-shelf assets?
a) Items Pulled.
b) Items Not Pulled.
c) Items Received by Customer.
d) Items Not Received by Customer.
Items Not Received by Customer.
The intent of the Enterprise Asset Visibility (EVA) component is to provide complete visibility of Air Force
a) owned assets.
b) sourced assets.
c) asset shortages.
d) repairable assets.
owned assets.
What legacy systems can the Enterprise Solution–Supply (ES–S) query and view orders in?
a) D043; LIMS-EV; Materiel Management System.
b) D035A; LIMS-EV; Materiel Management System.
c) Materiel Management System; D035A; D035K.
d) D035A; D035K; D043.
Materiel Management System; D035A; D035K.
In Enterprise Solution–Supply (ES–S), what are the three main areas of the Order Selection Page?
a) Search Value, Selection Criteria, and Order Selection Criteria.
b) Required Selection Criteria, Data Source, and Display Criteria.
c) Order Selection Criteria, DODAAC, and Display Criteria.
d) Data Source, Search Value, and DODAAC.
Data Source, Search Value, and DODAAC.
What type of audits does the Audit Data Query enhances your ability to query transaction information for?
a) Management and inventory.
b) Issue and requisition.
c) Internal and external.
d) Single and multiple.
Internal and external.
What on-line system combines the issue, shipment, receipt, and transfer of wholesale and retail materiel?
a) Stock control system (SCS).
b) Logistics Information Network (LINK).
c) Visual Logistics Information Processing System (VLIPS).
d) Standard Automated Materiel Management System (SAMMS).
Stock control system (SCS).
Which system provides the user with information on their requisitions, with emphasis placed on the flightline base level user?
a) TRACKER.
b) RAMPS.
c) LINK.
d) SCS.
TRACKER.
Which supports repair execution and item distribution, and manages flow of recoverable assets in and out of depot repair?
a) Readiness Assessment Module.
b) Propulsion Requirement System.
c) Requirements/Execution Availability Logistics Module.
d) Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System.
Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System.
The Supply Interface System residue images are considered delinquent after how many hours?
a) 24.
b) 36.
c) 48.
d) 72.
24.
How long are the Supply Interface System residue images kept before they are deleted?
a) 5 days.
b) 7 days.
c) 10 days.
d) 14 days.
10 days.
How can users request access to the logistics, installations & mission support-enterprise view (LIMS-EV)?
a) Via the Air Force Portal.
b) Through the Supply Interface System.
c) Contacting the Defense Logistics Agency.
d) Via the Logistics Information Network.
Via the Air Force Portal.
